Idaho Administrative Code — Occupational and Professional Licenses, Division of

IDAPA 24 Occupational and Professional Licenses, Division of

24.32.01 Rules of Board of Licensure of Professional Engineers and Professional Land Surveyors

IDAPA 24.32.01.000 Legal Authority

These rules are promulgated pursuant to Sections 54-1208(1 ), 55-1702(1), 55-1606, 67-2614, 67-9406, and 67-9409, Idaho Code.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.32.01.001 Scope

These rules cover the procedures of the board and the practice of professional engineering and land surveying in the State of Idaho.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.32.01.002 Definitions

The following terms are used as defined below:(3-28-23) 01.

ANSAC. Applied and Natural Science Accreditation Commission.(7-1-25)

02.Deceit. To intentionally misrepresent a material matter, or intentionally omit to disclose a known material matter.(3-28-23)

03.Division. The Division of Occupational and Professional Licenses.(7-1-25)

04.EAC-ABET. Engineering Accreditation Commission of the Accreditation Board for Engineering and Technology.(7-1-25)

05.ETAC. Engineering Technology Accreditation Commission.(7-1-25)

06.Incompetence. Failure to meet the standard of care.(3-28-23)

07.Misconduct. A violation or attempt to violate these rules or statutes applicable to the practice of engineering or surveying, or to knowingly assist or induce another to do so, or do so through the acts of another; a finding of guilt of commitment of a felony or a plea of guilty to a felony; commit fraud or deceit; failure to respond within twenty (20) days of an inquiry from the Board or its representative, unless such time is extended by the Board for justifiable cause; state or imply an ability to influence improperly a government agency or official.(3-28-23)

08.NCEES. National Council of Examiners for Engineering and Surveying.(7-1-25)

003 – 099.(RESERVED)

IDAPA 24.32.01.100 Licensure

01.Qualifications for Licensure.

a.Completion of Application. The application by a business entity for a certificate of authorization to practice or offer to practice engineering or land surveying must set forth its address, and name and address of the individual, or individuals, duly licensed to practice engineering or land surveying in this state, who will be in responsible charge of engineering or land surveying services offered or rendered by the business entity in this state.

b.Submittal of Applications and Examination Cutoff Date. Submittal of applications for licensure or intern certification must occur after passing the required. NCEES examinations.(7-1-25)

i.Only experience up to the date of submittal of the application for licensure will be considered as valid, unless otherwise approved by the Board.(7-1-25)

ii.Applications for certification as engineering or surveying interns are submitted after passing the Fundamentals of Engineering or the Fundamentals of Surveying examination and providing evidence of graduation with required educational credentials.(7-1-25)

c.Minimum Boundary Survey Experience. Two (2) years of the required four (4) years of experience must be boundary survey experience as a condition of professional land surveyor licensure.(7-1-25)

02.Educational Requirements. The application for licensure as a professional engineer or professional land surveyor together with a passing score on the written ethics questionnaire is considered in the determination of the applicant’s eligibility. Prescriptive education requirements are as follows:(7-1-25)

a.In regard to educational requirements, the Board will unconditionally approve only those engineering programs that are accredited by the Engineering Accreditation Commission (EAC) of ABET, Inc., or the bachelor’s degree programs accredited by the Canadian Engineering Accrediting Board, or those bachelor’s degree programs that are accredited by official organizations recognized by the U.K. Engineering Council.(7-1-25)

b.Non-EAC-ABET accredited engineering programs, related science programs, and engineering technology programs will be considered by the Board on their specific merits but are not considered equal to engineering programs accredited by EAC-ABET. An applicant must have completed the following:(7-1-25)

i.Thirty-two (32) college semester credit hours of higher mathematics and basic sciences. The credits in mathematics must be beyond algebra and trigonometry and emphasize mathematical concepts and principles rather than computation. Courses in differential and integral calculus are required. Additional courses may include differential equations, linear algebra, numerical analysis, probability and statistics and advanced calculus. The credits in basic sciences must include at least two (2) courses. These courses must be in general chemistry, general calculusbased physics, or general biological sciences; the two (2) courses may not be in the same area. Additional basic sciences courses may include earth sciences (geology, ecology), advanced biology, advanced chemistry, and advanced physics. Computer skills and/or programming courses may not be used to satisfy mathematics or basic science requirements. Basic engineering science courses or sequence of courses in this area are acceptable for credit but may not be counted twice.(7-1-25)

ii.Twelve (12) college credit hours in a general education component that complements the technical content of the curriculum. Examples of traditional courses in this area are philosophy, religion, history, literature, fine arts, sociology, psychology, political science, anthropology, economics (micro and macro), professional ethics, and social responsibility. Language courses in the applicant's native language are not acceptable for credit; no more than six (6) credit hours of foreign language courses are acceptable for credit. Native language courses in literature and civilization may be considered in this area. The Board may waive these requirements at its discretion.(7-1-25)

iii.Forty-eight (48) college credit hours of engineering science and/or engineering design courses.

Courses in engineering science must be taught within the college / faculty of engineering having their roots in mathematics and basic sciences but carry knowledge further toward creative application of engineering principles.

Examples of approved engineering science courses are mechanics, thermodynamics, heat transfer, electrical and electronic circuits, materials science, transport phenomena, and compu ter science (other than computer programming skills). Courses in engineering design stress the establishment of objectives and criteria, synthesis, analysis, construction, testing, and evaluation. Graduate level engineering courses may be included to fulfill curricular requirements in this area. Engineering technology courses cannot be considered to meet engineering topic requirements.(7-1-25)

c.In regard to educational requirements, the Board will unconditionally approve only those surveying programs that are accredited either by the Engineering Accreditation Commission (EAC), the Applied and Natural Science Accreditation Commission (ANSAC) or the Engineering Technology Accreditation Commission (ETAC) of ABET, Inc. Non-EAC-ETAC and non-ANSAC accredited surveying programs, related science programs, and surveying programs will be considered by the Board on their specific merits, but are not considered equal to surveying programs accredited by EAC-ETAC or ANSAC. An applicant must have completed the following:

i.Eighteen (18) college semester credit hours of mathematics and basic sciences. A minimum of twelve (12) credits in mathematics must be beyond basic mathematics, but the credits include college algebra or higher mathematics. These courses must emphasize mathematical concepts and principles rather than computation.

Mathematics courses may include college algebra, trigonometry, analytic geometry, differential and integral calculus, linear algebra, numerical analysis, probability and statistics, and advanced calculus. A minimum of six (6) credits must be in basic sciences. These courses must cover one or more of the following topics: general chemistry, advanced chemistry, life sciences (biology), earth sciences (geology, ecology), general physics, and advanced physics.

Computer skills and/or programming courses may not be used to satisfy mathematics or basic science requirements;

ii.Twelve (12) college semester credit hours in a general education component that complements the technical content of the curriculum. Examples of traditional courses in this area are religion, history, literature, fine arts, sociology, psychology, political science, anthropology, economics, professional ethics, and social responsibility.

No more than six (6) credit hours of languages other than English or other than the applicant’s native language are acceptable for credit. English and foreign language courses in literature and civilization may be considered in this area. Courses that instill cultural values are acceptable, while routine exercises of personal craft are not. The Board may waive these requirements at its discretion;(7-1-25)

iii.Thirty (30) college semester credit hours of surveying science and surveying practice. Courses must be taught by qualified surveying faculty. Required courses will include a minimum of basic surveying, route surveying, geodesy, surveying law, public land survey system, and global positioning systems. Examples of additional surveying courses include geographic information systems, land development design and planning, photogrammetry, mapping, survey adjustment and coordinates systems, cartography, legal descriptions, and remote sensing.(7-1-25)

d.The Board may require an independent evaluation of the engineering education of an applicant who has a non-EAC-ABET accredited engineering degree or a non-engineering degree. Such evaluation must be done through an organization approved by the Board and be done at the expense of the applicant to ensure that the applicant has completed the coursework requirements of Subsection 017.03.b.(7-1-25)

03.Examinations.(7-1-25)

a.Two Examinations for Engineering Licensure. The examining procedure for licensure as a professional engineer consists of two (2) examinations: Fundamentals of Engineering examination; and the Principles and Practice of Engineering for professional engineer licensure.(7-1-25)

b.Three Examinations for Land Surveying Licensure. The examining procedure for licensure as a professional land surveyor consists of three (3) written examinations: the Fundamentals of Surveying examination for land surveyor intern certification; the Principles and Practice of Surveying; and the Idaho specific professional land surveying examination. A passing score on the Idaho-specific professional land surveying examination will be set by the Board.(7-1-25)

c.Reexaminations. The reexamination policy for each failed national examination will be established by NCEES. Reexamination for failed Idaho specific examinations will be allowed until a passing score is attained, but the Board may, in addition, require oral or other examinations.(7-1-25)

04.Interstate Licensure/Comity.(7-1-25)

a.Interstate Licensure Evaluation. Each application for an Idaho professional engineer license or professional land surveyor license submitted by an applicant who is licensed in one (1) or more states, possessions or territories or the District of Columbia, will be considered by the Board on its merits, and the application evaluated for substantial compliance with respect to the requirements of the Idaho law related to experience, examination, and education. A minimum of four (4) years of progressive experience after graduation with a bachelor’s degree is required for licensure. Comity applicants must meet the education requirements and the following:(7-1-25)

i.Graduates of Bachelor of Science engineering programs accredited by the Canadian Engineering Accrediting Board, or those university Bachelor of Engineering programs that are accredited by official organizations recognized by the U.K. Engineering Council, will be considered to have satisfied the educational requirement for issuance of a license as a professional engineer.(7-1-25)

ii.The Board may require an independent evaluation of the engineering education of an applicant who has a non-EAC-ABET accredited four (4) year bachelor’s degree. Such evaluation must be performed by an organization approved by the Board and at the expense of the applicant to ensure they have completed the required coursework.(7-1-25)

b.International Engineering Licensure Evaluation - Countries or Jurisdictions with Board Approved Licensure Process. The Board shall determine if the professional engineering licensure process in other countries or jurisdictions is substantially equivalent. The Board may waive prescriptive education and examination requirements if the applicant possesses a professional engineer in good standing, has a minimum of eight (8) years of experience after initial licensure, provided the applicant has no criminal or outstanding disciplinary. A licensing process in another country must include requirements of experience, education, testing, a code of professional responsibility, regulation of licensees including the ability to take disciplinary action and the willingness, availability, and capacity of a foreign licensing authority to release information to the Board in English.(7-1-25)

c.International Engineering Licensure Evaluation - Countries or Jurisdictions Without a Board Approved Licensure Process. Each applicant who is licensed as a professional engineer in one (1) or more foreign countries or jurisdictions, will be considered by the Board on its merits. The applicant shall be evaluated for substantial compliance with the requirements of Idaho law with respect to experience, examination, and education.

Two (2) years of the required four (4) years of experience must be in the United States, or experience working on projects requiring the knowledge and use of codes and standards similar to those in the United States validated by a professional engineer licensed in the United States. Applicants must have passed a professional engineering examination administered by NCEES. Prescriptive education requirements are as follows:(7-1-25)

i.Graduates of Bachelor of Engineering programs accredited by the Canadian Engineering Accrediting Board, or those university Bachelor of Engineering programs that are accredited by official organizations recognized by the U.K. Engineering Council, will be considered to have satisfied the education requirement for issuance of a license as a professional engineer.(7-1-25)

ii.The Board may require an independent evaluation of the engineering education of an applicant who has a non-EAC-ABET accredited four (4) year bachelor’s degree. Such evaluation shall be performed by an organization approved by the Board and at the expense of the applicant to ensure they have completed the required coursework.(7-1-25)

d.Business Entity Requirements. No application for a certificate of authorization to practice or offer to practice professional engineering or professional land surveying, or both, in Idaho by a business entity authorized to practice professional engineering or professional land surveying, or both, in one (1) or more states, possessions or territories, District of Columbia, or foreign countries are considered by the Board unless such application includes the name and address of the individual or individuals, duly licensed to practice professional engineering or professional land surveying or both in this state, who will be in responsible charge of the engineering or land surveying services, or both, as applicable, to be rendered by the business entity. Individuals must certify or indicate to the Board their willingness to assume responsible charge.(7-1-25)

05.Continuing Education Requirements. The purpose of the continuing professional development requirement is to demonstrate a continuing level of competency of licensees. Every land surveyor licensee, including faculty license holders, shall meet thirty (30) PDH units per biennium of continuing professional development as a cond ition for licensure renewal. Every professional engineer licensee, including faculty holders, shall meet twentyfour (24) PDH units per biennium of continuing professional development as a condition for licensure renewal. A licensee may carry forward up to thirty (30) hours of excess continuing education per renewal period. Membership in a professional society will count as one (1) PDH per year, for a maximum of two (2) PDH per profession per year. A guidance document regarding PDH units shall be available on the Division’s website.(7-1-25)

06.Discontinued, Retired, And Expired Licenses and Certificates.(7-1-25)

a.Reinstatement – Disciplinary. Licensees who choose to convert their license to retired status as part of a disciplinary action, in lieu of discipline, or in lieu of compliance with continuing professional development requirements, may be reinstated upon written request. The Board will consider the reinstatement request at a hearing.

b.Reinstatement – Nondisciplinary. Licensees who chose to convert their license to retired status not as part of a disciplinary action may request reinstatement in writing. Reinstatement may require a hearing.(7-1-25)

c.Continuing Professional Development. Licensees requesting reinstatement must demonstrate compliance with the continuing professional development requirements described in these rules.(7-1-25)

d.Eligibility. Unless otherwise approved by the Board, only active licensees are eligible to convert to retired status.(7-1-25)

e.Discontinued Certificate of Authorization. Discontinued certificated are not eligible for reinstatement.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.32.01.101 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.32.01.200 Practice Standards

01.Seals.( 7-1-25)

a.Official Seal of Board. The official seal of this Board consists of the seal of the state of Idaho, surrounded with the words “Board of Professional Engineers and Professional Land Surveyors” and “State of Idaho.”

b.Seals for Engineers and Land Surveyors. Seals prepared and approved prior to July 1, 2008, are valid for continued use.(7-1-25)

c.Seal for Professional Engineer or Land Surveyor. Engineers obtaining licensure as land surveyors use the seal showing licensure as a Professional Engineer and Land Surveyor as adopted by the Board. Seals prepared and approved prior to July 1, 2008, are valid for continued use.(7-1-25)

02.Responsibility to the Public.(7-1-25)

a.Primary Obligation. All licensees and certificate holders must at all times recognize their primary obligation is to protect the safety, health and welfare of the public in the performance of their professional duties.

b.Standard of Care. Each licensee and certificate holder must exercise such care, skill and diligence as others in that profession ordinarily exercise under like circumstances.(7-1-25)

c.Professional Judgment. If any licensee’s professional judgment is overruled under circumstances where the safety, health, and welfare of the public are endangered, the Licensee or Certificate Holder must inform the employer or client of the possible consequences and, where appropriate, notify the Board or such other authority of the situation.(7-1-25)

d.Obligation to Communicate Discovery of Discrepancy. Except as provided in the Idaho Rules of Civil Procedure 26(b)(4)(B), if a licensee or certificate holder, during the course of the licensee’s work, discovers a material discrepancy, error, or omission in the work of another licensee or certificate holder, which may impact the health, property and welfare of the public, the discoverer must make a reasonable effort to inform the licensee or certificate holder whose work is believed to contain the discrepancy, error or omission. Such communication must reference specific codes, standards or physical laws which are believed to be violated and identification of documents which are believed to contain the discrepancies. The licensee or certificate holder whose work is believed to contain the discrepancy must respond within twenty (20) calendar days to any question about the licensee’s work raised by another licensee or certificate holder. In the event a response is not received within twenty (20) calendar days, the discoverer must notify the licensee or certificate holder in writing, who has another twenty (20) calendar days to respond. Failure to respond (with supportable evidence) on the part of the licensee or certificate holder whose work is believed to contain the discrepancy is considered a violation of these rules and may subject the licensee or certificate hol der to disciplinary action by the Board. The discoverer must notify the Board in the event a response that does not answer the concerns of the discoverer is not obtained within the second twenty (20) calendar days. A licensee or certificate holder is exempt from this requirement if their client is an attorney, and they are being treated as an expert witness. In this case, the Idaho Rules of Civil Procedure apply.(7-1-25)

e.Obligation to Affected Landowners. Land surveyors have a duty to set monuments at the corners of their client’s property boundaries. If a monument is to be set at a location that represents a material discrepancy with an existing monument at any corner of record, land surveyors must also notify in writing all affected adjoining land owners and the Board prior to setting the new monument.(7-1-25)

03.Competency For Assignments.(7-1-25)

a.Assignments in Field of Competence. A licensee must undertake to perform assignments only when qualified by education or experience in the specific technical field involved, however, a licensee, as the prime professional, may accept an assignment requiring education or experience outside of the licensee’s own field of competence, but the licensee’s services are restricted to those phases of the project in which the licensee is qualified.

All other phases of such project must be performed by qualified associates, consultants or employees. For projects encompassing one (1) or more disciplines beyond the licensee’s competence, a licensee may sign and seal the cover sheet for the total project only when the licensee has first determined that all elements of the project have been prepared, signed and sealed by others who are competent, licensed and qualified to perform such services.(7-1-25)

b.Aiding and Abetting an Unlicensed Person. A licensee or certificate holder must avoid actions and procedures which, in effect, amount to aiding and abetting an unlicensed person to practice engineering or land surveying.(7-1-25)

04.Conflict of Interest.(7-1-25)

a.Conflict of Interest to Be Avoided. Each licensee or certificate holder must conscientiously avoid conflict of interest with an employer or client, and, when unavoidable, must forthwith disclose the circumstances in writing to the employer or client. In addition, the licensee or certificate holder must promptly inform the employer or client in writing of any business association, interests, or circumstances which could influence a licensee’s or certificate holder’s judgment or quality of service or jeopardize the clients’ interests.(7-1-25)

b.Compensations From Multiple Parties on the Same Project. A licensee or certificate holder may accept compensation, financial or otherwise, from more than one (1) party for services on the same project, or for services pertaining to the same project, provided the circumstances are fully disclosed, in writing, in advance and agreed to by all interested parties.(7-1-25)

c.Solicitation From Material or Equipment Suppliers. A licensee or certificate holder may not solicit or accept financial or other valuable considerations from material or equipment suppliers for specifying or recommending the products of said suppliers, except with full disclosure as outlined in Subsection 103.02. (7-1-25)

d.Gratuities. A licensee or certificate holder may not solicit or accept gratuities, gifts, travel, lodging, loans, entertainment or other favors directly or indirectly, from contractors, their agents or other third parties dealing with a client or employer in connection with work for which the licensee or certificate holder is responsible, which can be con strued to be an effort to improperly influence the licensee’s or certificate holder’s professional judgment.

Minor expenditures such as advertising trinkets, novelties and meals are excluded. Neither may a licensee or certificate holder make any such improper offer.(7-1-25)

e.Solicitation From Agencies. A licensee, a certificate holder, or a representative thereof may not solicit or accept a contract from a governmental authority on which an existing officer, director, employee, member, partner, or sole proprietor of the licensee’s organization serves as a member of the elected or appointed policy and governing body of such governmental authority or serves as a member of an entity of such governmental authority having the right to contract or recommend a contract for the services of a licensee or certificate holder.(7-1-25)

f.Professional Services Decisions of Agencies. A licensee, certificate holder, or representative thereof serving as a member of the governing body of a governmental authority, whether elected or appointed, or an advisor or consultant to a governmental Board, commission or department may at all times be subject to the statutory provisions concerning ethics in government, Section 74-401, Idaho Code, et seq. A violation of the “Ethics in Government Act of 2015” will be considered a violation of these rules.(7-1-25)

g.Unfair Advantage of Position and Work Outside Regular Employment. When a licensee or an individual certificate holder is employed in a full-time position, the person may not use the advantages of the position to compete unfairly with other professionals and may not accept professional employment outside of that person’s regular work or interest without the knowledge of and written permission or authorization from that person’s employer.(7-1-25)

05.Solicitation of Work.(7-1-25)

a.Commissions. A licensee or certificate holder may not pay or offer to pay, either directly or indirectly, any commission, gift or other valuable consideration to secure work, except to employees or established business enterprises retained by a licensee or certificate holder for the purpose of securing business or employment.

b.Representation of Qualifications. A licensee or certificate holder may not falsify or permit misrepresentation of the licensee or the licensee associates’ academic or professional qualifications and may not misrepresent or exaggerate the degree of responsibility in or for the subject matter of prior assignments. Brochures or other presentations incident to the solicitation of employment may not misrepresent pertinent facts concerning employers, employees, associates, joint venturers or the licensee or the licensee’s past accomplishments with the intent and purpose of enhancing qualifications for the work. The licensee or certificate holder may not indulge in publicity that is misleading.(7-1-25)

c.Assignment on Which Others Are Employed. A licensee or certificate holder may not knowingly seek or accept employment for professional services for an assignment that another licensee or certificate holder is employed or contracted to perform without the currently employed or contracted entity being informed in writing.

d.Contingency Fee Contracts. A licensee or certificate holder may not accept an agreement, contract, or commission for professional services on a “contingency basis” that may compromise the licensee’s professional judgment and may not accept an agreement, contract or commission for professional services that includes provisions wherein the payment of fee involved is contingent on a “favorable” conclusion, recommendation or judgment.

e.Selection on the Basis of Qualifications. On selections for professional engineering and land surveying services that are required pursuant to Section 67-2320, Idaho Code, a licensee or certificate holder, in response to solicitations described in Section 67-2320, Idaho Code, may not submit information that constitutes a bid for services requested either as a consultant or subconsultant.(7-1-25)

06.Form. The form to be used in filing corner perpetuations shall be available on the Division’s website.(7-1-25)

a.Completion of Form. The professional land surveyor performing the work shall complete the form in compliance with the requirements set forth in these rules. Additional information, for example latitude and longitude, with datum used, may be included.(7-1-25)

b.Contents on the Form.(7-1-25)

i.Record of Original Corner and Subsequent History. Information provided in this section includes the name of the original surveyor and the date or dates on which the original survey was performed, and a description of the o riginal monument set. The information also includes the history of subsequent remonumentation, including the name(s) of the surveyor(s), the agency or company they represented, the date(s) of the survey(s) and a description of all monuments found or set, including all monuments and accessories that are not shown on previously recorded corner records. Information provided in this section also includes the instrument numbers of all previously recorded corner records, or the filing information if the corner record was not recorded, pertaining to the corner in question.

ii.Description of Corner Evidence Found. Information provided in this section includes a description of any evidence found relating to the original corner. If no evidence of the original corner is found, evidence of a subsequent remonumentation shall be indicated on the form.(7-1-25)

iii.Description and Sketch of Monument and Accessories Found or Established to Perpetuate the Location of this Corner. Information provided in this section includes a description and a sketch of the monument and accessories found or placed in the current survey as well as the date the work was performed and the true or assumed magnetic declination at the time of the survey if magnetic bearings are used. If magnetic bearings are not used, the professional land surveyor shall indicate the basis of bearing to accessories.(7-1-25)

iv.Surveyor's Certificate. Include a print of the surveyor’s name, the license number issued by the Board, and the name of the employer for whom the surveyor is working.(7-1-25)

v.Seal, Signature, Date. Include professional land surveyor’s seal, which is signed and dated by the surveyor.(7-1-25)

vi.Marks on Monument Found or Set. Include a sketch or legible image of the marks found or placed on the monument, if applicable.(7-1-25)

vii.Diagram. Include clear marks on the section diagram indicating the location of the monument found or being established or reestablished in the survey.(7-1-25) viii.Location. State the county, section, township, range and the monument location being established or reestablished or found in the survey.(7-1-25)

07.State Plane Coordinates. The State Plane Coordinate System is defined by NOAA and NGS and is available on the Division’s website.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.32.01.201 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.32.01.300 Discipline/Improper Conduct

01.Fraudulent or Dishonest Enterprises.

A licensee or certificate holder may not knowingly associate with or permit the use of the licensee’s name or the firm name in a business venture by any person or firm that it is known to be, or there is reason to believe, is engaging in business or professional practices of a fraudulent or dishonest nature.(7-1-25)

02.Confidentiality. Licensees or certificate holders may not reveal confidential facts, data or information obtained in a professional capacity without prior written consent of the client or employer except as authorized or required by law.(7-1-25)

03.Actions by Other Jurisdictions. The surrender, revocation, suspension or denial of a license to practice Professional Engineering or Professional Land Surveying, as an individual or through a business entity, in another jurisdiction, for reasons or causes which the Board finds would constitute a violation of the Idaho laws regulating the practice of Engineering and Land Surveying, or any code or rules promulgated by the Board, is sufficient cause after a hearing for disciplinary action as provided in Title 54 Chapter 12, Idaho Code.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.32.01.301 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.32.01.400 Fees

01.Applications and Renewals. All fees are non-refundable. Annual fees may be aggregated for biennial licensure. All fees are set by the Board in the following categories:

Application TypeFee (Not to Exceed)

Initial Licensure$30 Licensure by Comity$50 Business Entity Authorization Cert.$80 Faculty Restricted License$40 Intern CertificateNo Fee (7-1-26)

a.Licensure as a professional engineer or professional land surveyor by examination.(3-28-23)

b.Reinstatement of a retired or expired license.(3-28-23)

c.Certification for a business entity applying for a certificate of authorization to practice or offer to practice engineering or land surveying.(3-28-23)

d.Renewals for professional engineers, professional land surveyors, engineer interns, land surveyor interns, and business entities.(3-28-23)

e.Licensure for professional engineers or professional land surveyors by comity.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.32.01.401 (Reserved)

Renewal TypeFee (in US Dollars)

Engineers or Land Surveyors License$60 Business Entity Authorization Cert.$50 Intern CertificateNo Fee Retired LicenseNo Fee Late Renewal TypeFee (in US Dollars)

Engineers or Land Surveyors$30 per Month (Maximum of $440 in late fees)

Business Entity Authorized Cert.$25 per Month (Maximum of $450 in late fees)

InternNo Fee Retired LicenseNo Fee

24.34.01 Rules of the Idaho Board of Nursing

IDAPA 24.34.01.000 Legal Authority

This chapter is adopted in accordance with Section 54-1404(13), Idaho Code.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.34.01.001 Scope

These rules govern the standards of nursing practice, licensure, educational programs and discipline in Idaho.

IDAPA 24.34.01.002 Definitions

01.Accreditation.

The official authorization or status granted by a recognized accrediting entity or agency other than a state board of nursing.(3-28-23)

02.Advanced Practice Registered Nurse. Advanced practice registered nurses, when functioning within the recognized scope of practice, assume primary responsibility for the care of their patients in diverse settings. This practice incorporates the use of professional judgment in the assessment and management of wellness and conditions appropriate to the advanced practice registered nurse’s role, population focus and area of specialization.(3-28-23)

03.Approval. The process by which the Board evaluates and grants official recognition to education programs that meet standards established by the Board.(3-28-23)

04.Assistance With Medication. The process whereby a non-licensed care provider is delegated tasks by a licensed nurse to aid a patient who cannot independently self-administer medications.(3-28-23)

05.Certification. Means recognition of the applicant’s advanced knowledge, skills and abilities in a defined area of nursing practice by a national organization recognized by the Board. The certification process measures the theoretical and clinical content denoted in the advanced scope of practice, and is developed in accordance with generally accepted standards of validation and reliability.(3-28-23)

06.Certified Nurse-Midwife. Means a licensed registered nurse who has graduated from a nationally accredited graduate or post-graduate nurse-midwifery program, and has current certification as a nurse-midwife from a national organization recognized by the Board. In addition to the core standards, the advanced practice registered nurse in the role of certified nurse midwife provides the full range of primary health care services to women throughout the lifespan, including gynecologic care, family planning services, preconception care, prenatal and postpartum care, childbirth, care of the newborn and reproductive health care treatment of the male partners of female patients.(3-28-23)

07.Certified Nurse Practitioner. Means a licensed registered nurse who has graduated from a nationally accredited graduate or post-graduate nurse practitioner program and has current certification as a nurse practitioner from a national organization recognized by the Board. In addition to core standards, the advanced practice registered nurse in the role of certified nurse practitioner provides initial and ongoing comprehensive primary care services to patients including, but not limited to, diagnosis and management of acute and chronic disease, and health promotion, disease prevention, health education counseling, and identification and management of the effects of illness on patients and their families.(3-28-23)

08.Certified Registered Nurse Anesthetist. Means a licensed registered nurse who has graduated from a nationally accredited graduate or post-graduate nurse anesthesia program and has current certification as a nurse anesthetist from a national organization recognized by the Board. In addition to core standards, the advanced prac tice registered nurse in the role of certified registered nurse anesthetist provides the full spectrum of anesthesia care and anesthesia-related care and services to individuals across the lifespan whose health status may range across the wellness-illness continuum to include healthy persons; persons with immediate, severe or life-threatening illness or injury; and persons with sustained or chronic health conditions.(3-28-23)

09.Clinical Nurse Specialist. Means a licensed registered nurse who has graduated from a nationally accredited graduate or post-graduate clinical nurse specialist program and has current certification as a clinical nurse specialist from a national organization recognized by the Board. In addition to core standards, the advanced practice registered nurse in the role of clinical nurse specialist provides services to patients, care providers and health care delivery systems including, but not limited to, direct care, expert consultation, care coordination, monitoring for quality indicators and facilitating communication between patients, their families, members of the health care team and components of the health care delivery system.(3-28-23)

10.Charge Nurse. A licensed nurse who bears primary responsibility for assessing, planning, prioritizing and evaluating care for the patients on a unit, as well as the overall supervision of the licensed and unlicensed staff delivering the nursing care.(3-28-23)

11.Curriculum. The systematic arrangement of learning experiences including didactic courses, practical experiences, and other activities needed to meet the requirements of the nursing program and of the certificate or degree conferred by the parent institution.(3-28-23)

12.Diagnosis. Means identification of actual or potential health problems and the need for intervention based on analysis of data collected. Diagnosis depends upon the synthesis of information obtained through interview, physical exam, diagnostic tests or other investigations.(3-28-23)

13.Disability. Any physical, mental, or emotional condition that interferes with the ability to safely and competently practice.(3-28-23)

14.Intervention. Means measures to promote health, protect against disease, treat illness in its earliest stages, manage acute and chronic illness, and treat disability. Interventions may include, but are not limited to ordering diagnostic studies, performing direct nursing care, prescribing pharmacologic or non-pharmacologic or other therapies and consultation with or referral to other health care providers.(3-28-23)

15.Licensed Practical Nurse (LPN). In addition to the definition set forth in Section 54-1402, Idaho Code, licensed practical nurses function in dependent roles. The stability of the patient’s environment, the patient’s clinical state, and the predictability of the outcome determine the degree of direction and supervision that must be provided to the licensed practical nurse.(3-28-23)

16.Licensed Registered Nurse (RN). In addition to the definition set forth in Section 54-1402, Idaho Code, licensed registered nurses are expected to exercise competency in judgment, decision making, implementation of nursing interventions, delegation of functions or responsibilities, and administration of medications and treatments prescribed by legally authorized persons.(3-28-23)

17.Nursing Assessment. The systematic collection of data related to the patient’s health needs.

18.Nursing Intervention. An action deliberately selected and performed to support the plan of care.

19.Nursing Jurisdiction. Unless the context clearly denotes a different meaning, when used in these rules, the term nursing jurisdiction means any or all of the fifty (50) states, U.S. territories or commonwealths.

20.Organized Program of Study. A written plan of instruction to include course objectives and content, teaching strategies, provisions for supervised clinical practice, evaluation methods, length and hours of course, and faculty qualifications.(3-28-23)

21.Peer Review Process. The systematic process by which a qualified peer assesses, monitors, and makes judgments about the quality of care provided to patients measured against established practice standards. Peer review measures on-going practice competency of the advance practice registered nurse (APRN) and is performed by a licensed APRN, physician, physician assistant, or other professional certified by a recognized credentialing organization. Peer review focuses on a mutual desire for quality of care and professional growth incorporating attitudes of mutual trust and motivation.(3-28-23)

22.Plan of Care. The goal-oriented strategy developed to assist individuals or groups to achieve optimal health potential.(3-28-23)

23.Population Focus. Means the section of the population which the APRN has targeted to practice within. The categories of population foci are family/individual across the lifespan, adult-gerontology, women’s health/gender-related, neonatal, pediatrics, and psychiatric-mental health.(3-28-23)

24.Practice Standards. General guidelines that identify roles and responsibilities for a particular category of licensure and used in conjunction with the decision-making model, define a nurse’s relationship with other care providers.(3-28-23)

25.Prescriptive and Dispensing Authorization. Means the legal permission to prescribe, deliver, distribute and dispense pharmacologic and non-pharmacologic agents to a patient in compliance with Board rules and applicable federal and state laws. Pharmacologic agents include legend and Schedule II through V controlled substances.(3-28-23)

26.Restricted License. A nursing license subject to specific restrictions, terms, and conditions.

27.Scope of Practice. The extent of treatment, activity, influence, or range of actions permitted or authorized for licensed nurses based on the nurse’s education, preparation, and experience.(3-28-23)

28.Specialization. Means a more focused area of preparation and practice than that of the APRN role/ population foci that is built on established criteria for recognition as a nursing specialty to include, but not limited to, specific patient populations (e.g., elder care, care of post-menopausal women), and specific health care needs (e.g., palliative care, pain management, nephrology).(3-28-23)

29.Specialty Nursing Organization. A licensed registered nurse may carry out functions beyond the basic educational preparation within the parameters of a nursing specialty that meets criteria approved by the American Board of Nursing Specialties (ABNS) or the National Commission for Certifying Agencies (NCCA) of the National Organization of Competency Assurance (NOCA) when the nurse has completed additional education through an organized program of study which includes clinical experience and conforms to recognized nursing specialty practice parameters.(3-28-23)

30.Supervision. Designating or prescribing a course of action, or giving procedural guidance, direction, and periodic evaluation.(3-28-23)

31.Unlicensed Assistive Personnel (UAP). This term is used to designate unlicensed personnel employed to perform nursing care services under the direction and supervision of licensed nurses. The term also includes licensed or credentialed health care workers whose job responsibilities extend to health care services beyond their usual and customary roles and which activities are provided under the direction and supervision of licensed nurses. UAPs are prohibited from performing any licensed nurse functions that are specifically defined in Section 54- 1402, Idaho Code. UAPs may not be delegated procedures involving acts that require nursing assessment or diagnosis, establishment of a plan of care or teaching, the exercise of nursing judgment, or procedures requiring specialized nursing knowledge, skills or techniques.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.34.01.003 Use of Titles, Abbreviations, and Designations for the Practice of

NURSING.

Only those persons who hold a license or privilege to practice nursing in this state shall have the right to use the following title abbreviations:(3-28-23)

01.Title: “Registered Nurse” and the abbreviation “RN”.(3-28-23)

02.Title: “Licensed Practical Nurse” and the abbreviation “LPN”.(3-28-23)

03.Abbreviations. Only those persons who hold a license or privilege to practice advanced practice registered nursing in this state shall have the right to use the title “advanced practice registered nurse” and the roles of “certified registered nurse anesthetist,” “certified nurse-midwife,” “clinical nurse specialist” and “certified nurse practitioner,” and the abbreviations “APRN,” “CRNA,” “CNM,” “CNS” and “CNP,” respectively.(3-28-23)

04.More Abbreviations. The abbreviation format for the Advanced Practice Registered Nurse will be “APRN”, plus the role title abbreviation of “CRNA”, “CNM”, “CNS”, or “CNP” respectively.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.34.01.004 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.34.01.100 Licensure

01.Persons Exempted by the Board. Licensure to practice nursing is not necessary, nor is the practice of nursing prohibited for persons exempted by the Board including:(3-28-23)

a.Technicians and technologists may perform limited nursing functions within their training, education and experience provided they have enrolled in or completed a formal training program or are registered or certified by a national organization acceptable to the Board.(3-28-23)

b.A nurse apprentice is a nursing student who is employed for remuneration in a non-licensed capacity outside the student role by a Board approved health care agency. Applicants for a nurse apprentice must be enrolled in good standing in an accredited nursing education program that is substantially similar to Idaho’s programs for licensed/registered nursing and satisfactorily complete a basic nursing fundamentals course.(3-28-23)

c.Applicants for nurse apprentice must:(3-28-23)

i.Be enrolled in an accredited/approved nursing education program that is substantially equivalent to Idaho’s approved programs for practical/registered nursing.(3-28-23)

ii.Be in good academic standing at the time of application and notify the Board of any change in academic standing.(3-28-23)

iii.Satisfactorily complete a basic nursing fundamentals course.(3-28-23)

iv.Complete an application on a board approved form. (3-28-23)

v.An individual whose application is approved will be issued a letter identifying the individual as a nurse apprentice for a designated time period to extend not more than three (3) months after successful completion of the nursing education program.(3-28-23)

vi.A nurse apprentice may, under licensed registered nurse supervision, perform all functions approved by the Board for unlicensed assistive personnel as set forth in Subsection 002.31 of these rules.(3-28-23)

02.Licensure: General Requirements.(3-28-23)

a.Board Forms. Initial applications, renewal applications and other forms used for licensure or other purposes must be in such form as designated by the Board.(3-28-23)

b.Date License Lapsed. Licenses not renewed prior to September 1 of the appropriate year are lapsed and therefore invalid. (3-28-23)

c.LPN, RN, and APRN License Renewal. The original completed renewal application and renewal fee as prescribed in Section 400 of these rules, are submitted to the Board and dated not later than August 31 of the appropriate renewal year. All licenses are renewed as prescribed in Section 54-1411, Idaho Code.(3-28-23)

d.Reapplication. Review of a denied application may be requested by submitting a written statement and documentation that includes evidence, satisfactory to the Board, of rehabilitation, or elimination or cure of the conditions for denial. (3-28-23)

e.Only one license- exception. A licensee may hold only one (1) active renewable license to practice nursing at any time except that licensed advanced practice registered nurses must also be licensed to practice as licensed registered nurses. (3-28-23)

03.Temporary Licensure .(3-28-23)

a.Issued at Discretion of Board. Temporary licenses are issued for a period not to exceed ninety (90) days, and may be extended, at the discretion of the Board.(3-28-23)

b.Temporary Licensure by Interstate Endorsement. A temporary license may be issued to an applicant for interstate endorsement on proof of current licensure in good standing in another nursing jurisdiction, and in compliance with the requirements of Section 100.07 of these rules.(3-28-23)

c.Temporary Licensure by Examination. A temporary license to practice nursing until notification of examination results and completion of criminal background check may be issued to an applicant for Idaho licensure beginning thirty (30) days prior to graduation from a nursing education program recognized by this Board or the professional licensing board for another nursing jurisdiction, and compliance with Section 100.05 of these rules.

d.The practice of nursing by new graduates holding temporary licensure is limited as follows:

i.Direct supervision is provided by a licensed registered nurse that is physically present and immediately accessible to designate or prescribe a course of action or to give procedural guidance, direction, and periodic evaluation.(3-28-23)

ii.Precluded from acting as charge nurse.(3-28-23)

e.Unsuccessful Examination Candidates. An applicant who fails to pass the licensing examination is not eligible for further temporary licensure. In the event that such applicant subsequently passes the licensing examination after twelve (12) months or more have elapsed following completion of the educational program, a temporary license with conditions may be issued until verification of clinical competence is received.(3-28-23)

f.Applicants Not in Active Practice. A temporary license with specific terms and conditions may be issued to a person who has not actively engaged in the practice of nursing in any nursing jurisdiction for more than three (3) years immediately prior to the application for licensure or to an applicant whose completed application indicates the need for confirmation of the applicant’s ability to practice safe nursing.(3-28-23)

g.Applicants from Other Countries. Upon final evaluation of the completed application, the Board may, at its discretion, issue a temporary license to a graduate from a nursing education program outside of a nursing jurisdiction, pending notification of results of the licensing examination.(3-28-23)

h.Temporary Licensure- Advanced Practice Registered Nurse. A temporary license to engage in advanced practice registered nursing may be issued to the following: (3-28-23)

i. An otherwise qualified applicant who is eligible to take the first available certification examination following completion of an approved advanced practice registered nurse education program. Verification of registration to write a Board-recognized national certification examination must be received from the national certifying organization. ii.

Temporary licensure to practice shall be deemed to expire upon failure of the certification examination. An applicant who fails the national certification exam shall not engage in advanced practice registered nursing until such time as all requirements are met.(3-28-23)

iii.An applicant who is granted a temporary license to practice as an advanced practice registered nurse must submit notarized results of the certification examination within ten (10) days of receipt. Failure to submit required documentation shall result in the immediate expiration of the temporary license.(3-28-23)

iv.The temporary license of an applicant who does not write the examination on the date scheduled shall immediately expire and the applicant shall not engage in advanced practice registered nursing until such time as all requirements are met.(3-28-23)

i.Applicants Whose Certification Has Lapsed. A licensed registered nurse applying for re-entry into advanced registered nursing practice, who is required by the national certifying organization to meet certain specified practice requirements under supervision. The length of and conditions for temporary licensure shall be determined by the Board.(3-28-23)

j.Applicants Holding a Temporary Registered Nursing License. An advanced practice registered nurse currently authorized to practice advanced practice registered nursing in another nursing jurisdiction upon issuance of a temporary license to practice as a registered nurse, and upon evidence of current certification as an advanced practice registered nurse from a Board-recognized national certifying organization.(3-28-23)

k.Applicants Without Required Practice Hours. An advanced practice registered nurse who has not practiced the minimum required period of time during the renewal period may be issued a temporary license in order to acquire the required number of hours and demonstrate ability to safely practice.(3-28-23)

04.Qualifications for Licensure by Examination.(3-28-23)

a.In-State. Individuals who have successfully completed all requirements for graduation and have been conferred a degree from an Idaho nursing education program approved by the Board, will be eligible to make application to the Board to take the licensing examination.(3-28-23)

b.Out-of-State. Individuals who hold a certificate of completion from a nursing education program having board of nursing approval in another nursing jurisdiction will be eligible to make application to the Board to take the licensing examination, providing they meet substantially the same basic educational requirements as graduates of Idaho nursing education programs at the time of application.(3-28-23)

c.Practical Nurse Equivalency Requirement. An applicant for practical nurse licensure by examination who has not completed an approved practical nurse program, must provide satisfactory evidence (such as official transcripts) of successful completion of nursing and related courses at an approved school preparing persons for licensure as registered nurses to include a course in personal and vocational relationships of the practical nurse. Related courses are to be equivalent to those same courses included in a practical nursing program approved by the Board.(3-28-23)

d.Time Limit for Examinations. Graduates who do not take the examination within twelve (12) months following completion of the nursing education program must follow specific remedial measures as prescribed by the Board.(3-28-23)

05.Examination and Re-Examination.(3-28-23)

a.Applicants for Registered or Practical Nurse Licensure. Applicants will successfully pass the National Council Licensure Examination (NCLEX) for registered nurse licensure or for practical nurse licensure, as applied for and approved. In lieu of the NCLEX, the Board may accept documentation that the applicant has taken and successfully passed the State Board Test Pool examination.(3-28-23)

06.Qualifications for Licensure by Endorsement.(3-28-23)

a.An applicant for Idaho licensure by interstate endorsement must:(3-28-23)

i.Graduation. Be a graduate of a state approved/accredited practical or registered nursing education program Applicants for practical nurse licensure may also qualify under the provisions of Section 100.08.a. of these rules.(3-28-23)

ii.Licensing Examination. Have taken the same licensing examination as that administered in Idaho and achieved scores established as passing for that examination by the Board.(3-28-23)

iii.Minimum Requirements. In lieu of the requirements in Section 100.08.a of this rule, have qualifications that are substantially equivalent to Idaho’s minimum requirements.(3-28-23)

iv.License from Another Nursing Jurisdiction. Hold a current, valid, and unrestricted license from another nursing jurisdiction.(3-28-23)

07.Licensure by Equivalency and Endorsement Licensure.(3-28-23)

a.Application by Equivalency. An applicant for practical nurse licensure by interstate endorsement based on equivalency must meet the following requirements:(3-28-23)

i.Have successfully taken the same licensing examination as that administered in Idaho; and

ii.Hold a license in another nursing jurisdiction based on successful completion of nursing and related courses at an approved school preparing persons for licensure as registered nurses to include a course in personal and vocational relationships of the practical nurse (or equivalent experience) and additional courses equivalent to those same courses included in a practical nursing program approved by the Board and provide evidence thereof. (3-28-23)

b.Applicants Licensed in Another Nursing Jurisdiction. Graduates of schools of nursing located outside the United States, its territories or commonwealths who are licensed in a nursing jurisdiction and who meet the requirements of Subsection 09 of these rules may be processed as applicants for licensure by endorsement from another state. (3-28-23)

8. Qualifications for Licensure of Graduates of Schools of Nursing Located Outside the United States, Its Territories, or Commonwealths. A graduate from a nursing education program outside of the United States, its territories or commonwealths must: (3-28-23)

a.Qualifications. Demonstrate nursing knowledge and; if the prelicensure education program is not taught in English or if English is not the individual’s native language, successfully passed an English proficiency examination that includes components of reading, writing, speaking and listening.(3-28-23)

b.Education Credentials. Have education qualifications that are substantially equivalent to Idaho’s minimum requirements at the time of application.(3-28-23)

c.License. Hold an active, unencumbered license or other indication of authorization to practice in good standing, issued by a government entity or agency from a country outside the United States, its territories or commonwealths.(3-28-23)

d.Examination/Re-Examination. Take and achieve a passing score on the licensing examination required in Subsection 100.06 of these rules.(3-28-23)

09.Qualifications for Advanced Practice Registered Nurse. To qualify as an advanced practice registered nurse, an applicant shall provide evidence of: (3-28-23)

a.Current Licensure. Current licensure to practice as a registered nurse in Idaho;(3-28-23)

b.Completion of Advanced Practice Registered Nurse Program. Successful completion of a graduate or post-graduate advanced practice registered nurse program which is accredited by a national organization recognized by the Board; and (3-28-23)

c.National Certification. Current national certification by an organization recognized by the Board for the specified APRN role.(3-28-23) 10.

Recognition of National Certifying Organizations for Advanced Practice Registered Nursing.

The Board recognizes advanced practice registered nurse certification organizations that meet criteria as defined by the National Council of State Boards of Nursing. (3-28-23)

11.Renewal of Advanced Practice Registered Nurse License. The advanced practice registered nurse license may be renewed every two (2) years as specified in Section 54-1411, Idaho Code, provided that the advanced practice registered nurse: (3-28-23)

a.Current Registered Nurse License. Maintains a current registered nurse license or privilege to practice in Idaho.(3-28-23)

b.Evidence of Certification. Submits evidence of current APRN certification by a national organization recognized by the Board.(3-28-23)

c.Peer Review Process. Provides evidence, satisfactory to the Board, of participation in a peer review process acceptable to the Board.(3-28-23)

d.Exemption from Requirements. Nurse Practitioners not certified by a national organization recognized by the Board and approved prior to July 1, 1998, shall be exempt from the requirement set forth in Subsection 100.12.b of these rules.(3-28-23)

12.Persons Exempted from Advanced Practice Registered Nursing License Requirements.

a.Students. Nothing in these rules prohibits a registered nurse who holds a current license, or privilege, to practice in Idaho and who is enrolled as a matriculated student in a nationally accredited educational program for advanced practice registered nursing from practicing as an advanced practice registered nurse when such practice is an integral part of the advanced practice registered nurse curriculum.(3-28-23)

b.Certified Nurse Practitioners Licensed Prior to July 1, 1998. A certified nurse practitioner authorized to practice prior to July 1, 1998 may satisfy the requirement of Subsection 100.12.b of these rules by documenting competency within their specialty area of practice based upon education, experience and national certification in that specialty or education, experience and approval by the Board.(3-28-23)

c.Advanced Practice Registered Nurses Educated Prior to January 1, 2016.(3-28-23)

i.An applicant for APRN licensure who completed a nationally accredited undergraduate or certificate APRN program prior to January 1, 2016, does not need to meet the APRN graduate or post-graduate educational requirements for initial licensure contained within Subsection 100.10 of these rules.(3-28-23)

ii.A person applying for APRN licensure in Idaho who: holds an existing APRN license issued by any nursing jurisdiction, completed their formal APRN education prior to January 1, 2016, and who meets all of the requirements for initial licensure contained within Subsection 100.10 of these rules except for the APRN graduate or post-graduate educational requirement, may be issued an APRN license by endorsement if at the time the person received their APRN license in the other jurisdiction they would have been eligible for licensure as an APRN in Idaho.(3-28-23)

13.Reinstatement. A person whose license has lapsed for failure to pay the renewal fee by the specified date may apply for reinstatement by submitting the items set out in Section 54-1411(3), Idaho Code and a current fingerprint-based cri minal history check as set forth in Section 54-1401(3), Idaho Code, and paying the fee under Rule 400.02. (3-28-23)

a. Application Following Discipline. A person whose license has been subject to disciplinary action by the Board is to include documentation of compliance with any terms and restrictions set forth in any order as a condition of reinstatement.(3-28-23)

b.Appearance Before Board. Applicants for reinstatement may be called to appear before the Board.

c.Application for Reinstatement After Revocation. Unless otherwise provided in the order of revocation, applicants for reinstatement of revoked licenses are precluded from applying for reinstatement for a period of two (2) years after entry of the order.(3-28-23)

d.Following Disciplinary Action.(3-28-23)

i.After evaluation of an application for licensure reinstatement, the Board may issue a restricted license to a nurse whose license has been revoked.(3-28-23)

ii.The Board will specify the conditions of issuance of the restricted license in writing. The conditions may be stated on the license.(3-28-23)

14.Reinstatement of Advanced Practice Registered Nurse License. An advanced practice registered nurse license may be reinstated as specified in Section 54-1411, Idaho Code, provided that the applicant:

a.Current Registered Nurse License. Maintains a current registered nurse license or privilege to practice in Idaho.(3-28-23)

b.Evidence of Certification. Submits evidence of current APRN certification by a national organization recognized by the Board.(3-28-23)

c.Fee. Pays the fee specified in Section 400 of these rules.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.34.01.101 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.34.01.150 Nursing Education for Registered and Practical Nurses

01.Nursing Educational Programs.

a.Accreditation. To qualify as an approved education program for the purpose of qualifying graduates for licensure, the nursing education program must be currently accredited by the Accreditation Commission for Education in Nursing, or the Commission on Collegiate Nursing Education, or the Commission for Nursing Education Accreditation.(3-28-23)

b.Limited-Time Approval for Nursing Education Programs.(3-28-23)

i.Prior to obtaining the accreditation described in Rule 150.01, a nursing education program may submit a board-approved application to qualify for a limited-time program approval demonstrating initial implementation of accreditation standards and continued compliance towards obtaining the accreditation. (3-28-23)

ii.A nursing education program with limited-time approval may only qualify graduates for licensure until the program becomes accredited or until five (5) years from the date of the initial application for accreditation, whichever is less.(3-28-23)

iii.A nursing education program with limited-time approval must provide an annual report. (3-28-23)

iv.A nursing education program with limited-time approval must have each student prior to enrollment execute a disclosure which, at a minimum, states the following: “The nursing education program in which you are enrolling has not yet been accredited. The program is being reviewed by the [insert name of accrediting body]. This program is allowed to enroll new students because it meets the requirements of Rule 150.01.b. Any education you complete before a final determination by the [insert name of accrediting body] will satisfy associated state requirements for licensure. If the [insert name of accrediting body] ultimately determines that the program does not qualify for accreditation, you will not be made eligible for the NCLEX by the State of Idaho.”(3-28-23)

v.A nursing education program with limited-time approval may not enroll any new students into the program beyond five (5) years from the date of the initial application for accreditation unless the program has a final site visit scheduled with a nursing program accreditor.(3-28-23)

02.Board Notification.(3-28-23)

a.If an accredited program or limited-time program seeking accreditation receives notice or determines that its accreditation status is in jeopardy, the institution offering the program must immediately notify the Board of its accreditation status; immediately and verifiably notify each enrolled student in writing of the program's accreditation status, including: the estimated date when the accrediting body will make its final determination as to the program's accreditation; the potential impact of a program's accreditation status on the graduate's ability to secure licensure and employment or transfer academic credits to another institution in the future; and attempt negotiations with other academic institutions to establish a transfer articulation agreement.(3-28-23)

b.If a program with limited-time approval fails to achieve accreditation within the timeframe specified in Rule 150.01.b, or if a program loses its accreditation, the institution offering the program shall: submit a written report of official notice of losing accreditation or failing to achieve accreditation to the Board within ten days of receiving formal notification from the accrediting body; notify each matriculated and pre-enrollment nursing student about the program's accreditation status; inform each nursing student who will graduate from a nonaccredited program that they will not be eligible for initial licensure through the state; and provide the Board with a written plan to close the program and cease operations to the Board within ten days of receiving formal notice of losing accreditation from the program's accrediting body.(3-28-23)

03.Continuance of Full Approval of Educational Program.(3-28-23)

a.The Board may rescind full approval that has been granted to a nursing education program that consistently fails to meet the Board’s standards, as evidenced in the annual report, failure to include a Board representative in site visits, or unacceptable performance on a licensing examination for each program with a pass rate of less than eighty percent (80%) for its first-time writers in any given year for two consecutive calendar years.

IDAPA 24.34.01.151 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.34.01.200 Practice Standards

01.Decision-Making Model.

The decision-making model is the process by which a licensed nurse evaluates whether a particular act is within the legal scope of that nurse’s practice and determines whether to delegate the performance of a particular nursing task in a given setting. This model applies to all licensure categories permitting active practice, regardless of practice setting. (3-28-23)

a.Determining Scope of Practice. To evaluate whether a specific act is within the legal scope of nursing practice, a licensed nurse shall determine whether:(3-28-23)

i.The act is expressly prohibited by the Nursing Practice Act, or the act is limited to the scope of practice of advanced practice registered nurses or to licensed registered nurses, or the act is prohibited by other laws;

ii.The act was taught as a part of the nurse’s educational institution’s required curriculum and the nurse possesses current clinical skills;(3-28-23)

iii.The act is consistent with standards of practice published by a national specialty nursing organization or supported by recognized nursing literature or reputable published research and the nurse can document successful completion of additional education through an organized program of study including supervised clinical practice or equivalent demonstrated competency;(3-28-23)

iv.Performance of the act is within the accepted standard of care that would be provided in a similar situation by a reasonable and prudent nurse with similar education and experience and the nurse is prepared to accept the consequences of the act.(3-28-23)

b.Deciding to Delegate. When delegating nursing care, the licensed nurse retains accountability for the delegated acts and the consequences of delegation. Before delegating any task the nurse shall:(3-28-23)

i.Determine that the acts to be delegated are not expressly prohibited by the Nursing Practice Act or Board rules and that the activities are consistent with job descriptions or policies of the practice setting;(3-28-23)

ii.Assess the patient’s status and health care needs prior to delegation, taking into consideration the complexity of assessments, monitoring required and the degree of physiological or psychological instability;

iii.Exercise professional judgment to determine the safety of the delegated activities, to whom the acts may be delegated, and the potential for harm;(3-28-23)

iv.Consider the nature of the act, the complexity of the care needed, the degree of critical thinking required and the predictability of the outcome of the act to be performed;(3-28-23)

v.Consider the impact of timeliness of care, continuity of care, and the level of interaction required with the patient and family;(3-28-23)

vi.Consider the type of technology employed in providing care and the knowledge and skills required to effectively use the technology, including relevant infection control and safety issues;(3-28-23)

vii.Determine that the person to whom the act is being delegated has documented education or training to perform the activity and is currently competent to perform the act; and(3-28-23) viii.Provide appropriate instruction for performance of the act.(3-28-23)

c.Delegating to UAPs. (3-28-23)

i. The nursing care tasks that may be delegated to UAPs shall be stated in writing in the practice setting. Decisions concerning delegation will be determined in accordance with the provisions of Section 200 of these rules. UAPs may complement the licensed nurse in the performance of nursing functions, but cannot substitute for the licensed nurse; UAPs cannot redelegate a delegated act.(3-28-23)

ii.Where permitted by law, after completion of a Board-approved training program, UAPs in care settings may assist patients who cannot independently self-administer medications, provided that a plan of care has been developed by a licensed registered nurse, and the act has been delegated by a licensed nurse. Assistance with medication may include: breaking a scored tablet, crushing a tablet, instilling eye, ear or nose drops, giving medication through a pre-mixed nebulizer inhaler or gastric (non-nasogastric) tube, assisting with oral or topical medications and insertion of suppositories.(3-28-23)

d.Monitoring Delegation. Subsequent to delegation, the licensed nurse shall:(3-28-23)

i.Evaluate the patient’s response and the outcome of the delegated act, and take such further action as necessary; and(3-28-23)

ii.Determine the degree of supervision required and evaluate whether the activity is completed in a manner that meets acceptable outcomes. The degree of supervision shall be based upon the health status and stability of the patient, the complexity of the care and the knowledge and competence of the individual to whom the activity is delegated.(3-28-23)

02.Standards of Conduct.(3-28-23)

a.License.(3-28-23)

i.Reporting Grossly Negligent or Reckless Practice. The nurse shall report to the Board any licensed nurse who is grossly negligent or reckless in performing nursing functions or who otherwise violates the Nursing Practice Act or the Board rules.(3-28-23) ii.

Unlawful Use of License. The nurse shall not permit their license to be used by another person for any purpose or permit unlicensed persons under their jurisdiction or supervision to indicate in any way that they are licensed to perform functions restricted to licensed persons.(3-28-23)

b.Practice. The nurse shall have knowledge of the statutes and rules governing nursing and function within the defined legal scope of nursing practice, not assume any duty or responsibility within the practice of nursing without adequate training:(3-28-23)

i.Delegate activities only to persons who are competent and qualified to undertake and perform the delegated activities and will not delegate to non-licensed persons functions that are to be performed only by licensed nurses. The nurse delegating functions is to supervise the persons to whom the functions have been assigned or delegated.(3-28-23)

ii.Act to safeguard the patient from the incompetent practice, verbal or physical abusive acts or illegal practice of any person.(3-28-23)

iii.Not obtain, possess, furnish or administer prescription drugs to any person, including self, except as directed by a person authorized by law.(3-28-23)

iv.Not abandon patients in need of nursing care in a negligent manner. The nurse will leave a nursing assignment only after properly reporting and notifying appropriate personnel and will transfer responsibilities to appropriate personnel or care giver when continued care is necessitated by the patient’s condition.(3-28-23)

v.Respect the patient’s privacy.(3-28-23)

vi.Observe the condition and signs and symptoms of a patient, record the information, and report to appropriate persons any significant changes.(3-28-23)

vii.Function as a member of the health team and shall collaborate with other health team members as necessary to meet the patient’s health needs.(3-28-23) viii.Adhere to precautions and carry out principles of asepsis and infection control and not place the patient, the patient’s family or the nurse’s coworkers at risk for the transmission of infectious diseases.(3-28-23)

03.Professional Responsibility.(3-28-23)

a.Disclosing Contents of Licensing Examination. The nurse is not to disclose contents of any licensing examination, or solicit, accept, or compile information regarding the contents of any examination before, during, or after its administration.(3-28-23)

b.Considerations in Providing Care. In providing nursing care, the nurse will respect and consider the individual’s human dignity, health problems, personal attributes, national origin, and handicaps and not discriminate on the basis of age, sex, race, religion, economic or social status or sexual preferences.(3-28-23)

c.Responsibility and Accountability Assumed. The nurse is responsible and accountable for their nursing judgments, actions and competence.(3-28-23)

d.Witnessing Wastage of Controlled Substances Medication. Controlled substances may not be wasted without witnesses. The nurse cannot sign any record as a witness attesting to the wastage of controlled substance medications unless the wastage was personally witnessed. The nurse cannot solicit the signatures on any record of a person as a witness to the wastage of a controlled subs tance when that person did not witness the wastage.

The nurse will solicit signatures of individuals who witnessed the wastage in a timely manner.(3-28-23)

e.Record-keeping. The nurse shall make or keep accurate, intelligible entries into records mandated by law or customary practice of nursing, and will not knowingly make incorrect or unintelligible entries into patients’ records or employer or employee records.(3-28-23)

f.Diverting or Soliciting. The nurse will respect the property of the patient and employer and not take or divert equipment, materials, property, or drugs without prior consent or authorization, nor solicit or borrow money, materials or property from patients.(3-28-23)

g.Professionalism. The nurse must not abuse the patient’s trust, will respect the dignity of the profession and maintain appropriate professional boundaries with respect to patients, the patients’ families, and the nurse’s coworkers. The nurse is not to engage in sexual misconduct or violent, threatening or abusive behavior towards patients, patients’ families or the nurse’s coworkers. The nurse will be aware of the potential imbalance of power in professional relationships with patients, based on their need for care, assistance, guidance, and support, and ensure that all aspects of that relationship focus exclusively upon the needs of the patient.(3-28-23)

h.Sexual Misconduct with a Patient. The nurse must not engage in sexual misconduct. For purposes of this rule, sexual misconduct is defined as set forth in Section 18-919(b)(1)-(4), Idaho Code.(3-28-23)

04.Standards of Practice for Advanced Practice Registered Nursing.(3-28-23)

a.Core Standards for All Roles of Advanced Practice Registered Nursing. The advanced practice registered nurse is a licensed independent practitioner who shall practice consistent with the definition of advanced practice registered nursing, recognized national standards and the standards set forth in these rules.(3-28-23)

b.The advanced practice registered nurse shall provide patient services for which the advanced practice registered nurse is educationally prepared and for which competence has been achieved and maintained.

c.The advanced practice registered nurse shall recognize their limits of knowledge and experience and consult and collaborate with and refer to other health care professionals as appropriate.(3-28-23)

d.The advanced practice registered nurse shall evaluate and apply current evidence-based research findings relevant to the advanced nursing practice role.(3-28-23)

e.The advanced practice registered nurse shall assume responsibility and accountability for health promotion and maintenance as well as the assessment, diagnosis and management of patient conditions to include the use of pharmacologic and non-pharmacologic interventions and the prescribing and dispensing of pharmacologic and non-pharmacologic agents.(3-28-23)

f.The advanced practice registered nurse shall use advanced practice knowledge and skills in teaching and guiding patients and other health care team members.(3-28-23)

g.The advanced practice registered nurse shall have knowledge of the statutes and rules governing advanced nursing practice, and practice within the established standards for the advanced nursing practice role and population focus.(3-28-23)

h.The advanced practice registered nurse shall practice consistent with Subsection 200.01 of these rules.(3-28-23) i.

Unless exempted under Subsection 100.13.b. of th ese rules, an Advanced Practice Registered Nurse must document competency within their specialty area of practice based upon the education, experience, and national certification in the role and population focus.(3-28-23)

05.Prescriptive and Dispensing Authorization for Advanced Practice Registered Nurses.

a.Prescriptions written by advanced practice registered nurses shall contain all the minimum information required by Idaho Board of Pharmacy statute and administrative rules and applicable federal law as well as the printed name and signature of the nurse prescriber, and the abbreviation for the applicable role of the advanced practice nurse (i.e. “CNP,” “CNM,” “CNS,” or CRNA”). If the prescription is for a controlled substance, it shall also include the DEA registration number and address of the prescriber.(3-28-23)

b.Prescribing and Dispensing Authorization. All advanced practice registered nurses may prescribe and dispense pharmacologic and non-pharmacologic agents pursuant to applicable state and federal laws. (3-28-23)

06.Valid Advanced Practice Registered Nurse/Patient Relationships.(3-28-23)

a.An advanced practice registered nurse shall not prescribe or dispense pharmacologic agents except in the course of their professional practice and when a bona fide advanced practice registered nurse/patient relationship has been established pursuant to Section 54-1733, Idaho Code. A valid relationship will exist when the advanced practice registered nurse has obtained sufficient knowledge of the patient’s medical condition through examination and has assumed responsibility for the health care of the patient.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.34.01.201 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.34.01.300 Discipline

01.Grounds. In addi tion to the grounds set forth in Section 54-1413, Idaho Code, a nursing license may be suspended, revoked, placed upon probation, or other disciplinary sanctions imposed by the Board on the following grounds: (3-28-23)

a.Conduct to Deceive, Defraud, or Endanger. Conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud, or endanger patients or the public. (3-28-23)

b.Habitual Use of Alcohol or Drugs. Use of drugs or alcohol to the extent that the nurse's judgment, skills, or abilities to provide safe and competent nursing care are impaired.(3-28-23)

c.Physical or Mental Unfitness. A court order or evaluation by a qualified professional which determines that a licensee is physically or mental incompetent or incapable of providing safe and competent nursing care.(3-28-23)

02.Grounds for Discipline of an Advanced Practice Registered Nurse License. In addition to the grounds set forth in Section 54-1413, Idaho Code, and Sections 200 and 300 of these rules, an advanced practice registered nursing license may be suspended, revoked, placed upon probation, or other disciplinary sanctions imposed by the Board on the following grounds: (3-28-23)

a.Prescribing or Dispensing Controlled Substances. Prescribing, dispensing, or selling any drug classified as a controlled substance to a family member or to oneself. For purposes of these rules, “family member” is defined as the licensee’s spouse, child (biological, adopted, or foster), parent, sibling, grandparent, grandchild, or the same relation by marriage.(3-28-23)

b.Violating Governing Law. Violating any state or federal law relating to controlled substances.

c.Outside Scope of Practice. Prescribing or dispensing outside the scope of the advanced practice registered nurse’s practice. (3-28-23)

03.Restricted Status. (3-28-23)

a.The Board or its executive officer may restrict the license of a licensee upon a determination by the Board that the licensee engaged in conduct constituting disciplinary grounds pursuant to Section 54-1413, Idaho Code. For the purposes of this rule, a determination by the Board is not required if the licensee has signed a written statement pursuant to Subsection 300.04.b. of these rules.(3-28-23)

b.The conditions of restricted licensure may include, but are not limited to:(3-28-23)

i.Submission of regular reports to the Board.(3-28-23)

ii.Complying with Board representatives.(3-28-23)

iii.Specific parameters of practice, excluding the performance of specific nursing functions. (3-28-23)

iv.The conditions of restricted practice may be removed by the Board following receipt of evidence confirming that the licensee can safely practice nursing.(3-28-23)

c.Compliance Required. Restricted licensure is conditioned upon an individual's compliance with terms and conditions, which may include:(3-28-23)

i.Satisfactory progress in any ordered continuing recovery program.(3-28-23)

ii.Continuing participation in, and compliance with, all recommendations and requirements of, the approved program, and obtaining of reports of progress submitted by the person directing the program at specified intervals and any time upon request.(3-28-23)

iii.Working only in approved practice settings.(3-28-23)

iv.Authorization by the licensee of the release of applicable records pertaining to assessment, diagnostic evaluation, treatment recommendations, treatment and progress, performance evaluations, counseling, random chemical screens and after care at periodic intervals as requested.(3-28-23)

v.Compliance with all laws pertaining to nursing practice, all nursing standards relating to any of the admitted misconduct or facts set out in the written statement signed by the licensee, or relating to the providing of safe, competent nursing service.(3-28-23)

vi.Compliance with other specific terms as may be directed by the executive officer.(3-28-23)

04.Disability Due to Substance Use Disorder or Mental Health Disorder.(3-28-23)

a.In lieu of discipline, the Board or its executive officer may refer a licensee who is chemically dependent or physically or psychologically impaired to a peer assistance entity.(3-28-23)

b.As a condition of entry into a peer assistance entity, the licensee may be required to sign a written statement admitting to all facts that constitute grounds for disciplinary action and/or demonstrate impairment of the safe practice of nursing and waive the right to a contested case hearing under the Idaho Administrative Procedures Act.(3-28-23)

05.Emergency Action.(3-28-23)

a.The Board may initiate an emergency action where there is reasonable cause to believe that continued practice by the licensee would create immediate danger to public health, safety, or welfare.(3-28-23)

b.The Board shall issue an order, including a brief, reasoned statement to justify both the decision that an immediate danger exists and the decision to take specific action. The order is effective when issued. (3-28-23)

c.After issuing an order, the Board will act as quickly as feasible to complete any proceedings that would be required if the matter did not involve immediate danger.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.34.01.301 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.34.01.400 Initial License, Renewal and Reinstatement Fees

01.Assessed Fees.

Fees will be assessed for issuance, renewal of licensure or for reinstatement of a lapsed, disciplined, limited, or emeritus license. Fees are due at the time of submission. Any person submitting the renewal application and fee dated later than August 31 is considered delinquent, and the license lapsed and therefore invalid:

(7-1-26)

02.Reinstatement Fee. Nurses requesting reinstatement of a lapsed, disciplined, or restricted license, or reinstatement of an emeritus license to active status, will be assessed the thirty-five dollar ($35) reinstatement fee provided for in Section 67-2614(9), Idaho Code, in addition to renewal fees.(7-1-26)

IDAPA 24.34.01.401 (Reserved)

Initial Licensure, Renewal & Reinstatement Fees Registered NursePractical Nurse Advanced Practice Nurse Medication Assistant - Certified Temporary License FeeNot more than $25Not more than $25Not more than $25 Initial Application FeeNot more than $90 License by Exam FeeNot more than $90Not more than $75Not more than $90 License by EndorsementNot more than $110Not more than $110 License RenewalNot more than $90Not more than $90Not more than $90Not more than $35 Expiration Date Aug 31-odd yearsAug 31-even yearsAug 31-odd yearsAug 31-even years

24.26.01 Rules of Midwifery

IDAPA 24.26.01.000 Legal Authority

These rules are promulgated pursuant to Section 54-5504, Idaho Code.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.26.01.001 Scope

These rules govern the licensure and regulation of the practice of midwifery in Idaho.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.26.01.002 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.26.01.100 Qualifications for Licensure

Applicants for licensure must submit a completed application, required application and licensing fees, and documentation, acceptable to the Board.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.26.01.101 Renewal of License

01.Complete Practice Data.

The information submitted by the licensed midwife must include complete practice data for the calendar year preceding the date of the renewal application. Such information includes:

a.The number of clients to whom the licensed midwife has provided care;(3-28-23)

b.The number of deliveries, including the number of cesareans or the number of vaginal births after cesarean (VBACs);(3-28-23)

c.The average, oldest, and youngest maternal ages;(3-28-23)

d.The number of primiparae;(3-28-23)

e.All APGAR scores below five (5) at five (5) minutes;(3-28-23)

f.The number of prenatal transfers and transfers during labor, delivery and immediately following birth, including transfers of mothers, transfers of babies, reasons for transfers, or transfers of all newborns being admitted to the neonatal intensive care unit (NICU) for more than twenty four (24) hours.(3-28-23)

g.Any perinatal deaths occurring up to six weeks post-delivery, broken out by: weight, gestational age, age of the baby, and stillbirths, if any.(3-28-23)

h.Any significant neonatal or perinatal problem, not listed above, during the six (6) weeks following birth.(3-28-23)

02.Current Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation Certification. A licensed midwife must certify on their renewal application that they possess a current certification in adult, infant, and child cardiopulmonary resuscitation and in neonatal resuscitation obtained through courses approved by the Board.(3-28-23)

03.Continuing Education Verification. The licensed midwife at renewal must certify by signed affidavit that the annual continuing education requirements set by the Board have been met. The Board may conduct continuing education audits.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.26.01.102 Continuing Education Requirement

01.Annual Continuing Education Requirement.

A licensed midwife must successfully complete a minimum of ten (10) continuing education hours per year either acceptable to North American Registry of Midwives (“NARM”) as counting towards recertification of a licensed midwife as a Certified Professional Midwife (“CPM”) or otherwise approved by the Board. Two (2) of these hours must be in peer review participation as described in Subsection 102.02.(3-28-23)

02.Peer Review System. As part of the Board’s annual continuing education requirement, each licensed midwife must participate in peer review activities for a minimum of two (2) hours per year to enable licensed midwives to retrospectively present and review cases in an effort to further educate themselves about the appropriateness, quality, utilization, and ethical performance of midwifery care.(3-28-23)

a.Licensed midwives are responsible for organizing their own peer review sessions. At least three (3) licensed midwives or CPMs must participate in a peer review session in order for the session to count towards a licensed midwife’s annual two-hour peer review activity requirement.(3-28-23)

b.Each licensed midwife must make a presentation that must include the following information:

i.Total number of clients currently in the licensed midwife’s care;(3-28-23)

ii.The number of women in the licensed midwife’s practice that are postpartum;(3-28-23)

iii.The number of births the licensed midwife has been involved with since the last peer review session; and(3-28-23)

iv.One (1) or more specific cases arising since the licensed midwife’s last peer review session involving serious complications or the transport of a mother or baby to the hospital.(3-28-23)

c.The information presented in a peer review session is confidential. The identities of the client, other health care providers, and other persons involved in a case may not be divulged during the peer review session.

03.Carryover Hours. A licensed midwife may carryover a maximum of five (5) hours of continuing education to meet the next year's continuing education requirement.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.26.01.103 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.26.01.200 Use of Formulary Drugs

IDAPA 24.26.01.201 Obtaining, Storing, and Disposing of Formulary Drugs

A licensed midwife must adhere to the requirements in Title 54 Chapter 17 Idaho Code and IDAPA 24.36.01 Rules of the Idaho State Board of Pharmacy for obtaining, storing, and disposing of formulary drugs during the practice of midwifery.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.26.01.202 Medical Waste

A licensed midwife must dispose of medical waste during the practic e of midwifery according to state and federal

law.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.26.01.203 Scope and Practice Standards

A licensed midwife must adhere to the Essential Documents of the National Association of Certified Professional Midwives to the extent such scope and practice standards are consistent with the Board’s enabling law, Chapter 55, Title 54, Idaho Code when providing antepartum, intrapartum, postpartum, and newborn care.(3-28-23)

01.Conditions for Which a Licensed Midwife May Not Provide Care Without Health Care Provider Involvement. A licensed midwife may not provide care for a client with a history of the disorders, diagnoses, conditions, or symptoms listed in Section 54-5505(1)(e)(ii), Idaho Code, unless such disorders, diagnoses, conditions or symptoms are being treated, monitored or managed by a licensed health care provider. In Section 54- 5505(1)(e)(ii)(14), Idaho Code, “history” includes illicit drug use or addiction during the current pregnancy.

02.Conditions for Which a Licensed Midwife Must Facilitate Hospital Transfer. A licensed midwife must facilitate the immediate transfer of a client to a hospital for emergency care if the client has any of the disorders, diagnoses, conditions or symptoms listed in Section 54-5505(1)(e)(iv), Idaho Code. Maternal fever in labor of more than 100.4 degrees Fahrenheit, in the absence of environmental factors; suggestion of fetal jeopardy, such as frank bleeding before delivery, any abnormal bleeding (with or without abdominal pain), evidence of placental abruption, meconium with non-reassuring fetal heart tone patterns where birth is not imminent, or abnormal fetal heart tones with non-reassuring patterns where birth is not imminent;(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.26.01.204 Newborn Transfer of Care or Consultation

01.Newborn Transfer of Care. Conditions for which a licensed midwife must facilitate the immediate transfer of a newborn to a hospital for emergency care:(3-28-23)

a.Respiratory distress defined as respiratory rate greater than eighty (80) or grunting, flaring, or retracting for more than one (1) hour.(3-28-23)

b.Any respiratory distress following delivery with moderate to thick meconium stained fluid.

c.Central cyanosis or pallor for more than ten (10) minutes.(3-28-23)

d.Apgar score of six (6) or less at five (5) minutes of age.(3-28-23)

e.Abnormal bleeding.(3-28-23)

f.Any condition requiring more than six (6) hours of continuous, immediate postpartum evaluation.

g.Any vesicular skin lesions.(3-28-23)

h.Seizure-like activity.(3-28-23)

i.Any bright green emesis.(3-28-23)

j.Poor feeding effort due to lethargy or disinterest in nursing for more than two (2) hours immediately following birth.(3-28-23)

02.Newborn Consultation Required. Conditions for which a licensed midwife must consult a Pediatric Provider (Neonatologist, Pediatrician, Family Practice Physician, Advanced Practice Registered Nurse, or Physician Assistant):(3-28-23)

a.Temperature instability, defined as a rectal temperature less than ninety-six point eight (96.8) degrees Fahrenheit or greater than one hundred point four (100.4) degrees Fahrenheit documented two (2) times more than fifteen (15) minutes apart.(3-28-23)

b.Murmur lasting more than twenty-four (24) hours immediately following birth.(3-28-23)

c.Cardiac arrhythmia.(3-28-23)

d.Congenital anomalies.(3-28-23)

e.Birth injury.(3-28-23)

f.Clinical evidence of prematurity, including but not limited to, low birth weight of less than two thousand five hundred (2,500) grams, smooth soles of feet, or immature genitalia.(3-28-23)

g.Any jaundice in the first twenty-four (24) hours after birth or significant jaundice at any time.

h.No stool for more than twenty-four (24) hours immediately following birth.(3-28-23)

i.No urine output for more than twenty-four (24) hours.(3-28-23)

j.Development of persistent poor feeding effort at any time.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.26.01.205 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.26.01.300 Unprofessional Conduct

01.Standards of Conduct. If a licens ed midwife or an applicant for licensure, renewal, or reinstatement has engaged in unprofessional conduct, the Board may refuse to issue, renew, or reinstate the applicant’s license and may discipline the licensee. Unprofessional conduct includes, without limitation, those actions defined in Section 54-5510, Idaho Code, and any of the following:(3-28-23)

a.Having a license suspended, revoked, or otherwise disciplined in this or any other state or jurisdiction;(3-28-23)

b.Having been convicted of any felony, or of a lesser crime that reflects adversely on the person’s fitness to be a licensed midwife; or(3-28-23)

c.Violating any standards of conduct set forth in these rules, whether or not specifically labeled as such, and including without limitation any scope and practice standards, record-keeping requirements, notice requirements, or requirements for documenting informed consent.(3-28-23)

02.Discipline. If the Board determines that a licensed midwife has engaged in unprofessional conduct, it may impose discipline against the licensed midwife that includes, without limitation, the following:(3-28-23)

a.Require that a licensed midwife practice midwifery under the supervision of another health care provider. The Board may specify the nature and extent of the supervision and may require the licensed midwife to enter into a consultation, collaboration, proctoring, or supervisory agreement, written or otherwise, with the other health care provider;(3-28-23)

b.Suspend or revoke a license;(3-28-23)

c.Impose a civil fine not to exceed one thousand dollars ($1,000) for each violation of the Board’s laws and rules; and(3-28-23)

d.Order payment of the costs and fees incurred by the Board for the investigation and prosecution of the violation of the Board’s laws and rules.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.26.01.301 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.26.01.400 Fees

Non-refundable fees are as follows:

( 7-1-26)

IDAPA 24.26.01.401 (Reserved)

APPLICATIONFEE

Initial Application Not more than $90 Initial LicenseNot more than $90 RenewalNot more than $90 ReinstatementNot more than $35, in addition to renewal fees.

24.33.05 Rules of the Licensure of Athletic Trainers to Practice In Idaho

IDAPA 24.33.05.000 Legal Authority

These rules are promulgated pursuant to Sections 54-3902, 54-3906, 54-3907, 54-3910, 54-3911 and 54-3913, Idaho Code.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.33.05.001 Scope

These rules govern the practice of athletic training in Idaho.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.33.05.002 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.33.05.100 Licensure

Provisional licenses for athletic trainers will be issued for a period of one (1) year and may not be renewed. (7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.33.05.101 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.33.05.200 Practice Standards

01.Referral by Directing Physician.

An athletic injury not incurred in association with an educational institution, professional, amateur, or recreational sports club or organization must be referred by a directing physician, but only after such directing physician has first evaluated the athlete. An athletic trainer treating or evaluating an athlete with an athletic injury incurred in association with an amateur or recreational sports club or organization will especially consider the need for a directing physician to subsequently evaluate the athlete and refer for further athletic training services.(3-28-23)

02.Identification. The athletic trainer will at all times when on duty identify himself as an athletic trainer.(3-28-23)

03.Athletic Training Service Plan or Protocol. Each licensed athletic trainer providing athletic training services will create an athletic training service plan or protocol with his directing physician. This service plan or protocol must be a written document that defines the services to be provided by the athletic trainer, mutually agreed upon by both directing physician and athletic trainer and signed and dated by both. The service plan or protocol shall be reviewed and updated on an annual basis. Each licensed athletic trainer must notify the Board within thirty (30) days of any change in the status of his directing physician. The plan or protocol must be maintained on file at each location in which the athletic trainer is practicing. This plan or protocol will be made immediately available to the Board upon request to allow review of the service plan or protocol, including job descriptions, policy statements, or other documents that define the responsibilities of the athletic trainer in the practice setting, and may require such changes as needed to achieve compliance with the law and to safeguard the public. This plan or protocol will be made immediately available to the Board of Chiropractic Physicians for the same purposes upon request for those athletic trainers whose directing physicians are chiropractic physicians. This plan or protocol will include:(7-1-25)

a.Listing of Services and Activities. A listing of the athletic training services to be provided and specific activities to be performed by the athletic trainer.(3-28-23)

b.Locations and Facilities. The specific locations and facilities in which the athletic trainer will function; and(3-28-23)

c.Methods to be Used. The methods to be used to ensure responsible direction and control of the activities of the athletic trainer, which will provide for the:(3-28-23)

i.Recording of an on-site visit by the directing physician at least semiannually or every semester;

(3-28-23)

ii.Availability of the directing physician to the athletic trainer in person or by telephone and procedures for providing direction for the athletic trainer in emergency situations; and(3-28-23)

iii. Procedures for addressing situations outside the scope of practice of the athletic trainer. (3-28-23)

04.Supervision and Scope of Provisional Licenses. A provisionally licensed athletic trainer must be in direct association with his directing physician and Idaho licensed athletic trainer who will supervise and be available to render direction in person and on the premises where the athletic training services are being provided.

The directing physician and the supervising athletic trainer are responsible for the athletic training services provided by t he provisionally licensed athletic trainer. The extent of communication between the directing physician and supervising athletic trainer and the provisionally licensed athletic trainer is determined by the competency of the provisionally licensed athletic trainer and the practice setting and the type of athletic training services being rendered.

The scope of practice of the provisionally licensed athletic trainer is limited to and consistent with the scope of practice of his directing physician and supervising athletic trainer and must conform with the established athletic training service plan or protocol.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.33.05.201 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.33.05.400 Fees

Fees are as follows:

( 7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.33.05.401 (Reserved)

Fees – Table (Non-Refundable)

Athletic Trainer Licensure Fee-Not more than $240 Athletic Trainer Annual Renewal Fee-Not more than $160 Directing Physician Registration Fee-Not more than $50 Annual Renewal of Directing Physician Registration Fee-Not more than $25 Alternate Directing Physician Registration/Renewal Fee-$0 Provisional Licensure Fee-Not more than $80 Annual Renewal of Provisional License Fee-Not more than $40 Reinstatement Fee- Not more than $50 plus  unpaid renewal fees

24.05.01 Rules of the Board of Drinking Water and Wastewater Professionals

IDAPA 24.05.01.000 Legal Authority

These rules are promulgated pursuant to Sections 5 4-2406, 54-2607, 67-2614, 67-9406, 67-9609, Idaho Code.

IDAPA 24.05.01.001 Scope

These rules govern the practice of drinking water operators, wastewater operators, and backflow assembly testers.

IDAPA 24.05.01.002 Definitions

01.Very Small Public Drinking Water System.

A community or non-transient non-community public drinking water system that serves five hundred (500) persons or fewer and has no treatment other than disinfection or has only treatment which does not require any chemical treatment, process adjustment, backwashing or media regeneration by an operator (e.g. calcium carbonate filters, granular activated carbon filters, cartridge filters, ion exchangers).(7-1-26)

02.Very Small Public Wastewater System. A public wastewater system that serves five hundred (500) connections or less and includes a collection system with a system size of six (6) points or fewer on the Idaho Department of Environmental Quality (DEQ) system classification rating form and is limited to only one (1) of the following wastewater treatment processes: aerated lagoons; non-aerated lagoon(s); primary treatment; or primary treatment discharging to a large soil absorption system (LSAS).(7-1-26)

03.System Classifications. All other system classifications used here are in accordance with DEQ classifications.(7-1-26)

IDAPA 24.05.01.003 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.05.01.100 Licensure

01.Classifications.

02.Examination Requirement. Applicants may apply and test for the classification level for which they have the requisite experience and education. Examination scores are valid for one (1) year from the examination date.(7-1-26)

03.Education and Experience Requirements. Applicants must present proof of the following:

a.Operator-In-Training. Passage of the board-approved examination or enrollment in a board- License DisciplineLicense TypeClassification Distribution Operator Treatment Operator Very Small Drinking Water Systems Wastewater Wastewater Treatment Operator Class I, II, III, IV, or Land Application Wastewater Collections Operator Wastewater Laboratory AnalystClass I, II, III, or IV Very Small Wastewater Systems Backflow Assembly TesterBackflow Assembly TesterBAT approved apprenticeship program. The Operator-In-Training license is valid for five (5) years.(7-1-24)

b.Ve r y S m a l l Drinking Water. Eighty-eight (88) hours of relevant on-site operating experience and twelve (12) hours of chlorination and drinking water distribution course(s).(7-1-26)

c.Very Small Wastewater. Eighty-eight (88) hours of relevant on-site operating experience; six (6) hours of pumps and motors or collection course(s); and six (6) hours of lagoon operation and maintenance, large soil absorption system, or wastewater treatment course(s).(7-1-26)

d.Class I Restricted. Two hundred sixty (260) hours of relevant on-site operating experience during twelve (12) consecutive months with a system and sixteen (16) hours of continuing education relevant to the license.

A restricted license is limited to a specific system.(7-1-26)

e.Class I Operator. One thousand six hundred (1,600) hours of relevant on-site operating experience, or successful completion of a board approved Class I apprenticeship program.(7-1-26)

f.Class II Operator. Four thousand eight hundred (4,800) hours of relevant on-site operating experience or successful completion of a board approved Class II apprenticeship program.(7-1-26)

g.Class III Operator. Two (2) years of postsecondary education in environmental control, engineering or related science or successful completion of a board approved Class III apprenticeship program; and six thousand four hundred (6,400) hours of relevant on-site operating experience.(7-1-26)

h.Class IV Operator. Four (4) years of postsecondary education in environmental control, engineering or related science or successful completion of a board approved Class IV apprenticeship program; and six thousand four hundred (6,400) hours of relevant on-site operating experience.(7-1-26)

i.Wastewater Land Application. Operator must hold and maintain an active Wastewater Treatment Operator license.(7-1-26)

j.Backflow Assembly Tester. Successful completion of a board-approved training program and passage of a practical examination using the University of Southern California (USC) testing procedures or other testing procedures approved by the board.(7-1-26)

k.Class I Wastewater Laboratory Analyst. One thousand six hundred (1,600) hours of lab experience.

l.Class II Wastewater Laboratory Analyst. Four thousand eight hundred (4,800) hours of lab experience at a drinking water or wastewater laboratory.(7-1-26)

m.Class III Wastewater Laboratory Analyst. Two (2) years of postsecondary education in environmental control, engineering or related science and six thousand four hundred (6,400) hours of lab experience at a drinking water or wastewater laboratory.(7-1-26)

n.Class IV Wastewater Laboratory Analyst. Four (4) years of postsecondary education in environmental control, engineering or related science and six thousand four hundred (6,400) hours of lab experience at a drinking water or wastewater laboratory.(7-1-26)

04.Substitutions . An applicant may substitute education and experience requirements as follows:

a.Completion of an apprenticeship program will be accepted in lieu of education or experience requirements as identified in Rule 100.03 if the program provides experience and education related to the operation of Class I-IV systems; is registered with the U.S. Department of Labor, Office of Apprenticeship; meets the Standards of Apprenticeship developed by the U.S. Department of Labor; and fulfills the requirements in Rules 100.03. (7-1-24)

b.Education for Experience. For Classes I, II, III and IV, postsecondary education in environmental control, engineering or related science can be substituted for up to fifty percent (50%) of the required experience, at a rate of thirty (30) college credits or four hundred fifty (450) hours equivalent to forty-five (45) CEUs of germane continuing education for one thousand six hundred (1,600) hours of experience. Education substituted for experience must be in addition to the minimum education requirement. For non-environmental, engineering, or science related degrees only courses germane to these disciplines will be eligible for substitution as determined by the board.

c. Experience for Education. One thousand six hundred (1,600) hours of on-site operating experience may be substituted for each year of post secondary education. Experience substituted for education must be in addition to the minimum experience requirement.(7-1-26)

d.Experience for Experience. Fifty percent (50%) of the required operating experience must be met by relevant, onsite operating experience in the license type being applied for. The following experience may be used to substitute up to fifty percent (50%) of the required operating experience: (7-1-26)

i.Environmental or operations consultants, or environmental or engineering branch of federal, state, county, or local government;(7-1-26)

ii.Construction of a distribution, collections, or drinking water or wastewater treatment system if such experience is documented in a declaration from a system owner or licensed operator, or;(7-1-26)

iii.Experience in the license disciplines of Drinking Water and Wastewater.(7-1-26)

e.Laboratory Analyst Experience for Experience. Experience as a laboratory analyst may count towards fifty percent (50%) of the required wastewater operating experience and experience as a wastewater operator may count towards fifty percent (50%) of the required laboratory analyst experience.(7-1-26)

05.Board approved Backflow or Operator Examination Providers Monitored and Audited. The board or its representative may monitor and audit any board approved examination provider.(7-1-26)

06.Continuing Education. To renew, a licensee must complete and retain proof of completion of six (6) classroom hours (0.6 CEUs) for each year of the licensing period of continuing education germane to the license discipline (Drinking Water or Wastewater), except that backflow assembly testers must complete an eight (8) hour refresher course every two (2) years. A remote or distant study course is acceptable if it is germane to the license type, except that backflow assembly testers must complete in-person and board-approved continuing education.(7-1-26)

a.A licensee may carry forward up to six (6) classroom hours of unused continuing education (0.6 CEUs) per licensure discipline for up to one (1) renewal cycle.(7-1-26)

b.A licensee who is an instructor for a drinking water or wastewater continuing education course may be credited the same number of classroom hours as the students of the germane course for one (1) presentation of the training per year of the licensing period.(7-1-26)

IDAPA 24.05.01.101 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.05.01.200 Practice Standards

01.Operator-in-Training. Operators-in -training must practice under the direct supervision of an appropriately licensed operator.(7-1-26)

02.Operators and Backflow Assembly Testers Code of Conduct. Operators and backflow assembly testers must:(7-1-24)

a.Perform duties with due care and diligence to protect the safety, health, and welfare of the public.

b.Comply with all applicable local, state, and federal laws relating to their respective profession(s).

c.Perform only those duties within their education, training, and experience and scope of licensure.

d.Prepare reports which are accurate, objective, and include all relevant information. (7-1-24)

e.Use standard test procedures, operating procedures, methods, and equipment when conducting inspections, sampling, and field tests with calibrated equipment.(7-1-24)

f.Backflow assembly testers will observe or inspect existing installations of backflow prevention assemblies to identify whether the assembly is properly installed the assembly is adequate for the degree of hazard.

g.When a backflow prevention assembly passes a field test, the tester must submit the report to the consumer and relevant public water system within fifteen (15) business days of the field test.(7-1-26)

h.When a backflow prevention assembly is defective or fails to pass the field test, the tester must submit the report to the consumer and relevant public water system within two (2) business days of the field test.

IDAPA 24.05.01.201 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.05.01.400 Fees

IDAPA 24.05.01.401 (Reserved)

TYPE

AMOUNT

(Not to Exceed)

Application$25 License or Certificate$30 annually Reinstatement$35

24.03.01 Rules of the State Board of Chiropractic Physicians

IDAPA 24.03.01.000 Legal Authority

These rules are promulgated pursuant to Section 54-707, Idaho Code.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.03.01.001 Scope

These rules govern the practice of chiro practic in Idaho. (3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.03.01.002 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.03.01.010 Definition

01.Chiropractic Assistant.

A chiropractic assistant is an individual functioning in a dependent relationship with a supervising chiropractic physician in the performance of any chiropractic practice.(3-28-23)

2. Chiropractic Intern. A chiropractic intern is defined as any individual who is presently enrolled in a school of chiropractic and is qualified to practice as an intern as established by the approved chiropractic program that the individual attends and who will function in a dependent relationship with a supervising chiropractic physician in the performance of chiropractic practice.(7-1-25)

03.Direct Personal Supervision. Direct Personal Supervision means that the licensed chiropractic physician is physically present in the clinic, is monitoring the activities of the supervisee, and is available to intervene, if necessary.(3-28-23)

04.Clinical Nutritional Practice. Clinical nutritional methods, without clinical nutrition certification, is defined as the clinical use, administration, recommendation, prescribing, selling, and distributing over-the-counter vitamins, minerals, botanical medicine, herbals, homeopathic, phytonutrients, antioxidants, enzymes, glandular extracts, peptides, amino acids, and durable and non-durable medical goods and devices.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.03.01.011 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.03.01.100 Licensure

01.Qualifications.

(3-28-23)

a.New applicants will meet the following requirements:(3-28-23)

i.Successful passage of all national boards administered at the time of application, or other examinations approved by the Board;(7-1-25)

ii.Graduation from a chiropractic school, college, or, or other programs as approved by the Board.

b.Endorsement applicants will meet the following requirements:(3-28-23)

i.Successful passage of the national boards which were in effect at the time of graduation from chiropractic college, or other examinations approved by the Board;(7-1-25)

ii.Graduation from a program accredited by agency recognized by the U.S. Department of Education or other program approved by the Board;

iii.Five (5) years of consecutive practice without discipline immediately prior to application and holds a current, valid license to practice in a state, territory, or district of the United States or Canada;(3-28-23)

02.Continuing Education. All licensees must comply with the following continuing education requirements:(7-1-25)

a.Applicants for renewal are required to complete a minimum of thirty-six (36) hours of continuing education within the preceding twenty-four (24) months, as approved by the Board.(7-1-25)

b.Each licensee is responsible for maintaining documentation verifying continuing education compliance.(7-1-25)

c.The Board may waive the requirements of this rule for reasons of individual hardship including health or other good cause. The licensee should request the waiver in advance of renewal and must provide any information requested by the Board to assist in substantiating hardship cases. This waiver is granted at the sole discretion of the Board.(7-1-25)

d.Continuing education hours not claimed in the current renewal cycle may be claimed in the next renewal cycle. Hours may be carried forward from the immediately preceding cycle, and may not be carried forward more than one renewal cycle.(7-1-25)

e.A licensee is exempt from the continuing education requirements under this section for the period between the initial issuance of the original license and the first expiration date of that license.(7-1-25)

f.Approved continuing education courses are those courses, programs, and activities that are germane to the practice of chiropractic, as defined in Sections 54-704(1) and (2), Idaho Code, and meet the general requirements and content requirements of these rules, and are approved, sponsored, or provided by the following entities or organizations, or otherwise approved by the Board:(7-1-25)

i.A college or university accredited by a nationally recognized accrediting agency as recognized by the United States Department of Education;(7-1-25)

ii.American Medical Association Physicians Recognition Award (AMA PRA) certified continuing education activities as certified by the American Medical Association (AMA) or other accreditors;(7-1-25)

iii.Providers of Approved Continuing Education (PACE);(7-1-25)

iv.Other courses may be approved by the Board based upon documentation submitted by the licensee on a board approved form.(7-1-25)

03.Inactive License Status Renewal.(7-1-25)

a.An inactive license must be renewed biennially by submitting the established fee and renewal application. Inactive licenses not renewed will be canceled.(7-1-25)

b.All continuing education requirements will be waived for any year or portion thereof that a licensee maintains an inactive license and is not actively practicing in Idaho.(7-1-25)

04.Return to Active Status of License Inactive for Six (6) or Fewer Years. An inactive license holder whose license has been inactive for six (6) or fewer years may convert from inactive to active license status by:

a.Making written application to the Board on a form prescribed by the Board;(7-1-25)

b.Providing documentation to the Board showing successful completion within the previous twentyfour (24) months of the continuing education requirements for renewal of an active license; and(7-1-25)

c.Paying a fee equivalent to the difference between the current inactive fee and the active renewal

fee.(7-1-25)

05.Return to Active Status of License Inactive for More Than Six (6) Years. An inactive license holder whose license has been inactive for more than six (6) years may convert from inactive to active license status by:(7-1-25) a.

Making written application to the Board on a form prescribed by the Board.(7-1-25)

b.Providing an account to the Board for that period of time during which the license was inactive and fulfilling requirements that demonstrate competency to resume practice. Those requirements may include, but are not limited to, education, supervised practice, and examination as determined by the Board. The Board may consider practice in another jurisdiction in determining competency.(7-1-25)

c.Paying a fee equivalent to the difference between the current inactive fee and the active renewal

fee.(7-1-25)

06.Practice Permits. Only one (1) permit may be issued under any circumstances to any individual.

Such permit will be valid for a period not to exceed twelve (12) months:(7-1-25)

a.Temporary permits will be invalidated when an applicant has failed any attempted examination for licensure in this or any other state, territory, possession, or country more than once. Failure to sit for the next scheduled examination will invalidate the temporary permit and no further permits will be issued.(7-1-25)

b.Intern permits expire upon graduation.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.03.01.101 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.03.01.150 Education

Requirement for Approval. The Board will consider any college, domestic or foreign, which meets standards as determined by the B oard and teaches accredited courses in all the subjects set forth in Sections 54-704(1) and 54- 709(1)(b), Idaho Code.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.03.01.151 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.03.01.200 Practice Standards

01.Code of Ethics. Chiropractic physicians are responsible for maintai ning and promoting ethical practice in accordance with the ethical principles set forth in Appendix A in these rules.(7-1-25)

02.Chiropractic Assistants. The chiropractic physician is responsible and liable for:(7-1-25)

a.Direct personal supervision;(7-1-25)

b.Any acts of the assistant in the performance of chiropractic practice;(7-1-25)

c.Proper training and capabilities of the chiropractic assistant before authorization is given to perform any chiropractic practice or patient education.(7-1-25)

03.Chiropractic Assistant Limitations. A chiropractic assistant must not:(7-1-25)

a.Manipulate articulations;(7-1-25)

b.Interpret diagnostic results for the patient;(7-1-25)

c.Provide treatment advice to any patient.(7-1-25)

04.Chiropractic Interns. The chiropractic physician is responsible and liable for:(7-1-25)

a.Direct personal supervision of the intern;(7-1-25)

b.Any acts of the intern in the performance of chiropractic practice;(7-1-25)

c.Determining that the intern possesses sufficient training and capabilities before authorization is given to perform any chiropractic practice.(7-1-25)

05.Chiropractic Intern Limitations. A chiropractic intern must not:(7-1-25)

a.Perform any chiropractic practice independently, but must perform all such practice under the direct personal supervision of a licensed Chiropractic Physician;(7-1-25)

b.Provide diagnostic results or interpretations to the patient prior to consultation with the supervising Chiropractic Physician;(7-1-25)

c.Provide treatment advice to any patient without instructions from the supervising Chiropractic Physician.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.03.01.201 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.03.01.400 Fees

All fees are non-refundable.

( 7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.03.01.401 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.03.01.700 Clinical Nutrition Certification

01.Expiration Date. Chiropractic physicians’ clinical nutrition certification expires on the expiration date of their chiropractic license and must be issued biennially with the renewal of their license. The Board will waive the clinical nutrition certification fee in conjunction with the first timely renewal of the chiropractic license after initial clinical nutrition certification.(7-1-25)

02.Recertification in Clinical Nutrition Every Four (4) Years. After Initial certification in clinical nutrition, chiropractic physicians must recertify in clinical nutrition every four (4) years in order to maintain clinical nutrition certification.(7-1-25)

03.Recertification is in Addition to Required Biennial Continuing Education. A twelve (12) hour recertification course which includes both didactic education and practical review and practice of contemporary developments and best practices to maintain core competency in the practice of clinical nutrition as set forth in Section 54-716, Idaho Code, and Section 54-717, Idaho Code must be completed in addition to the biennial thirty-six (36) hours of continuing education required under Section 100.02.a prior to recertification. This recertification course must be approved by the board.(7-1-25)

04.Failure to Timely Recertify in Clinical Nutrition. Clinical nutrition certification not timely recertified in accordance with Section 706 expires and is canceled..(7-1-25)

Fee Type Amount (Not to Exceed)

Application $200 Original license$200 Annual renewal$200 Inactive license$150 Reinstatement of expired license$35 Reinstatement of inactive license$150 Temporary permit$150 Intern permit$150 Application for clinical nutrition certification$175 Original for clinical nutrition certification$175 Clinical nutrition certification renewal$175

IDAPA 24.03.01.701 Obtaining and Independently Administering Clinical Nutrition

PRESCRIPTION DRUG PRODUCTS.

A chiropractic physician with clinical nutrition certificat ion as defined by Sections 54-704(4), 54-716 and 54-717, Idaho Code, may obtain and independently administer prescription drug products in the practice of chiropractic subject to the conditions below.(3-28-23)

01.Current Certification in Clinical Nutrition Required. Only chiropractic physicians who hold current certification in clinical nutrition by the Board may obtain and independently administer prescription drug products during chiropractic practice. To hold a current certification in clinical nutrition, a chiropractic physician must have an active unrestricted license to practice chiropractic.(7-1-25)

02.Prescription Drugs Products from the Formulary. A chiropractic physician with clinical nutrition certification may not obtain or administer a prescription drug product that is not listed in the chiropractic clinical nutrition formulary or otherwise prescribe, dispense, distribute, or direct a patient to use a prescription drug product except as allowed in Section 54-704(5), Idaho Code.(7-1-25)

03.Practice Limited to Chiropractic Physicians with Clinical Nutrition Certification.

Chiropractic interns, chiropractic assistants, holders of chiropractic temporary practice permits and others working under the authority or direction of a chiropractic physician may not perform any practice or function requiring clinical nutrition certification.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.03.01.702 Clinical Nutrition Formulary

Chiropractic physicians certified in clinical nutrition may obtain and independently administer, during chiropractic practice, only the prescription drug products listed in this chiropractic clinical nutrition formulary and subject to the provisions hereof.(3-28-23)

01.Chiropractic Clinical Nutrition Prescription Drug Formulary. Prescription drug products that may be used by chiropractic physicians with clinical nutrition certification are limited to the following:(3-28-23)

a.Vitamins: vitamin A, all B vitamins and vitamin C;(3-28-23)

b.Minerals: ammonium molybdate, calcium, chromium, copper, iodine, magnesium, manganese, potassium, selenium, sodium, and zinc;(3-28-23)

c.Fluids: dextrose, lactated ringers, Plasma Lyte, saline, and sterile water;(7-1-25)

d.Epinephrine; and(3-28-23)

e.Oxygen for use during an emergency or allergic reaction.(3-28-23)

02.Sources of Clinical Nutrition Prescription Drug Products. Prescription drug products listed in the chiropractic clinical nutrition formulary may be obtained only by a chiropractic physician with clinical nutrition certification and only from a source licensed under Chapter 17, Title 54, Idaho Code, that is a wholesale distributor, a manufacturer, a pharmacy, compounding pharmacy, or an outsourcing facility and from no other source.(3-28-23)

03.No Compounding of Prescription Drug Products. A chiropractic physician may not obtain or use in chiropractic practice a compounded drug product containing a prescription drug product that is not included in the chiropractic clinical nutrition formulary.(7-1-25)

04.Compliance with Federal and State Requirements. In addition to the requirements of the Idaho Chiropractic Practice Act and rules of the Board, chiropractic physicians must comply with all federal and state laws, rules and policies governing possession, storage, record keeping, use, and disposal of prescription drug products.

(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.03.01.703 (Reserved)

Appendix A – Chiropractic Physicians Code of Ethics PREAMBLE This code of ethics sets forth principles for the ethical practice of chiropractic. All chiropractic physicians are responsible for maintaining and promoting ethical practice and otherwise complying with the terms of this code of ethics. To this end, the chiropractic physician must act in the best interest of the patient. This code of ethics is binding on all chiropractic physicians.

1. Duty to Report A. It is the duty of every licensee to notify the Board through the Division of Occupational and Professional Licenses of any violation of the Chiropractic Act or Board Rules, if the licensee has personal knowledge of the conduct.

B. If a judgment is entered against a licensee in any court, or a settlement is reached on a claim involving malpractice exceeding fifty thousand dollars ($50,000), a licensee must report that fact to the Board within thirty (30)

days. The licensee may satisfy the provision of this subsection if he/she provides the Board with a copy of the judgment or settlement.

C. If convicted of a felony or a crime involving dishonesty, theft, violence, habitual use of drugs or alcohol, or sexual misconduct, the licensee must report that fact to the board within thirty (30) days following the conviction.

2. Advertising of Research Projects If a licensee advertises any affiliation with a research project, he must make a written statement of the objectives, cost and budget of the project, and the person conducting the research. Such statements are to be made available at the request of the Board, to scientific organizations, and to the general public. The advertisement must indicate that it is for the purpose of clinical research. Any willful failure to comply with these requirements will be deemed false and deceptive advertising. Licensees must comply with all state and federal laws and regulations governing research projects on humans, and will obtain “Institutional Review Board” (IRB) approval as established and set forth in the U.S. Code of Federal Regulations, Title 45, Part 46, Subpart A (45 CFR 46.101-46-505).

3. Sexual Misconduct The doctor-patient relationship requires the chiropractic physician to exercise utmost care that he or she will do nothing to exploit the trust and dependency of the patient. Sexual misconduct is a form of behavior that adversely affects the public welfare and harms patients individually and collectively. Sexual misconduct exploits the doctorpatient relationship and is a violation of the public trust. A chiropractic physician shall wait at least one (1) year (“waiting period”) following the termination of a professional doctor-patient relationship, before beginning any type of sexual relationship with a former patient.

For the purposes of this subsection, sexual misconduct is divided into sub-categories based upon the severity of the conduct:

A. Sexual Impropriety. Any behavior such as gestures, expressions, and statements which are sexually suggestive or demeaning to a patient, or which demonstrate a lack of respect for a patient's privacy.

B. Sexual Violation. Physician-patient contact of a sexual nature, whether initiated by the physician or the patient.

4. Prepaid Funds A chiropractic physician shall promptly refund any unearned fees within thirty (30) days upon request and cancellation of the prepaid contract. A full accounting of the patient account shall be provided to the patient at the tim e of the refund or upon request.

24.12.01 Rules of the Idaho State Board of Psychologist Examiners

IDAPA 24.12.01.000 Legal Authority

The rules are promulgated pursuant to Sectio n 54-2305, Idaho Code.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.12.01.001 Scope

These rules govern the practice of psychology in Idaho.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.12.01.002 Incorporation by Reference

The document titled “Ethical Principles of Psycho logists and Code of Conduct,” published and adopted by the American Psychological Association (APA), effective January 1, 2017, is herein adopted and incorporated by reference and is available on the APA website: https://www.apa.org/ethics/code. (3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.12.01.003 Definitions

01.Geriatric Patient.

A person sixty-five (65) years of age or older.(3-28-23)

02.Mental, Nervous, Emotional, Behavioral, Substance Abuse, and Cognitive Disorders.

Disorders, illnesses, or diseases listed in either the most recent edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders published by the American Psychiatric Association or those listed in the International Classification of Diseases published by the World Health Organization.(3-28-23)

03.Pediatric Patient. A person seventeen (17) years of age or younger.(3-28-23)

04.Prescribing Psychologist. A person who holds a license to practice psychology issued by the Board and who holds a Certification or Provisional Certification of Prescriptive Authority issued by the Board under Sections 54-2317, 54-2318, 54-2319, Idaho Code, and these rules.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.12.01.004 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.12.01.100 Licensure

01.Written Exam Required.

Applicants will pass the National Examination for Professional Practice in Psychology (EPPP).(3-28-23)

2. Temporary Permits. Persons not licensed in this state who desire to practice psychology under the provisions of this chapter for a period not to exceed thirty (30) days within a calendar year may do so if they hold a license in another state or province have had no disciplinary action and pay the required fee. Persons authorized to practice under this section must hold a certification of prescriptive authority issued by the Idaho Board of Psychologist Examiners to issue a prescription.(3-28-23)

03.Examination for Provisional Certification of Prescriptive Authority. The approved examination is the Psychopharmacology Examination for Psychologists. The passing score is determined by the Association of State and Provincial Psychology Boards.(3-28-23)

04.Provisional Certification of Prescriptive Authority.(3-28-23)

a.Scope and Supervision Agreement. The scope of practice of a psychologist with provisional certification of prescriptive authority includes only those duties and responsibilities identified in a written supervision agreement with a licensed physician. The agreement will contain the following elements:(3-28-23)

i.The parties to the agreement and authorized scope of authority for each prescribing psychologist;

ii.The direct supervision methods, including supervision on a one-to-one basis for a minimum of four (4) hours each month and a minimum of a total of forty-eight (48) hours each year;(3-28-23)

iii. A requirement that the prescribing psychologist must collaborate with, consult with, or refer to the supervising physician as indicated by the condition of the patient; the education, experience, and competence of the prescribing psychologist; and the community standard of care; and(3-28-23)

iv.The procedures for an emergency consultation, and if necessary, any patient monitoring parameters.(3-28-23)

b.Documentation. The licensed psychologist will maintain documentation of the supervision agreements for not less than three (3) years for each service extender and submit to the Board upon request.

c.One (1) of the two (2) years of supervised experience as required by Section 2307(2)(a), Idaho Code, for initial licensure may be pre-doctoral. The second year must be post-doctoral work under appropriate supervision and must be verified by the appropriate supervisor.(3-28-23)

05.Provisional Licensure for Prescriptive Authority. Applicants for licensure or certification or provisional certification of prescriptive authority must submit a complete application, to the Board at its official address. The application must be on the forms approved by the Board and submitted together with the appropriate fee(s) and supporting documentation.(3-28-23)

06.Continuing Education.(3-28-23)

a. Hours Required. A licensed psychologist must complete thirty (30) hours every two (2) calendar years of continuing education credits. Four (4) of those credits must be in Laws and Ethics. A prescribing psychologist must complete thirty (30) hours every two (2) calendar years of continuing education credits in psychopharmacotherapy. Continuing education credits for prescribing psychologists are in addition to the continuing education credits required to renew their psychologist license.(3-28-23)

b. Professional Level of Continuing Education. This continuing education experience must be at an appropriate level for professional training in psychology. The licensees have responsibility for demonstrating the relevance and adequacy of the educational experience they select. The licensees are also responsible for keeping an accurate record of their own personal continuing education hours for a period of three (3) years. A random audit may be conducted to ensure compliance.(3-28-23)

c. Continuing Education Credit. Licensees are responsible for choosing quality continuing education programs that focus on protecting the health and safety of the public and contribute to their germane profession.

d. Newly Licensed Individuals. Newly licensed individuals will be considered to have satisfied the continuing education requirements for the remainder of the year in which their license is granted.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.12.01.101 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.12.01.150 Educational and Credentialing Requirements for Licensure

Applicants who receive a doctoral degree from a program accredited by the American Psychological Association are considered to have met all criteria outlined.(3-28-23)

01.Training in Professional Psychology. Training in professional psychology is doctoral training offered in an institution of higher education that is accredited by a regional accrediting organization recognized by the United States Department of Education. The program must stand as a recognizable and coherent program in the institution.(3-28-23)

02.Training Program. The curriculum must encompass a minimum of three (3) academic years of full-time graduate study, one (1) of which is in physical residence at the degree-granting institution. The program must include a supervised practicum and pre-doctoral internship. Pre-doctoral internships must be completed at a member site of the Association of Psychology Postdoctoral and Internship Centers, or sites demonstrating an equivalent program.(3-28-23)

03.Content of Program. The program must be an integrated, organized sequence of study, with a recognized sequence of study. It must have an identifiable psychology faculty and body of students who are matriculated in that program for the purposes of receiving a degree. Minimal competence is demonstrated by passing a three (3) credit semester graduate course (or a five (5) credit quarter graduate course) in each of the substantive areas listed below:(3-28-23)

a.Biological Bases of Behavior: Physiological psychology, comparative psychology, neuropsychology, sensation and perception, psychopharmacology.(3-28-23)

b.Cognitive-Affective Bases of Behavior: Learning, cognition, motivation, emotion.(3-28-23)

c.Social Bases of Behavior: Social psychology, group processes, organizational and systems theory.

d.Individual Differences: Personality theory, human development, abnormal psychology.(3-28-23)

e.Scientific and Professional Standards and Ethics.(3-28-23)

f.Research Design and Methodology.(3-28-23)

g.Techniques of Data Analysis: statistics, multivariate statistics, factor analysis, multiple regression, non-parametric statistics.(3-28-23)

h.Psychological Measurement: psychometric principles, test theory, personality assessment, cognitive assessment.(3-28-23)

i.History and Systems of Psychology.(3-28-23)

j.Multiculturalism and Individual Diversity.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.12.01.151 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.12.01.200 Practice Standards

01.Requirements for Supervised Practice. (3 -28-23)

a.Duration and Setting of Supervised Practice. A year of supervised experience is defined as a minimum of one thousand (1000) hours of supervised service provision acquired during not less than twelve (12) months and no more than a thirty-six (36) calendar month period. The first year of supervised experience must be accredited only after acquiring the equivalent of one (1) year of full-time graduate study. A second year must be obtained post-doctorly.(3-28-23)

b.Qualifications of Supervisors. Supervising psychologists must be licensed and in good standing.

c.Amount of Supervisory Contact. One (1) hour per week of face-to-face individual contact per forty (40) hours of applicable experience is a minimum.(3-28-23)

d.Evaluation and Accreditation of Supervised Practice. At the conclusion of the supervisory period, the supervisor will submit a written evaluation on a Board approved form.(3-28-23)

02.Supervision of Provisional Certification Holder. Prior to application for a certification of prescriptive authority, a provisional certification holder must complete two (2) years, including a minimum of two thousand (2,000) hours of satisfactory prescribing under a supervision agreement with a licensed physician.

a.Number of Patients. A minimum of fifty (50) separate patients who are seen for the purpose of evaluation and treatment with those medications that are within the formulary established in these rules.(3-28-23)

b. Supervision for Pediatric or Geriatric Patients. Prior to application for certification of prescriptive authority for pediatric patients or geriatric patients, a provisional certification holder must complete one (1) year, including a minimum of one thousand (1,000) hours of satisfactory prescribing under a supervision agreement with a licensed physician. The one (1) year of satisfactory prescribing for a pediatric or geriatric population may be counted as one (1) year of the two (2) years of satisfactory prescribing required to qualify for certification of prescriptive authority.(3-28-23)

c.Credit Toward Certification. The one (1) year of satisfactory prescribing for a pediatric or geriatric population may be counted as one (1) year of the two (2) years of satisfactory prescribing required to qualify for certification of prescriptive authority.(3-28-23)

d.Number of Patients. One (1) year of satisfactory prescribing includes a minimum of twenty-five (25) separate patients in the population for which the prescribing psychologist seeks to prescribe and who are seen for the purpose of evaluation and treatment with those medications that are within the formulary established in Section 200 of these rules. For a prescribing psychologist who seeks to prescribe for pediatric patients, a minimum of ten (10) separate patients must be twelve (12) years of age or younger and a minimum of ten (10) separate patients must be between thirteen (13) years of age and seventeen (17) years of age.(3-28-23)

03.Standards of Practice for Prescriptive Authority. A prescribing psychologist who issues a prescription for medication to a patient must collaborate with the patient’s licensed medical provider if the patient has one and follow community standard of care.(3-28-23)

a. Licensed Medical Provider. The prescribing psychologist must document that the psychologist has made every reasonable effort to encourage the patient to maintain or establish a relationship with a licensed medical provider.(3-28-23)

b. Education. Only prescribe formulary drugs or devices for conditions for which the prescribing psychologist is educationally prepared and for which competence has been achieved and maintained.(3-28-23)

c.Patient-Prescriber Relationship. Only issue a prescription for a legitimate medical purpose arising from a patient-prescriber relationship as defined in Section 54-1733, Idaho Code.(3-28-23)

d. Patient Assessment. Obtain adequate information about the patient’s health status to make appropriate decisions based on the applicable standard of care and the best available evidence.(3-28-23)

e.Collaboration with Other Health Care Professionals. Recognize the limits of the prescribing psychologist’s own knowledge and experience and consult with and refer to other licensed medical providers as appropriate.(3-28-23)

f.Documentation. Maintain documentation adequate to justify the care provided including, but not limited to, the information collected as part of the patient assessment, the prescription record, provider notification, and the follow-up care plan.(3-28-23)

g.Emergencies. If a prescribing psychologist determines that an emergency exists that may jeopardize the health or wellbeing of the patient, the prescribing psychologist may, without prior consultation with the patient’s licensed medical provider, prescribe psychotropic medications or modify an existing prescription for psychotropic medication previously written for that patient by that prescribing psychologist. The prescribing psychologist must consult with the licensed medical provider as soon as possible. The prescribing psychologist must document in the patient’s psychological evaluation/treatment records the nature and extent of the emergency and the attempt(s) made to contact the licensed medical provider prior to prescribing or other reason why contact could not be made.(3-28-23)

h.Disaster Areas. If a prescribing psychologist is working in a declared emergency/disaster area, the on-site medical staff can serve as the evaluating licensed medical provider.(3-28-23)

04.Formulary. A prescribing psychologist may not prescribe any opioid-controlled substance medication, unless pursuant to 21 U.S.C 823(g). A prescribing psychologist may not prescribe medication to treat a primary endocrine, cardiovascular, orthopedic, neurologic, gynecologic, obstetric, metabolic, hematologic, respiratory, renal, gastrointestinal, hepatic, dermatologic, oncologic, infectious, ophthalmologic, or rheumatologic illness or disorder.(3-28-23)

05.Use of Service Extenders. To evaluate whether a specific act is within the scope of psychology practice in or into Idaho, or whether an act can be delegated to other individuals under their supervision, a licensee of the Board must independently determine whether:(3-28-23)

a.Express Prohibition. The act is expressly prohibited by the Idaho Psychologist Act, Title 54, Chapter 23, Idaho Code; rules of the Idaho Board of Psychologist Examiners; or any other applicable state or federal laws or regulations.(3-28-23)

b. Education, Training, and Experience. The act is consistent with the licensee or service extender’s education, training, and experience.(3-28-23)

c.Standard of Care. Performance of the act is within the accepted standard of care that would be provided in a similar setting by a reasonable and prudent licensee or service extender with similar education, training, and experience.(3-28-23)

d. Scope of Service Extenders. The scope of practice of service extenders includes only those duties and responsibilities identified in a written supervision agreement.(3-28-23)

e. Supervised Practice. A signed supervision agreement between a licensed psychologist(s) and service extender(s) must include:(3-28-23)

i.The parties to the agreement and authorized scope of practice for each service extender; (3-28-23)

ii.The direct supervision methods including regular supervisory sessions and chart review; and

iii.The procedures for emergency consultation, and if necessary, any patient monitoring parameters.

iv.Documentation. The licensed psychologist will maintain documentation of the supervision agreements for not less than three (3) years for each service extender and submit to the Board upon request.

IDAPA 24.12.01.201 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.12.01.400 Fees

All fees are non-refundable. The examination or reexamination fee are in addition to the application fee and must accompany the application.

FEE TYPE

AMOUNT

RENEWAL

Application for Licensure by Exam$150 Inactive License Renewal$125 Endorsement Application $250 Senior Psychologist$250 Annual Licensure Renewal $250 Prescribing Psychologist$250$250 Service Extender$100$100 Reinstatement Penalty-Current Year$35 Administrative Fee$25

IDAPA 24.12.01.401 (Reserved)

Duplicate License Fee$10 Certification Fee$10 PSYPACT Participation Fee$10 FEE TYPE AMOUNT RENEWAL

24.18.01 Rules of the Real Estate Appraiser Board

IDAPA 24.18.01.000 Legal Authority

These rules are adopted under Sections 54-4106, 67-2604 , 67-2614, 67-9409, and 67-9406 Idaho Code.(7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.18.01.001 Scope

These rules govern the practice of real estate appraisal in Id

aho.(7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.18.01.002 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.18.01.003 Incorporation by Reference

The current and updated document titled “Uniform Standard s of Professional Appraisal Practice (USPAP),” 2024 Edition, excluding standards 7, 8, 9, and 10, published by the Appraisal Foundation and effective January 1, 2024, is herein adopted and incorporated by reference and is available on the Appraisal Foundation website: https:// www.appraisalfoundation.org/.(7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.18.01.004 Definitions

01.Accredited.

Accredited by the Commission on Colleges, a regional or national accreditation association, or by an accrediting agency that is recognized by the U.S. Secretary of Education.(7-1-24)

02.Appraiser Qualifications Board. Appraiser Qualifications Board (AQB) of the Appraisal Foundation establishes the qualifications criteria for licensing, certification and recertification of appraisers. (7-1-24)

03.Appraisal Standards Board. The Appraisal Standards Board of the Appraisal Foundation develops, publishes, interprets and amends the Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice (USPAP) on behalf of appraisers and users of appraisal services.(7-1-24)

04.Classroom Hour. A classroom hour is defined as sixty (60) minutes with at least fifty (50) minutes of instruction.(7-1-24)

05.Field Real Estate Appraisal Experience. Personal inspections of real property, assembly and analysis of relevant facts, and by the use of reason and the exercise of judgment, formation of objective opinions as to the market or other value of such properties or interests therein and preparation of written appraisal reports or other memoranda showing data, reasoning, and conclusion. Professional responsibility for the valuation function is essential.(7-1-24)

06.Practical Applications of Real Estate Appraisal (PAREA). An AQB-approved training programs which provide another pathway for applicants to fulfill their experience requirements through practical experience in a virtual environment combining appraisal theory and methodology in real-world simulations. This experience can be provided through a wide range of online and virtual reality technologies.(7-1-24)

07.Real Estate. In addition to the previous definition in Section 54-4104(12), Idaho Code, will also mean an identified parcel or tract of land, including improvements, if any.(7-1-24)

08.Real Property. In addition to the previous definition in Section 54-4104(12), Idaho Code, will also mean one or more defined interests, benefits, or rights inherent in the ownership of real estate.(7-1-24)

09.Residential Unit. Real estate with a current highest and best use of a residential nature. A residential unit includes a kitchen and a bathroom.(7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.18.01.005 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.18.01.100 Licensure

All applicants for licensure m ust comply with the following requirements:(7-1-24)

01.Education. Classroom hours will be credited only for the Required Core Curriculum as outlined by the AQB.(7-1-24)

a.Credit toward the classroom hour requirement may only be granted where: (7-1-24)

i.The length of the educational offering is at least fifteen (15) hours, and the individual successfully completes a closed-book examination, or; (7-1-24)

ii.A Trainee Appraiser successfully completes a course which meets the AQB content requirements of the Valuation Bias and Fair Housing Laws and Regulations Outline.(7-1-24)

iii.Distance education courses intended for use as qualifying education must include a written, proctored closed-book final examination - proctored by an official approved by the college or university or by the sponsoring organization. Biometric proctoring is acceptable. The testing must be in compliance with the examination requirements of this section.(7-1-24)

b.Credit for the classroom hour requirement may be obtained: from Colleges or Universities;

Community or Junior Colleges, the Appraisal Foundation or its boards; State or Federal Agencies or commissions; or other providers approved by the Board.(7-1-24)

c.Only those courses completed preceding the date of application will be accepted for meeting educational requirements.(7-1-24)

d.Course credits that are obtained from the course provider by challenge examination without attending the course will not be accepted.(7-1-24)

e.Credit toward education requirements may be obtained through completion of a degree in Real Estate from an accredited degree-granting college or university approved by the Association to Advance Collegiate Schools of Business, or a regional or national accreditation agency recognized by the US Secretary of Education whose curriculum has been reviewed and approved by the AQB.(7-1-24)

f.Applicants with a college degree from a foreign country may have their education evaluated for equivalency by one (1) of the following:(7-1-24)

i.An accredited, degree-granting domestic college or university;(7-1-24)

ii.The American Association of Collegiate Registrars and Admissions Officers (AACRAO); (7-1-24)

iii.A foreign degree credential evaluation services company that is a member of the National Association of Credential Evaluation Services (NACES); or(7-1-24)

iv.A foreign degree credential evaluation service company that provides equivalency evaluation.

02.Experience.(7-1-24)

a.The work product claimed must be in conformity with USPAP. All appraisal experience must be obtained as a registered trainee, licensed or certified appraiser, or participant in an AQB approved PAREA program.

For Registered Trainees, only experience gained during the five (5) years immediately preceding application will be considered. Each applicant must verify completion of the required experience on a Board approved form. An appraisal log that contains the following must be submitted: (7-1-24)

i.Type of property;(7-1-24)

ii.Address of the property;(7-1-24)

iii.Report date;(7-1-24)

iv.Description of work performed by the trainee/applicant and scope of the review and supervision of the Supervisory Appraiser;(7-1-24)

v.Number of work hours by the trainee/applicant on the assignment;(7-1-24)

vi.Signature and certification number of the Supervisory Appraiser. (7-1-24)

b.Ad valorem tax appraisers must demonstrate the use of techniques to value properties similar to those used by appraisers and effectively use the process as defined in Subsection 004.05, Field Real Estate Appraisal Experience.(7-1-24)

c.PAREA programs approved by the AQB may serve as an alternative pathway to the experience requirements, subject to the following rules:(7-1-24)

i.Applicants may not receive partial credit for PAREA training; (7-1-24)

ii. Applicants may not receive a certificate of completion until all required components of PAREA training have been successfully completed and approved by a program mentor;(7-1-24)

iii.Certificates of completion must be signed by an individual from the training entity qualified to verify an applicant's successful completion and;(7-1-24)

iv.Certificates of completion must not contain an expiration date or other constraints that either limit or restrict the applicant's ability to receive appropriate credit.(7-1-24)

03.Examination. A passing grade on an examination approved by the Board pursuant to the guidelines of the AQB.(7-1-24)

04.Registered Real Estate Appraiser Trainee.(7-1-24)

a.Qualifications. An applicant must have completed seventy-five (75) hours of qualifying education as specified in the Required Core Curriculum within the last five (5) years, consisting of not less than thirty (30) hours of Basic Appraisal Principles, including: fifteen (15) hour National USPAP course or AQB approved equivalent. (7-1-24)

b.Appraisers holding a Licensed Residential Real Property Appraiser credential satisfy the educational requirements for the Trainee Appraiser credential.(7-1-24)

i.Each trainee applicant shall pass the end of course examinations in each of the prerequisite courses in order to earn credit.(7-1-24)

ii.Prior to registration as an Appraiser Trainee, each applicant must complete a trainee appraiser course that complies with the requirements established by the AQB.(7-1-24)

iii.An Appraiser Trainee shall not be involved in the appraisal of any property that exceeds the scope of practice of the Supervisory Appraiser, and is subject to USPAP.(7-1-24)

iv.Each Appraiser Trainee is permitted to have more than one (1) Supervisory Appraiser. An appraisal log shall be maintained jointly.(7-1-24)

c.Prior to the second and subsequent renewals, an appraiser trainee shall be required to obtain the equivalent of twenty-eight (28) classroom hours of instruction in approved courses or seminars. Once every twentyfour (24) months, registered appraiser trainees will be required to attend an approved seven-hour USPAP Continuing Education Course or the equivalent. The course must cover the most recent USPAP edition.(7-1-24)

i.If the licensee completes two (2) or more courses having substantially the same content during any one (1) continuing education cycle, the licensee only will receive continuing education credit for one (1) of the courses.( 7-1-24)

ii.Continuing education credit may be granted for participation in appraisal educational processes and programs, including: teaching, program development, authorship of textbooks, or similar activities that are determined to be equivalent to obtaining continuing education, up to one-half (1/2) of total credits for renewal period.

d.An individual may only be registered as an appraiser trainee for a maximum period of five (5) years, unless approved by the Board.(7-1-24)

05.Supervisory Appraiser.(7-1-24)

a. Qualifications. Hold a license in good standing with no disciplinary history in any jurisdiction that affected the Supervisory Appraiser's eligibility to engage in appraisal practice for at least three (3) years immediately prior to providing supervision; and;(7-1-24)

i.Completion of a course that complies with requirements established by the AQB focused on the responsibilities of a Supervisory Appraiser.(7-1-24)

ii.Not supervise more than three (3) Appraiser Trainees at one time; (7-1-24)

iii.Be responsible for the training and direct supervision of the Appraiser Trainee; and(7-1-24)

iv.Accept responsibility for all Trainee Appraiser appraisal reports by signing and certifying that the report is in compliance with USPAP; and(7-1-24)

v.Review and sign all appraiser trainee appraisal report(s); and(7-1-24)

vi.Personally inspect each appraised property with the appraiser trainee until the Supervisory Appraiser determines the Appraiser Trainee is competent in accordance with the Competency Rule of USPAP for the property type.(7-1-24)

b.An accurate, current and complete appraisal experience log shall be maintained by the Supervisory Appraiser and the Appraiser Trainee.(7-1-24)

c.A Supervisory Appraiser may not continue to supervise if:(7-1-24)

i.The appraiser ceases to meet supervisor requirements; or has(7-1-24)

ii.Discipline that affects the Supervisory Appraiser's ability to engage in appraisal practice. (7-1-24)

06.Licensed Residential Real Estate Appraiser. Applies to the appraisal of residential real property consisting of one (1) to four (4) non-complex residential units having a transaction value less than one million dollars ($1,000,000) and complex one (1) to four (4) residential units having a transaction value less than four hundred thousand dollars ($400,000). Requirements:(7-1-24)

a.Education. An applicant may either complete one hundred and fifty (150) qualified class hours as specified in the Required Core Curriculum, including the 15-Hour National USPAP course or, register as an Appraiser Trainee and complete seventy-five (75) classroom hours in: Residential Market Analysis and Highest and Best Use –fifteen (15) hours; Residential Appraiser Site Valuation and Cost Approach –fifteen (15) hours; Residential Sales Comparison and Income Approaches –thirty (30) hours; and Residential Report Writing and Case Studies – fifteen (15) hours.(7-1-24)

b.Experience. Either:(7-1-24)

i.One thousand (1,000) hours of experience in no less than six (6) months; or(7-1-24)

ii.Successful completion of a Licensed Residential or Certified Residential PAREA program in accordance with Subsections 100.02.a. and c. of this rule.(7-1-24)

c.Examination. Successful completion of the AQB-approved Licensed Residential or the successful completion of the Certified Residential or Certified General examination.(7-1-24)

07.State Certified Residential Real Estate Appraiser. Applies to the appraisal of residential properties of four (4) or less units without regard to value or complexity. Requirements:(7-1-24)

a.Education.(7-1-24)

i.Bachelor’s degree in any field of study from an accredited degree-granting college or university, or meet one of the following options:(7-1-24)

ii.Associate’s degree in a field of study related to business administration, accounting, finance, economics or real estate; or(7-1-24)

iii.Completion of thirty (30) semester hours of college-level courses that cover each of the following specific topic areas and hours: English composition (three (3) semester hours), microeconomics (three (3) semester hours), macroeconomics (three (3) semester hours), finance (three (3) semester hours), algebra, geometry or higher mathematics (three (3) semester hours), statistics (three (3) semester hours), computer science (three (3) semester hours), business or real estate law (three (3) semester hours), and two (2) elective courses in any of the topics listed above or in accounting, geography, agricultural economics, business management, or real estate (three (3) semester hours each); or(7-1-24)

iv.Completion of at least thirty (30) semester hours of College Level Examination Program® (CLEP®) examinations from each of the following subject matter areas: college algebra (three (3) semester hours), college composition (six (6) semester hours), college composition modular (three (3) semester hours), college mathematics (six (6) semester hours), principles of macroeconomics (three (3) semester hours), principles of microeconomics (three (3) semester hours), introductory business law (three (3) semester hours), and information systems (three (3) semester hours), or(7-1-24)

v.Any combination of the above.(7-1-24)

b.As an alternative to the requirements above, individuals who have held a Licensed Residential credential for a minimum of five (5) years may qualify if they do not have a record of any disciplinary action affecting their legal eligibility to engage in appraisal practice within the five (5) years immediately preceding the date of application.(7-1-24)

c.Registration as an Appraiser Trainee and completion of the education required for licensure as a Licensed Residential Real Estate Appraiser, or hold a current license as a Licensed Residential Real Estate Appraiser; and;(7-1-24)

d.Document the successful completion of not less than fifty (50) classroom hours of courses in subjects related to real estate appraisal as follows:(7-1-24)

i.Statistics, Modeling and Finance: not less than fifteen (15) hours; (7-1-24)

ii.Advanced Residential Applications and Case Studies: not less than fifteen (15) hours; and (7-1-24)

iii.Appraisal Subject Matter Electives: not less than twenty (20) hours.(7-1-24) e.

Experience. Either:(7-1-24) i.

One thousand five hundred (1,500) hours of appraisal experience in no less than twelve (12) months, with at least one thousand two hundred (1,200) hours of the experience from residential field appraisal experience; or(7-1-24)

ii.Successful completion of a Certified Residential PAREA program in accordance with Subsections 100.02.a. and c. of this rule; or(7-1-24)

iii.Successful completion of a Licensed Residential PAREA program in accordance with Subsections 100.02.a. and c. of this rule and an additional five hundred (500) hours of appraisal experience.(7-1-24)

f.Examination. Successful completion of the Certified Residential Appraiser examination approved by the Board pursuant to the guidelines of the AQB.(7-1-24)

08.State Certified General Real Estate Appraiser. Applicants must meet the following:(7-1-24)

a.Education (7-1-24)

i. Bachelor’s degree or higher from an accredited degree-granting college or university; and (7-1-24)

ii. Document registration as an Appraiser Trainee and successful completion of not less than two hundred twenty-five (225) classroom hours of courses in:(7-1-24)

iii.Statistics, Modeling and Finance: not less than fifteen (15) hours, specifically including Statistics;

Valuation Models (AVM’s and Mass Appraisal), and Real Estate Finance;(7-1-24)

iv.General Appraiser Market Analysis and Highest and Best Use: not less than thirty (30) hours;

v. General Appraiser Sales Comparison Approach: not less than thirty (30) hours, including Value Principles, Procedures, Identification and Measurement of Adjustments, Reconciliation, and Case Studies; (7-1-24)

vi. General Appraiser Site Valuation and Cost Approach: not less than thirty (30) hours;(7-1-24)

vii.General Appraiser Income Approach: not less than sixty (60) hours, specifically including Overview, Compound Interest, Lease Analysis, Income Analysis, Vacancy and Collection Law, Estimating Operating Expenses and Reserves, Reconstructed Income and Expense Statement, Stabilized Net Operating Income Estimate, Direct Capitalization, Discounted Cash Flow, Yield Capitalization, Partial Interest, and Case Studies;(7-1-24) viii.General Appraiser Report Writing and Case Studies: not less than thirty (30) hours, specifically including Writing and Reasoning Skills, Common Writing Problems, Report Options and USPAP Compliance, and Case Studies; and(7-1-24)

ix.Appraisal Subject Matter Electives: not less than thirty (30) hours; or(7-1-24)

b.Completion of not less than one hundred fifty (150) classroom hours of courses in:(7-1-24)

i.Statistics, Modeling and Finance: not less than fifteen (15) hours, specifically including Statistics;

Valuation Models (AVM’s and Mass Appraisal); and Real Estate Finance; and(7-1-24)

ii.General Appraiser Market Analysis and Highest and Best Use: not less than fifteen (15) hours; and

iii.General Appraiser Sales Comparison Approach: not less than fifteen (15) hours, specifically including Value Principles, Procedures, Identification and Measurement of Adjustments, Reconciliation, and Case Studies; and(7-1-24)

iv.General Appraiser Site Valuation and Cost Approach: not less than fifteen (15) hours; and (7-1-24)

v.General Appraiser Income Approach: not less than forty-five (45) hours, specifically including Overview, Compound Interest, Lease Analysis, Income Analysis, Vacancy and Collection Law, Estimating Operating Expenses and Reserves, Reconstructed Income and Expense Statement, Stabilized Net Operating Income Estimate, Direct Capitalization, Discounted Cash Flow, Yield Capitalization, Partial Interest, and Case Studies; and(7-1-24)

vi.General Appraiser Report Writing and Case Studies: not less than fifteen (15) hours, specifically including Writing and Reasoning Skills, Common Writing Problems, Report Options and USPAP Compliance, and Case Studies; and(7-1-24)

vii.Appraisal Subject Matter Electives: not less than thirty (30) hours, or completion of one hundred five (105) classroom hours of courses in: General Appraiser Market Analysis and Highest and Best Use: not less than fifteen (15) hours; and General Appraiser Sales Comparison Approach: not less than fifteen (15) hours, including Value Principles, Procedures, Identification and Measurement of Adjustments, Reconciliation, and Case Studies; and General Appraiser Site Valuation and Cost Approach: not less than fifteen (15) hours; and General Appraiser Income Approach: not less than forty-five (45) hours, including Overview, Compound Interest, Lease Analysis, Income Analysis, Vacancy and Collection Law, Estimating Operating Expenses and Reserves, Reconstructed Income and Expense Statement, Stabilized Net Operating Income Estimate, Direct Capitalization, Discounted Cash Flow, Yield Capitalization, Partial Interest, and Case Studies; and General Appraiser Report Writing and Case Studies: not less than fifteen (15) hours, including Writing and Reasoning Skills, Common Writing Problems, Report Options and USPAP Compliance, and Case Studies.(7-1-24)

c.Experience. Either:(7-1-24)

i.Three thousand (3,000) hours of appraisal experience in no less than eighteen (18) months. One thousand five hundred (1,500) hours of the experience must be non-residential appraisal experience. The balance of one thousand five hundred (1,500) hours may be solely residential experience or can include up to five hundred (500) hours of non-field experience; or(7-1-24)

ii.Successful completion of a Certified Residential PAREA program in accordance with Subsections 100.02.a. and c. of this rule and an additional two thousand (2,000) hours of non-residential appraisal experience.

d.Examination. Successful completion of the Certified General Appraiser examination approved by the Board pursuant to the guidelines of the AQB.(7-1-24)

09.Continuing Education. All certified/licensed appraisers must comply with the following requirements:(7-1-24)

a.Twenty-eight (28) classroom hours of instruction in courses or seminars during the twenty-four (24) months prior to renewal. If the licensee completes two (2) or more courses having substantially the same content during anyone (1) continuing education cycle, the licensee only will receive continuing education credit for one (1) of the courses.(7-1-24)

i.If the educational offering is taken in a virtual classroom, the course must include successful completion of prescribed course mechanisms required to demonstrate knowledge of the subject matter.(7-1-24)

ii. Credit toward the classroom hour requirement may be granted only where the length of the educational offering is at least two (2) hours.(7-1-24)

iii.Credit for the classroom hour requirement may be obtained by accredited courses which have been approved by the AQB and by courses approved by Real Estate Appraiser Boards of states with reciprocity with Idaho.

All other courses must have approval of the Board. Courses shall be approved for a period of four (4) years. (7-1-24)

iv. Every twenty-four (24) months, Idaho State Certified/Licensed Real Estate Appraisers and registered trainees will be requ ired to attend an approved seven (7) hour USPAP Continuing Education course covering the most recent edition, or the AQB approved equivalent.(7-1-24)

v. Continuing education credit may be granted for participation, other than as a student, in appraisal educational processes and programs. Continuing education shall not exceed one-half (1/2) of the total continuing education credits required for a renewal period.(7-1-24)

vi. Credit may be awarded for a single state appraisal regulatory meeting per continuing education cycle. The must be open to the public and must be a minimum of two (2) hours in length. The total credit cannot exceed seven (7) hours.(7-1-24)

vii.Continuing education will be granted for successful completion of a course which meets the AQB content requirements of the Valuation Bias and Fair Housing Laws and Regulations Outline.(7-1-24) viii.For each year in which a license is inactive, fourteen (14) hours of continuing education must be completed prior to reinstatement. For a license inactive for less than two (2) years, the hours must include the most recent seven (7) hour USPAP Continuing Education course. For a license inactive more than two (2) years but less than five (5) years, the hours must include the most recent fifteen (15) hour National USPAP course.(7-1-24)

10.Temporary License. An individual may receive a permit to temporarily practice on a per appraisal assignment basis for not more than six (6) months. The applicant must be listed on the National Registry, maintained by the Appraisal Subcommittee, as current and in good standing and comply with Section 54-4115(3), Idaho Code.

IDAPA 24.18.01.101 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.18.01.300 Discipline

The Uniform Standards of Professional Practice, excluding stand ards 7, 8, 9, and 10, are hereby adopted as the rules of conduct and code of ethics for all Real Estate Appraisers.(7-1-24)

01.Appraisals in Litigation. Licensed or certified appraisers providing opinions of value shall comply with USPAP Standard 1 including maintaining a work file in support of the opinion of value in litigation.

IDAPA 24.18.01.301 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.18.01.400 Fees

IDAPA 24.18.01.401 (Reserved)

TYPEAMOUNT

RENEWAL

(PER YEAR)

Application $200 License$100 $275 AMC Registration$1,000$900 Application for Reciprocity$200 Original license via Reciprocity$100 Temporary Permit$75 Trainee Registration$50 Continuing Education Provider Application $100

24.14.01 Rules of the State Board of Social Work Examiners

IDAPA 24.14.01.000 Legal Authority

These rules are promulgated pursuant to Section 54-3204, Idaho Code.(7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.14.01.001 Scope

These rules govern the practice of so cial work in Idaho.(7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.14.01.002 Definitions

01.Psychotherapy.

Treatment methods using a specialized, formal interaction between a Clinical Social Worker and an individual, couple, family, or group in which a therapeutic relationship is established, maintained, or sustained to understand unconscious processes, intrapersonal, interpersonal, and psychosocial dynamics, and the diagnosis and treatment of mental, emotional, and behavioral disorders, conditions, and addictions.

02.Relative. For the purposes of these rules, a relative is a person’s spouse, parent, child, or sibling, regardless of whether the relation is by blood, through marriage, or by law.(7-1-24)

03.Supervisor. A clinical social worker who has been licensed for at least two (2) years, has not been disciplined for acts relating to client care within the past five (5) years, and has completed fifteen (15) hours of clinical supervisor training.(7-1-24)

04.Supportive Counseling. A method used to assist individuals, couples, families, and groups in learning how to solve problems and make decisions about personal, health, social, educational, vocational, financial, and other interpersonal concerns. This help in the maintenance of adaptive patterns is done in the interview through reassurance, advice giving, information providing, and pointing out client strengths and resources. Supportive counseling does not seek to reach unconscious material.(7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.14.01.003 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.14.01.100 Licensure

01.Approved College, University, or Program.

An educational institution accredited by the US Department of Education, a regionally accredited institution of higher education, or as otherwise approved by the Board, and a social work program accredited by the Council on Social Work Education (CSWE) or as otherwise approved by the Board.(7-1-24)

02.Approved Examination. The applicable Association of Social Work Boards (ASWB) licensing examination for the license type, passed within the previous seven (7) years.(7-1-24)

03.Approved Postgraduate Supervised Clinical Experience for Clinical Social Worker License.

Three thousand (3,000) hours of supervised clinical social work experience must be completed over the course of no fewer than two (2) years and no more than five (5) years, including 1.) one thousand seven hundred fifty (1,750) hours of direct client contact involving treatment in clinical social work as defined and one thousand two hundred fifty (1,250) hours of assessment, diagnosis, and other clinical social work, including indirect hours that may occur outside the presence of a client; and 2.) at least one hundred (100) hours of in-person or remote live electronic connection face-to-face contact with the supervisor, and with no more than fifty (50) hours of the face-to-face contact hours involving group supervision. At least fifty percent (50%) of the supervision must be provided by a licensed clinical social worker, with the remaining supervision provided by a licensed clinical psychologist, psychiatrist, clinical professional counselor, or marriage and family therapist. The supervisor must be licensed in the state in which the supervised experience was obtained. Supervision for clinical work must continue until clinical licensure is issued. The supervised clinical experience must comply with all criteria identified on the Clinical Social Work Supervision Report Forms. Supervision must be interactive and consultative teaching directed toward the enhancement and improvement of the individual’s social work values, knowledge, methods, and techniques. Hours spent on case management will not count toward clinical social work hours.(7-1-24)

a.Any licensee who has reached the maximum of five (5) years of experience and who is awaiting passing test results may not continue to practice under supervision and may only practice at the level of licensure that they currently hold.(7-1-24)

b.If the supervised experience was completed more than five (5) years prior to application for licensure the Board will evaluate the applicant’s competency, including evaluating completion of continuing education, supervised practice, examination, and/or practice in another jurisdiction.(7-1-24)

04.Endorsement. In addition to the requirement in Section 54-3208, Idaho Code, the applicant must have successfully passed the approved examination for the license type or an equivalent, unless such an examination was not required at the time of the applicant’s original licensure.(7-1-24)

05.Continuing Education. To renew or return to active status, licensees must complete during the preceding twenty-four (24) months, and retain proof of completion for four (4) years, of thirty (30) hours of continuing education, two (2) hours of which must be in professional ethics and the remainder germane to the practice of social work. CE hours may be obtained for preparing and providing germane continuing education or training to other professionals and for individual research projects. Courses that are part of the curriculum of an accredited university, college or other educational institution are allotted CE credit at the rate of fifteen (15) CE hours for each semester hour or ten (10) CE hours for each quarter hour of school credit awarded.(7-1-24)

06.Inactive Status. A licensee requesting inactive status must submit the required form and pay the inactive license fee. To return to active status a licensee must meet the continuing education requirements and submit a fee equivalent to the difference between the inactive and active renewal fee. After five (5) years of going inactive, a licensee must demonstrate competency to resume practice, as required by the Board. The requirements may include, but are not limited to, education, supervised practice, examination, and/or practice in another jurisdiction.(7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.14.01.101 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.14.01.200 Practice Standards

01.Baccalaureate Social Work.

The application of social work theory, knowledge, methods, and ethics to restore or enhance social or psychosocial functioning of individuals, couples, families, groups, organizations, and communities. Baccalaureate social work is a generalist practice that includes assessment, planning, intervention, evaluation, case management, information and referral, supportive counseling, supervision, and consultation with clients. Baccalaureate social work also includes advocacy, education, community organization, and the development, implementation and administration of policies, programs, and activities. Bachelor level social workers are prohibited from performing psychotherapy.(7-1-24)

02.Master’s Social Work. The application of social work theory, knowledge, methods and ethics, and the professional use of self to restore or enhance social, psychosocial or biopsychosocial functioning of individuals, couples, families, groups, organizations, and communities. Master’s social work requires the application of specialized knowledge and advanced practice skills in the areas of assessment, treatment planning, implementation and evaluation, case management, information and referral, supportive counseling, supervision and consultation with clients, advocacy, teaching, research, community organization, and the development, implementation, and administration of policies, programs, and activities. Master level social workers who do not hold clinical licensure may provide psychotherapy only under the supervision of a licensed clinical social worker, psychologist, or psychiatrist.(7-1-24)

03.Clinical Social Work. The practice of clinical social work is a specialty within the practice of master’s social work and requires the application of specialized clinical knowledge and advanced clinical skills in the areas of assessment, diagnosis, and treatment of mental, emotional, and behavioral disorders, conditions and addictions. Clinical social work is based on knowledge and theory of psychosocial development, behavior, psychopathology, motivation, interpersonal relationships, environmental stress, social systems, and cultural diversity, with particular attention to person-in-environment. It shares with all social work practice the goal of enhancement and maintenance of psychosocial functioning, including psychotherapy, of individuals, couples, families, and small groups.(7-1-24)

04.Code of Professional Conduct.(7-1-24)

a.A social worker must operate within their education, training, and experience and meet the applicable standard of care provided by other qualified social workers in the same or similar community and under the same or similar circumstances. A standard of care violation may exist where a social worker engages in professional conduct that a reasonable social worker would not under the same or similar circumstances and in the same or similar community, or where the social worker knew or should have known the professional conduct would cause unreasonable harm to the client.(7-1-24)

b.When a social worker leaves an agency or practice, clients must be provided prompt notice and the opportunity to remain with the agency or practice, or to continue care with the social worker.(7-1-24)

c.A social worker will not divide a fee or accept or give anything of value for receiving or making a referral.(7-1-24)

d.A social worker will provide clients with accurate and complete information regarding the extent and nature of the services available to them.(7-1-24)

e.While a social worker may terminate, transfer, or refer a client when the services are no longer needed or in the client’s best interests, prompt notification should be provided to the client. The social worker must attempt to make appropriate referrals as indicated by the client’s need or request for services.(7-1-24)

f.A social worker may not exploit, sexually or otherwise, their professional relationships with clients, supervisees, former clients, supervisors, students, employees, or research participants.(7-1-24)

g.A social worker may not engage in romantic or sexual acts with a client during and for ten (10) years following termination of a social worker’s services. A social worker must not provide social work services to a person with whom they have had a romantic or sexual relationship.(7-1-24)

h.A social worker may not engage in romantic or sexual acts with a relative of a client, or a person known to the social worker to have a close personal relationship with the client when it has the potential to be harmful to the client, during and for three (3) years following termination of a social worker’s services.(7-1-24)

i.In providing services, a social worker may not discriminate on the basis of age, gender, race, color, religion, national origin, mental status, physical disability, social or economic status, political belief, or any other preference or personal characteristic, condition or status.(3-28-23)

j.A social worker must obtain the client’s or legal guardian’s informed written consent when a client is to be involved in a research project. A social worker must explain the research, including any implications.

k.A social worker must obtain informed consent of clients before taping, recording, or permitting third party observation.(7-1-24)

l.A social worker must safeguard information given by clients in providing client services. (7-1-24)

m.A social worker, regardless of personal or professional relationship, must report a licensee’s violation of the Board’s law or rules.(7-1-24)

n.A social worker may not disseminate or cause the dissemination of any fraudulent or deceptive advertisement.( 7-1-24)

o.A social worker may not engage in dual or multiple relationships with clients or with relatives of a client, or with individuals with whom clients have close personal relationships known to the social worker, in which a reasonable and prudent social worker would conclude after appropriate assessment that there is a risk of harm or exploitation to the client or of impairing a social worker’s objectivity or professional judgment. A dual or multiple relationship is a relationship that occurs when a social worker interacts with a client in more than one capacity, whether it be before, during, or after the professional, social, or business relationship. Dual or multiple relationships can occur simultaneously or consecutively. After an appropriate assessment determines that the relationship does not create a risk of harm or exploitation to the client and will not impair a social worker’s objectivity or professional judgment, the social worker must document in case records, prior to the interaction, when feasible, the rationale for such a relationship, and the potential benefits.(7-1-24)

p.A social worker may not purchase goods or services from a client or otherwise engage in a business relationship with a client except when 1) the client is providing necessary goods or services to the general public; 2) a reasonable and prudent social worker would determine that it is not practical or reasonable to obtain the goods or services from another provider; and 3) a reasonable and prudent social worker would conclude after appropriate and documented assessment that engaging in the business relationship will not be detrimental to the client or the professional relationship.(7-1-24)

05.Competency.(7-1-24)

a.A social worker must only represent themself and practice in a competent manner within the boundaries of their education, training, licensure level, supervision, and other relevant professional experience.

b.A social worker must only practice within new areas or use new intervention techniques or approaches after engaging in appropriate study, training, consultation, or supervision.(7-1-24)

c.A social worker must exercise careful judgment when generally recognized standards do not exist with respect to an emerging area of practice and take responsible steps to ensure the competence of his practice.

IDAPA 24.14.01.201 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.14.01.400 Fees

All fees are non-refundable.

IDAPA 24.14.01.401 (Reserved)

FEE TYPE

AMOUNT

RENEWAL

INACTIVE

Application$70 Endorsement License$90 Licensed Clinical Social Worker $70$90$45 Licensed Masters Social Worker $70$80$40 Licensed Social Worker$70$80$40 Reinstatement In accordance with Section 67-2614, Idaho Code

24.15.01 Rules of the Idaho Licensing Board of Professional Counselors

IDAPA 24.15.01.000 Legal Authority

These rules are promulgated pursuant to Sections 54-3402 , 54-3404, 54-3405, 54-3405A, 54-3405B, 54-3405C, 54- 3406, and 54-3410A, Idaho Code.(7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.15.01.001 Scope

These rules govern the practices of professi onal counseling and of marriage and family therapy in Idaho.(7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.15.01.002 Incorporation by Reference

01.ACA Code of Ethics.

The document titled “ACA Code of Ethics,” published by the American Counseling Association (ACA) is herein adopted and incorporated by reference and is available on the ACA website: https://www.counseling.org/docs/default-source/default-document-library/ethics/2014-aca-code-ofethics.pdf?sfvrsn=55ab73d0_1.(7-1-24)

02.AAMFT Code of Ethics. The document titled “AAMFT Code of Ethics,” published by the American Association for Marriage and Family Therapy (AAMFT) is herein adopted and incorporated by reference and is available on the AAMFT website: https://www.aamft.org/Legal_Ethics/Code_of_Ethics.aspx.(7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.15.01.003 Definitions

01.Supervisor.

A clinical professional counselor, marriage and family therapist, psychologist, clinical social worker, or psychiatrist, whose license is active, current, and in good standing and who, when applicable, is approved as a supervisor in the state where the supervisee is practicing.(7-1-24)

02.Individual Supervision. Individual Supervision is supervision that occurs with no more than two supervisees to one supervisor.(7-1-24)

03.Group Supervision. Group Supervision is supervision that occurs with three or more supervisees to at least one supervisor.(7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.15.01.004 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.15.01.100 Licensure

01.Professional Counselor.

a.Approved Graduate Program. A graduate program that is primarily counseling in nature and is accredited by the Council for Accreditation of Counseling and Related Educational Programs (CACREP) or substantially similar and approved by the Board.(7-1-24)

b.Required Examination. The National Counselor Examination prepared by the National Board of Certified Counselors (NBCC).(7-1-24)

c.Acceptable Supervised Experience. Four hundred (400) of the one thousand (1,000) hours must be direct client contact and the supervised experience must include a minimum of one (1) hour of individual supervision for every twenty (20) hours of direct client contact. A supervised graduate-level educational experience (i.e. practicum or internship) may be utilized to fulfill this requirement which can be provided by a counselor education faculty member or doctoral student at an accredited college or university, or a site supervisor approved by an accredited college or university.(7-1-24)

02.Clinical Professional Counselor.(7-1-24)

a.Approved Experience. One thousand (1,000) of the two thousand (2,000) direct client contact hours must be supervised by a licensed clinical professional counselor, with the remaining supervision provided by any supervisor as defined in these rules; and one (1) hour of clinical supervision for every thirty (30) hours of direct client contact, with at least half of the supervised hours involving individual, rather than group, supervision.(7-1-24)

b. Required Examination. The National Clinical Mental Health Counselor Examination (NCMHCE) prepared by the National Board of Certified Counselors (NBCC).(7-1-24)

03.Associate Marriage And Family Therapist.(7-1-24)

a. Approved Graduate Program. A graduate program in marriage and family therapy or a related field which is accredited by the Commission on Accreditation for Marriage and Family Therapy Education (COAMFTE) or the Council for Accreditation of Counseling and Related Educational Programs Marriage, Couple, and Family Counseling (CACREP-MCFC), or is substantially similar and approved by the Board.(7-1-24)

b.Required Practicum. The practicum must occur over a period of twelve (12) months or longer and require three hundred (300) hours of direct client contact, of which at least one hundred (100) hours must be with two or more individuals conjointly who share an ongoing relationship beyond that which occurs in the therapeutic experience itself. These hours may be completed as part of a practicum, registered intern supervised experience, or supervised experience in another jurisdiction.(7-1-24)

c.Required Examination. The National Marital and Family Therapy Examination as approved by the Association of Marital and Family Therapy Regulatory Boards (AMFTRB) or another recognized competency examination in marriage and family therapy that is approved by the Board.(7-1-24)

04.Marriage And Family Therapists.(7-1-24)

a. Approved Graduate Program. A graduate program in marriage and family therapy or a related field accredited by the Commission on Accreditation for Marriage and Family Therapy Education (COAMFTE) or substantially similar and otherwise approved by the Board.(7-1-24)

b.Required Practicum. See Rule 100.03.b.(7-1-24)

c.Required Postgraduate Supervised Experience. Two thousand (2,000) hours of direct client contact over a period of at least two (2) years which includes: (1) one thousand (1,000) direct client contact hours with two or more individuals conjointly who share an ongoing relationship beyond that which occurs in the therapeutic experience itself; and (2) two hundred (200) hours of supervision, of which one hundred (100) hours must be individual, rather than group, supervision. One hundred (100) hours must be supervised by a licensed marriage and family therapist, with the remaining one hundred (100) hours of supervision provided by a supervisor who has at least two (2) years of experience practicing marriage and family therapy.(7-1-24)

d.Required Examination. The National Marital and Family Therapy Examination as approved by the Association of Marital and Family Therapy Regulatory Boards (AMFTRB) or another recognized competency examination in marriage and family therapy that is approved by the Board.(7-1-24)

05.Foreign Educated Applicants. Applicants with a graduate degree from a country other than the United States may be required to submit a certification from a credential evaluation service that is a member of the National Association of Credential Evaluation Services (NACES). The service must certify that the graduate degree is equivalent to an approved graduate degree from the United States. All information submitted to the Board must be submitted with an English translation.(7-1-24)

06.Registered Post-G raduate Interns. A post-graduate intern registration is required to engage in the supervised practice of counseling or marriage and family therapy while completing supervised experience hours or while awaiting examination results. To register as an intern, the individual must: (1) have an approved graduate degree as defined in these Rules; and (2) designate a supervisor approved by the Board. An individual may not practice as an intern for more than four (4) years from the original date of registration, unless good cause is demonstrated to the board.(7-1-24)

07.Continuing Education. In each twenty-four (24) month period preceding the renewal of a license, all licensees must complete six (6) hours in ethics, three (3) hours of boundaries, and three (3) hours in suicide assessment or intervention. Additionally, licensees are required to comply with the continuing education and competence sections of the Codes of Ethics pertaining to their licensure.(7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.15.01.101 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.15.01.200 Practice Standards

01.Licensees. Licensees must comply with Board-ad opted Code of Ethics pertaining to their licensure.

02.Supervision.(7-1-24)

a.Registered interns obtaining supervised or postgraduate experience hours must be supervised by a Board-approved supervisor and must explicitly identify themselves as interns in documentation and advertising.

b.To become an approved supervisor, be licensed as a clinical professional counselor or licensed marriage and family therapist, document a minimum of fifteen (15) contact hours of relevant education in supervisor training, and have received no discipline in the five (5) years prior to the approval request, provided the Board may approve a supervisor with disciplinary action for failing to complete continuing education requirements. A supervisor must supervise in conformance with statute and the guidelines for supervisors set forth in the ACA or AAMFT Code of Ethics. A licensed professional counselor may be an approved supervisor until July 1, 2026.(7-1-24)

03.Informed Consent and Information Disclosure. The receipt of the disclosure must be documented in writing by the client and the licensee or intern, and such disclosure of information must include: the licensee’s name, license type, license number, business address and phone number; if the licensee is a supervisee, the name of any supervisor, contact information for the supervisor, including address and phone number, and a statement that the intern is practicing under the supervision of licensee; the purposes, goals, techniques, procedures, limitations, potential risks, and benefits of services; the extents and limits of confidentiality; the client’s rights to participate in treatment decisions, to seek a second opinion, to file a complaint without retaliation, and to refuse treatment; the fee structure, billing arrangements, and cancellation policy; a statement that the Board regulates the licensee’s and intern’s practices and providing the Board’s phone number and address; and a statement that sexual intimacy is never appropriate with a client and should be reported to the Board.(7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.15.01.201 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.15.01.400 Fees

IDAPA 24.15.01.401 (Reserved)

TYPEINITIAL FEEANNUAL RENEWAL FEE

Application$100 License$100$120 Intern Registration $25 Reinstatement Fee As provided in Section 67-2614, Idaho Code Examination and Reexamination $25 administrative fee plus amount charged by exam administrator

24.17.01 Rules of the State Board of Acupuncture

IDAPA 24.17.01.000 Legal Authority

Section 54-4705, Idaho Code.

(7-1-26)

IDAPA 24.17.01.001 Scope

These rules review and establish the minimum requirements for licensure/certification of acup uncturists.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.17.01.002 Definitions

01.Approved Acupuncture Program.

A formal full-time acupuncture educational program that has met the standards of the Accreditation Commission for Acupuncture and Oriental Medicine or an equivalent educational body. An acupuncture program may be established as having satisfied this requirement by obtaining:

a.Accreditation; or(3-28-23)

b.Candidacy for accreditation; or(3-28-23)

c.An equivalent evaluation performed by a private, state government, or foreign government agency recognized for that purpose by the NCCAOM (National Certification Commission for Acupuncture and Oriental Medicine) Eligibility Committee.(3-28-23)

02.Practitioner. A person to whom a license, certification, or acupuncture trainee has been issued pursuant to Title 54, Chapter 47, Idaho Code.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.17.01.003 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.17.01.100 Qualifications for Licensure or Certification

01.Requirements for Licensure.

Applicants for licensure must submit a complete application on a Board approved form, required fee, and official certified documentation of:(7-1-26)

a.Certification from NCCAOM or graduation from an approved full-time acupuncture program of at least one thousand seven hundred twenty-five (1,725) hours of entry-level acupuncture education which includes a minimum of one thousand (1000) hours of didactic course work and five hundred (500) clinical hours of practice; and

b.Successful completion of an acupuncture internship, or other equivalent experience as approved by the Board.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.17.01.101 Acupuncture Trainee Permit

The Board may issue an acupuncture trainee permit in accordance with Sect ion 54-4708, Idaho Code. The holder of an acupuncture trainee permit may practice only under the supervision of a person licensed or certified under this chapter who meets the requirements in Section 54-4708, Idaho Code. An applicant must submit documentation demonstrating current enrollment in an Approved Acupuncture Program and actively pursuing completion of the program; or satisfaction of the requirement for certification as set forth in Section 54-4707, Idaho Code.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.17.01.102 Request for Approval of Qualification

01.Course Review.

A person or entity may request approval of a course of study in acupuncture that will be offered to qualify applicants for a credential to practice acupuncture. The request must include a complete description of the hours required in Section 100, scope and extent of academic and other training and clinical experience offered through the course along with appropriate supporting documentation and course materials.

02.Individual Qualification. An applicant may request approval of his individual qualification for licensure or certification in acupuncture. The request must include a complete description of the number of hours, scope and extent of academic and other training and clinical experience the individual has received along with available supporting documentation.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.17.01.103 Reinstatement of License

The applicant must submit proof of having met the co ntinuing education required as follows:(3-28-23)

01.Expired for One Year or Less. For licenses or certificates expired for one (1) year or less, one (1) year of continuing education;(3-28-23)

02.Expired More than One Year. For licenses or certificates expired for more than one (1) year, two (2) years of continuing education.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.17.01.104 Inactive Status

A currently licensed or certified practitioner may request in writing to have their license placed on inactive status and pay the inactive status fee. Such request must be made prior to the expiration date of the license.(3-28-23)

01.Waiving Continuing Education Requirements – Inactive Status. All continuing education requirements will be waived for any year or portion thereof that a licensee maintains an inactive license.(3-28-23)

02.Return to Active Status.(3-28-23)

a.A licensee desiring to return to active status must complete the equivalent of one (1) year of continuing education for every year the license was inactive, up to a maximum of two (2) years of continuing education and submit a fee equivalent to the difference between the inactive fee and renewal fee for the year that the licensee returns to active status.(3-28-23)

b.For licenses inactive five (5) years or greater, the licensee shall complete forty-five (45) hours of continuing education and either provide proof that the licensee has actively engaged in the practice of acupuncture in another state or territory of the United States for at least three (3) of the immediately preceding five (5) years or provide proof that the licensee is competent to practice acupuncture in Idaho.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.17.01.105 Continuing Education Requirements

The content of a continuing education course must be german e to the practice of acupuncture as defined in Section 54-4702, Idaho Code. All practitioners are required to complete a minimum of thirty (30) hours of board approved continuing education within the preceding twenty-four (24) months.(3-28-23)

01.Credit for Teaching or Supervision. Licensees may earn up to ten (10) hours of continuing education credit by teaching Board-approved courses or supervising trainees. (7-1-26)

02.Board Approval. Approved continuing education courses are those courses, programs, and activities that are approved or provided by NCCAOM, accredited acupuncture and oriental medicine schools, or other courses that may be approved by the board. Other courses may be approved based upon documentation submitted by the licensee or course provider. All requests for approval or pre-approval of educational programs are made in writing and include the name of the instructor or instructors, the course agenda, and the number of credit hours requested.

IDAPA 24.17.01.106 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.17.01.200 Records

A practitioner must keep accurate records of each patient the practitioner treats. The records must at a minimum include the name of the patient and the indication and nature of treatment given.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.17.01.201 Supervision Plan

A licensed or certified acupuncturist providing supervision to trai nees shall be responsible for the services provided by such individuals. Failure to adequately supervise such an individual may subject the supervisor to discipline.

01.Supervision. For the first one hundred (100) hours of practice, the supervisor must provide supervision in the treatment room when the trainee is providing treatment. The supervisor will meet with the trainee in person at least monthly to review case studies and demonstrate acupuncture point location and needle placement technique. Before providing treatment without in-person supervision, the trainee must successfully complete a Blood Borne Pathogen course and comprehensive examination that incorporates clean needle techniques and Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) procedures and requirements.(7-1-26)

02.Documentation. Supervision documentation will include: charting, diagnosis, and treatment plans, the completion of twenty-five (25) case studies, and verification of the hours of supervision and case studies. The supervisor and trainee will maintain records of supervision, including summary of case studies in progress or completed by the trainee under supervision, treatment plan for each patient, and the dates of supervision.(7-1-26)

IDAPA 24.17.01.202 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.17.01.300 Discipline

01.Civil Fine.

The Board may impose a civil fine not to exceed one thousand dollars ($1,000) upon a licensee for each violation of Section 54-4711, Idaho Code.(3-28-23)

2. Advertising. A practitioner who disseminates or causes the dissemination of any advertisement or performs advertising including offers, statements, or other representations, which is in any way fraudulent, false, deceptive, or misleading, may be subject to discipline by the Board.(3-28-23)

03.Unlicensed or Unsupervised Practice. Knowingly aided or abetted any person to practice acupuncture who is not authorized to practice acupuncture as provided in this chapter or failed to adequately supervise a trainee or auxiliary staff who have contact with patients which creates or results in an unreasonable risk of harm to the patient.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.17.01.301 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.17.01.400 Fees

All fees are non-refundable. Annual fees may be aggregated for biennial licensure.

(7-1-26)

IDAPA 24.17.01.401 (Reserved)

License/Certification/Permit/Certification Initial Fee (Not to Exceed)

Annual Renewal Fee (Not to Exceed)

Application $50n/a License$300$200 Certification$300$200 Acupuncture Trainee$150$100 Inactive License or Certificationn/a$50 Reinstatement$250n/a

24.24.01 Rules of the Genetic Counselors Licensing Board

IDAPA 24.24.01.000 Legal Authority

These rules are promulgated pursuant to Title 54, Chapter 56, Idaho Code.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.24.01.001 Scope

These rules regulate the profession of gen etic counseling in the interest of the public health, safety, and welfare.

(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.24.01.002 Incorporation by Reference

The document titled “National Society of Genetic Counselors Code o f Ethics,” dated April 2017, is incorporated by reference into this rule and is available at the Board’s office and on the Board’s web site: https://dopl.idaho.gov/wpcontent/uploads/2023/11/GEN-NSGC-Code-of-Ethics.pdf. *note – Section II, Item 3 of this document is declared null, void, and of no force and effect.

IDAPA 24.24.01.003 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.24.01.100 Licensure

01.General.

An applicant who in any state, territory, or country has had a license revoked or suspended or has been otherwise disciplined by a Board, a government agency, or any other disciplinary body, or has been found guilty, convicted, received a withheld judgment or suspended sentence for a felony must submit with his application a written statement and any supplemental information establishing his current suitability for licensure.

02.Education. An applicant must hold a master’s degree or higher in genetics from an American Board of Genetic Counseling (ABGC), American Board of Medical Genetics (ABMG), Accreditation Council for Genetic Counseling (ACGC), or National Society of Genetic Counselors (NSGC) accredited program or master’s degree or higher in a related field of study as approved by the Board.(7-1-25)

03.Examination. An applicant must pass an ABGC or ABMG administered genetic counselor certification exam, or another exam approved by the board.(7-1-25)

04.Certification. An applicant must provide proof of current certification from the ABGC or ABMG.

IDAPA 24.24.01.101 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.24.01.200 Practice Standards

01.Unprofessional and Unethical Conduct. Unp rofessional and unethical conduct is conduct that does not conform to the guidelines for genetic counseling contained within the (NSGC) Code of Ethics, incorporated by reference into Section 002 of these rules and approved by the Board as the Idaho Code of Ethics.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.24.01.201 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.24.01.400 Fees

All fees are non-refundable except that, if a license fee i s tendered but the Board does not issue a license, the respective license fee will be returned. Fees are established in accord with Section 54-5613, Idaho Code as follows:

IDAPA 24.24.01.401 (Reserved)

FEE TYPE

AMOUNT

(Not to Exceed)

Application$200 Original License $200 Annual Renewal$200 Provisional License$200 License by Endorsement$200 ReinstatementAs provided in Section 67-2614, Idaho Code

24.27.01 Rules of the Idaho State Board of Massage Therapy

IDAPA 24.27.01.000 Legal Authority

These rules are promulgated pursuant to Section 54-4007, Idaho Code.(7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.27.01.001 Scope

These rules regulate the profession of massage therapy.(7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.27.01.002 Incorporated by Reference

The document titled “Code of Ethics,” ex cept XVIII, published by the NCBTMB is herein adopted and incorporated by reference and is available on the NCBTMB website: https://www.ncbtmb.org/code-of-ethics/.(7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.27.01.003 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.27.01.100 Licensure

01.Approved Examinations.

A passing score on either the MBLEx, the NCETMB, NESL, or the NCETM examination or an examination deemed by the Board to be equivalent.(7-1-24)

02.Approved Educational Program. The registered program must have a minimum of three-hundred ninety (390) hours of in-class supervised hours of coursework and one-hundred ten (110) hours supervised clinical work or supervised massage therapy fieldwork experience. Clinical work may take place either on campus excluding instructional hours, or in an offsite location approved by the school. Students are not permitted to render any clinical services to clients until students have completed at least twenty percent (20%) of the required hours of instruction. All clinical services must be performed under the supervision of a person fully licensed.(7-1-24)

03.Provisional Permit. Upon application to the Board and payment of the required fees, an applicant may be issued a provisional permit to practice massage therapy if the applicant meets all the requirements for licensure under section 54-4009, Idaho Code, except for having successfully passed a Board-approved nationally recognized competency examination in massage therapy. While working pursuant to a provisional permit, the permit holder must be supervised by any person licensed in Idaho to provide massage therapy and whose license is in good standing. An applicant will be issued only one (1) provisional permit that is valid for a period not to exceed six (6) months. A provisional permit may be renewed only upon a showing of good cause.(7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.27.01.101 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.27.01.200 Practice Standards

1. Supervision of Clinical Work.

The supervising massage therapist must consult with the student, evaluate student performance and be available to render direction in person where massage therapy is being provided.

(7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.27.01.201 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.27.01.400 Fees

All fees are non-refundable.

( 7-1-24)

401-- 999.(RESERVED)

FEE TYPE

AMOUNT

(Not to Exceed)

Application $50 Original License $65 Annual Renewal $65 License by Endorsement$75 Provisional Permit$25

24.33.04 Rules for Licensure of Naturopathic Medical Doctors

IDAPA 24.33.04.000 Legal Authority

These rules are promulgated pursuant to Sections 5 4-5102, 54-5105, and 54-5108 Idaho Code.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.33.04.001 Scope

These rules govern the licensure, scope of practice, and discipline of the Naturopathic Medical Doctors in Idaho.

(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.33.04.002 Definitions

01.Naturopathic Medical Doctor. Is a term interchangeable with licensed naturopathic physician, physician of naturopathic medicine, naturopathic medical doctor and NMD.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.33.04.003 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.33.04.100 Licensure

01.Accrediting Organization.

The Council on Naturopathic Medical Education (CNME) is the accrediting organization that is recognized by the United States Department of Education as the accrediting agency for education programs that prepare naturopathic medical doctors.(7-1-25)

02.Licensing Examinations. Each applicant must provide certification of passing the following four (4) sections of the Naturopathic Physicians Licensing Exam (NPLEX) administered by the North American Board of Naturopathic Examiners (NABNE):(7-1-25)

a.Part I Biomedical Science;(3-28-23)

b.Part II Core Clinical Science;(3-28-23)

c.Part II Clinical Elective Minor Surgery; and(3-28-23)

d.Part II Clinical Elective Pharmacology.(3-28-23)

03.Renewal of License.(7-1-25)

a.Continuing Medical Education (CME). Every two (2) years, a total of forty-eight (48) hours, twenty (20) of which is pharmacology, of Board approved verifiable CME is required.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.33.04.101 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.33.04.200 Practice Standards

01.Naturopathic Formulary.

The formulary for naturopathic medical doctors licensed under this chapter consists of non-controlled legend medications (excluding testosterone) deemed appropriate for the primary health care of patients within the scope of practice and training of each naturopathic medical doctor. Prescribing pursuant to the Naturopathic Formulary shall be according to the standard of health care provided by other qualified naturopathic medical doctors in the same community or similar communities, taking into account their training, experience and the degree of expertise to which they hold themselves out to the public.(3-28-23)

02.Formulary Exclusions. The naturopathic formulary does not include:(3-28-23)

a.Scheduled, controlled drugs, except for testosterone used in physiologic doses with regular lab assessment for hormone replacement therapy, gender dysphoria, or hypogonadism;(3-28-23)

b.General anesthetics;(3-28-23)

c.Blood derivatives except for platelet rich plasma; or(3-28-23)

d.Systemic antineoplastic agents, except for the following antineoplastic agents used orally or topically for non-cancer purposes:(3-28-23)

i.Fluorouracil (5FU);(3-28-23)

ii.Anastrozole; and(3-28-23)

iii.Letrozole.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.33.04.201 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.33.04.300 Discipline

01.Ethical Standards of Practice. Every person licensed as a naturopathic medical doctor must adhere to the following standards:(7-1-25)

a.Controlled Substance or Alcohol Abuse. Abstain from using any controlled substance or alcohol in a manner which has or may have a direct and adverse bearing on the licensee’s ability to practice naturopathic medicine with reasonable skill and safety;(7-1-25)

b.Medical Records. Maintain adequate naturopathic medical records. Adequate naturopathic medical records mean legible records that contain subjective information, an evaluation or report of objective findings, assessment or diagnosis, and the plan of care;(7-1-25)

c.Reporting. Report to the Board any known act or omission of a licensee, applicant, or any other person, that violates any of the rules promulgated by the Board under the authority of the act;(7-1-25)

d.Disciplinary Outcomes. May not interfere with an investigation or disciplinary proceeding by willful misrepresentation of facts or by use of threats or harassment against any patient, Board or naturopathic medical board, Board staff, hearing officer, or witness in an attempt to influence the outcome of a disciplinary proceeding, investigation or other legal action;(7-1-25)

e.Obey Laws and Rules. Obey federal and local laws and rules governing the practice of naturopathic medicine.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.33.04.301 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.33.04.400 Fees

Fees as follows:

( 7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.33.04.401 (Reserved)

Fees – Table (Non-Refundable)

Licensure FeeNot more than $600 Annual License Renewal FeeNot more than $300 Reinstatement FeeNot more than $200 Duplicate Wallet License FeeNot more than $20 Duplicate Wall Certificate FeeNot more than $50

24.39.31 Rules for Factory Built Structures

IDAPA 24.39.31.000 Legal Authority

These rules are promulgated pursuant to Sections 39-4003, 39 -4302, 44-2102, 44-2104, 44-2201, and 44-2202, Idaho Code.(7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.39.31.001 Scope

These rules govern the manufacture and installation of modular buildings in Idaho, apply to persons engaged in the busin ess of manufacturing, selling, or installing manufactured or mobile homes for purposes of human habitation in Idaho, apply to disputes between persons licensed as manufacturers, retailers, and installers of manufactured homes, and apply to the installation of manufactured or mobile homes in Idaho.(7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.39.31.002 Incorporation by Reference

The Idaho Manufactured Home Installation Standard (January 1, 2018 edition), is hereby adopted and incorporated by reference and is available on the DOPL website: https://dopl.idaho.gov.(7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.39.31.003 Definitions

The terms defined in this section have the following meaning, unless the context clearly indicates another meaning.

( 7-1-24)

01.Alterations to Manufactured Homes. The replacement, addition, and modification, or removal of any equipment or installation after sale by a manufacturer to a retailer but prior to sale by a retailer to a purchaser which may affect the construction, fire safety, occupancy, plumbing, heat-producing or electrical system. It does not include the addition of an appliance requiring “plug-in” to an electrical receptacle, which appliance was not provided with the manufactured home by the manufacturer, if the rating of the appliance does not exceed the rating of the receptacle to which it is connected.(7-1-24)

02.Deceptive Practice. Intentionally publishing or circulating any advertising concerning mobile or manufactured homes which:(7-1-24)

a.Is misleading or inaccurate in any material respect;(7-1-24)

b.Misrepresents any of the products or services sold or provided by a manufacturer, manufactured/ mobile home retailer, or installation company.(7-1-24)

03.Insignia. A label or tag issued by the Division to indicate compliance with the codes, standards, rules, and regulations established for Modular Buildings and Commercial Coaches.(7-1-24)

04.Installation. The complete operation of fixing in place a modular building or manufactured or mobile home for occupancy.(7-1-24)

05.Principal Place of Business. The primary physical location at which the business of a manufactured home retailer is lawfully conducted. Each of the following requirements must be met to qualify as the principal place of business:(7-1-24)

a.The business of the manufactured or mobile home retailer is lawfully conducted here;(7-1-24)

b.The office or offices of the retailer is or are located here;(7-1-24)

c.The public may contact the retailer here;(7-1-24)

d.The offices are accessible and open to the public; and(7-1-24)

e.The greatest portion of the retailer’s business is conducted here. The books and other records of a retailer must be kept and maintained at the retailer’s principal place of business and be open to inspection during normal business hours by any authorized agent of the Division. Moreover, there must be displayed on the exterior a sign permanently affixed to the land or building with letters providing the business name of the retailer clearly visible to the major avenue of traffic.(7-1-24)

06.Used Manufactured Home or Mobile Home. A manufactured home or mobile home, respectively, which has been:(7-1-24)

a.Sold, rented, or leased and occupied prior to or after the sale, rental, or lease; or(7-1-24)

b.Registered with or been the subject of a certificate of title issued by the Idaho Department of Transportation or the appropriate authority of any state, the District of Columbia, or foreign state or country. (7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.39.31.004 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.39.31.100 Licensure

01.Manufactured/Mobile Home Licensure.

a. Minimum Age Requirement. No license will be issued to a person under eighteen (18) years of age at the time of license application.(7-1-24)

b. Designated License Holder. Any applicant for a license under who is not a natural person must designate a natural person to be license holder and represent the corporation, partnership, trust, society, club, association, or other organization for all licensing purposes under these rules including, but not limited to, testing and education. No issued licenses are transferable.(7-1-24)

i.Any person represents one (1) applicant only, and must immediately notify the Division in writing if his working relationship with the applicant has been terminated. The license will be issued in the name of the designated license holder with the name of the organization he represents also noted on the license. The license holder is considered by the Division to be the licensee.(7-1-24)

ii.The applicant agrees by acceptance of the designation that the designated person acts as agent of the applicant for all purposes under Title 44, Chapters 21 and 22, Idaho Code, and all rules promulgated thereunder.

iii.Any license issued to a manufactured/mobile home retailer must be posted in a conspicuous place on the business premises of the employer for whom the holder of the license is licensed. The license of a manufacturing facility or branch office must also be posted in a conspicuous place at the location licensed. (7-1-24)

iv.To engage in business in the state of Idaho, each manufacturer must be licensed by the Division.

v.The Division requires as a condition of licensing any information it deems necessary for each location where a manufactured/mobile home retailer maintains a branch office. The use of a mobile home park or a state sales office by a licensee for the sale or offering for sale of manufactured/mobile homes constitutes the maintenance of a branch office.A retailer must obtain a license from the Division to operate the branch office.

vi.Applicants for a manufacturer's, retailers, or installer's license must furnish: Any proof the Division may deem necessary that the applicant is a manufacturer, retailer, or installer; any proof the Division may require that the applicant has a principal place of business; In the case of a retailer in new manufactured homes, an instrument in the form prescribed by the Division executed by or on behalf of the manufacturer certifying that the applicant is an authorized franchise retailer for the make concerned; The fee and proof of the bond required by Section 44-2103, Idaho Code; and Proof of passing the examination required by these rules, as applicable.(7-1-24)

vii. Within thirty (30) days after receipt of a completed application, the Division will issue or deny the license.(7-1-24) viii.Each license is valid for a period of one (1) year from the date of issuance.(7-1-24)

02.Proof of Education Required.(7-1-24)

a.Satisfactory Proof for Initial Application Submission. An application for a license as a manufactured/mobile home installer must include proof satisfactory to the Division that the applicant has completed the following number of hours of initial education in order to be approved:(7-1-24)

i.Installers and retailers who are installers: eight (8) hours.(7-1-24)

ii.The course of initial education must be approved by the Division and must include information relating to the provisions of these rules, Title 44, Chapters 21, Idaho Code, and the National Manufactured Housing Construction and Safety Standards Act of 1974.(7-1-24)

b.Satisfactory Proof for License Renewal. The Division will not renew any installer license, or retailer license of any retailer who is also an installer, issued pursuant to Title 44, Chapters 21 or 22, Idaho Code, or these rules until the licensee has submitted proof satisfactory to the Division that he has, during the three (3) years immediately preceding the renewal of the license, completed at least eight (8) hours of continuing education.

i.The course of continuing education must be approved by the Division and include information germane to the profession.(7-1-24)

03.Examination Of Applicant For License.(7-1-24)

a.Required Examinations. The Division requires a written examination of each applicant for an initial license as a manufactured/mobile home retailer or installer.(7-1-24)

b.Examination and Grade. No license will be issued unless an applicant receives a final grade of seventy percent (70%) or higher.(7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.39.31.101 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.39.31.300 Disciplinary Action Against Licensees, Civil Penalties, and Consumer

COMPLAINT AND DISPUTE RESOLUTION.

01.The Division may deny, suspend, refuse to renew , or revoke any license or reissue the license subject to reasonable conditions upon any of the following grounds:(7-1-24)

a.Failure to Provide Business Name. Failure to include in any advertising the name of the licensed retailer or installer.(7-1-24)

b.Poor Workmanship. Performing workmanship which is grossly incompetent or repeatedly below the standards adopted by Title 44, Chapters 21 and 22, the provisions of these rules, or the National Manufactured Housing Construction and Safety Standards Act of 1974.(7-1-24)

c.Failure to Honor Warranties. Failure to honor any warranty or other guarantee given by a licensee for construction, workmanship, or material as a condition of securing a contract, or of selling, leasing, reconstructing, improving, repairing, or installing any manufactured/mobile home.(7-1-24)

d.Failure to Respond to Notice. Failure to respond to a notice served by the Division.(7-1-24)

e.Failure to Permit Access to Documentary Materials. Failure or refusing to permit access by the Division to relevant documentary materials after being requested to do so by the Division.(7-1-24)

f.Conviction of Misdemeanor. Conviction of a misdemeanor for violation of any of the provisions of Title 44, Chapters 21 or 22, Idaho Code.(7-1-24)

g.Conviction of Felony. Conviction or withheld judgment for a felony in this state, any U.S. territory, or country.(7-1-24)

h.Violation of Permit or Inspection Requirements. To knowingly violate any permit or inspection requirements of any city or county of this state.(7-1-24)

2. Modular Civil Penalties. The following acts subject the violator to penalties of not more than two hundred dollars ($200) for the first offense and not more than one thousand dollars ($1,000) for each offense thereafter:(7-1-24)

a.Installation. Any person who installs a modular building on a building site in this state without first receiving approval and securing to the structure insignia evidencing such approval from the Division.(7-1-24)

b.Modification. Any person who in any way modifies or alters a modular building prior to its initial occupancy which has previously been approved by the Division without first having received approval to do so from the Division.(7-1-24)

03.Manufactured Home Civil Penalties. Except as otherwise provided, the following acts subject the violator to penalties of not more than five hundred dollars ($500) for the first offense and not more than one thousand dollars ($1,000) for each offense thereafter:(7-1-24)

a.Industry Licensing. Except as provided for by Section 44-2106, Idaho Code, any person who engages in the business of a manufacturer, retailer, or installer, as defined in Section 44-2101A, Idaho Code, without being duly licensed by the Division.(7-1-24)

b.Deceptive Practice. Any retailer or installer who intentionally publishes or circulates any advertising that is misleading or inaccurate in any material respect or that misrepresents any of the products or services sold or provided by a manufacturer, retailer, or installer.(7-1-24)

c.Dealing with Stolen Manufactured or Mobile Homes. Any person who knowingly purchases, sells, or otherwise acquires or disposes of a stolen manufactured or mobile home is subject to a civil penalty of not more than one thousand dollars ($1,000).(7-1-24)

d.Failure to Maintain a Principal Place of Business. Any person who is a retailer duly licensed by the Division and who fails to maintain a principal place of business within Idaho.(7-1-24)

e.Violation of Rules and Statutes. Any person who knowingly violates these rules or Title 44, Chapters 21 or 22, Idaho Code.(7-1-24)

f.Gross Violation. In case of continued, repeated, or gross violations of these rules, a license revocation may be initiated for licensed individuals under Title 44, Chapter 21, Idaho Code. Non-licensed individuals are subject to prosecution by the appropriate jurisdiction under Idaho law.(7-1-24)

04.Consumer Complaints and Dispute Resolution.(7-1-24)

a.Site Inspection. The Division may perform a site inspection, based on the nature of a complaint or upon request of the complainant in accordance with HUD.(7-1-24)

b.Fees. A charge for mileage to and from the inspection site, plus an hourly charge for the time spent conducting the inspection, is assessed the manufacturer, installer, or retailer if a site inspection is made upon a request by the manufacturer, installer, or retailer, and does not involve a serious defect or imminent safety hazard.(7-1-24)

c.In spection Report. Following a site inspection, the inspector will prepare a final report and include photographs.(7-1-24)

d.Action. A notification letter and copies of the complaint form and investigation findings may be provided to all involved parties and HUD.(7-1-24)

i.Any Division action, notification and follow-up are completed according to HUD guidelines.

ii.If the nature of the complaint pertains to retailer contractual issues or installation problems, a copy of the complaint is to be consolidated with the appropriate Division license files.(7-1-24)

iii.A Division building inspector will issue a report concerning correction or repair of defects that are a matter of dispute between the homeowner, retailer, installer, or manufacturer. The report will include the likely cause of the defect and identify the party responsible for creating the defect that is in need of correction or repair.

e.Decisions. The Administrator will review the inspector’s report and set forth the required corrective action and identify the party responsible for such action. The Administrator may initiate a contested case proceeding if, in his sole discretion, he determines that such a proceeding or further investigation would be of assistance in reaching a decision. The decision must direct the responsible party to complete the required corrective action within specified timelines and consider the needs of the involved parties including, but not limited to, safety, anticipated expense and availability of funds, time of year, and convenience to the parties.(7-1-24)

f.Appeals. Decisions of the administrator are final orders for purposes of appeal.(7-1-24)

g.Informal Disposition -- Arbitration -- Mediation. Unless otherwise prohibited by other provisions of law, informal disposition may be made of any complaint by negotiation, stipulation, agreed settlement, and consent order. The parties may agree to enter into binding arbitration or mediation. Informal settlement of matters is to be encouraged.(7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.39.31.301 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.39.31.400 Manufactured/Mobile Home License Fees

01.Fees for Issuance and Renewal of License.

The following fees for the issuance and renewal of a license will be charged:(7-1-24)

a.Manufactured/mobile home retailer license: four hundred forty dollars ($440). Retailers who are also installers will have to pay an installer's license fee to hold both licenses.(7-1-24)

b.Manufacturer license: four hundred forty dollars ($440);(7-1-24)

c.Manufactured/mobile home installer license: two hundred twenty dollars ($220);(7-1-24)

02.Performance Bonding Requirements. Application for licensing will be accepted when accompanied by the performance bond required by Section 44-2103, Idaho Code.(7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.39.31.401 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.39.31.500 Permits, Plan Reviews, and Inspections

01.Modular Building Permit Fees. Permits must be obtained from the Division prior to the construction of structures governed by 39-4303, Idaho Code. Other than as specified in this section, the permit fee schedule for Modular Buildings is as provided in Table 1-A plus ninety dollars ($90) and two and one-half percent (2.5%) of the plumbing, electrical, and HVAC installation costs. The determination of value or valuation is based on the total value of all construction work for which a permit is issued.

TABLE 1-A – MODULAR BUILDING PERMIT FEES

TOTAL VALUATION FEE $1 to $500=$18.80 $501 to $2,000 = $18.80 for the first $500 plus $2.44 for each additional $100, or fraction thereof, to and including $2,000 (7-1-26)

02.Modular Plan Review. The Modular Building fee includes an additional amount equal to sixtyfive percent (65%) of the permit fee calculated in accordance with Table 1-A. A fee of sixty-five dollars ($65) per hour applies to additional plan review required by changes, additions, or revisions to plans.(7-1-24)

03.Manufactured/Mobile Home Installation Permit Fees. Permits must be obtained from the Division prior to the site installation governed by 44-2202, and 39-4004, Idaho Code in accordance with the following schedule:(7-1-24)

a.Single Section Unit. The permit fee is one hundred twenty dollars ($120).(7-1-26)

b.Double Section Unit. The permit fee is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).(7-1-26)

c.More Than Two Sections. The permit fee for a home consisting of more than two (2) sections is two hundred dollars ($200).(7-1-26)

04.In-Plant Inspection Agency Fees. In-plant inspection fees for manufactured homes produced by Idaho Manufactures as per 39-4003A and 39-4004 of Idaho Code is set at forty-five dollars ($45) per floor. (7-1-24)

05.Inspections at Manufacturing Plants. The Division conducts inspections at the manufacturing plant to determine compliance with codes adopted by Title 39, Chapters 40 and 41, Idaho Code, and Title 54, Chapters 10, 26, and 50, Idaho Code.(7-1-24)

06.Manufactured Home Site Installation Inspections. Installation permits must be obtained from the Division for installations in areas where there is no approved local program, or from a city or county that has by ordinance adopted building codes pursuant to Section 39-4116, Idaho Code, and whose installation program has been approved by the Division. All installations must be inspected and approved by the authority having jurisdiction before the manufactured home is occupied.(7-1-24)

a.Installation inspections shall be conducted in accordance with the Idaho Manufactured Home Installation Standard or the Design Approval Primary Inspection Agency of the manufactured home.(7-1-24)

07.Modular Site Installation Inspection. In order to complete the installation of an Idaho approved Modular Building, approval and inspection of the installation by the enforcement agency having jurisdiction over the site location is required.(7-1-24)

08.Qualifications of Inspectors. All inspectors must be properly certified for the type of inspection $2,001 to $25,000 = $55.40 for the first $2,000 plus $11.20 for each additional $1,000, or fraction thereof, to and including $25,000 $25,001 to $50,000 = $313.40 for the first $25,000 plus $8.09 for each additional $1,000, or fraction thereof, to and including $50,000 $50,001 to $100,000 = $515 for the first $50,000 plus $5.60 for each additional $1,000, or fraction thereof, to and including $100,000 $100,001 to $500,000 = $795 for the first $100,000 plus $4.48 for each additional $1,000, or fraction thereof, to and including $500,000 $500,001 to $1,000,000 = $2,587 for the first $500,000 plus $3.80 for each additional $1,000, or fraction thereof, to and including $1,000,000 $1,000,001and up = $4,487 for the first $1,000,000 plus $2.92 for each additional $1,000, or fraction thereof TABLE 1-A – MODULAR BUILDING PERMIT FEES TOTAL VALUATION FEE being conducted. The Factory Built Structures Board recognizes certifications granted through the National Certification Program Construction Code Inspector program (NCPCCI), the National Inspection Testing Certification program (NITC), the International Association of Electrical Inspectors (IAEI), and the International Code Council (ICC).(7-1-24)

09.Minimum Training Requirements for Inspectors. All manufactured home installation inspectors must complete eight (8) hours of training or instruction germane to the profession. (7-1-24)

10.Rights and Limitations of Local Enforcement Agencies for Modular Buildings.(7-1-24)

a.A local enforcement agency has the right to require a complete set of plans and specifications approved by the Division for each Modular Building to be installed within its jurisdiction, to require that all permits be obtained before delivery of any unit.(7-1-24)

b.A local enforcement agency does not have the right to: open for inspection any Modular Building or component bearing an Insignia to determine compliance with any codes or ordinances; require by ordinance or otherwise that Modular Buildings meet any requirements not equally applicable to on-site construction; or to charge permit or plan review fees for any portion of the structure prefabricated or assembled at a place other than the Building Site.(7-1-24)

11.Division Approval. A city or county that has by ordinance adopted a building code pursuant to Section 39-4116, Idaho Code, is eligible to participate in the inspection of manufactured and mobile homes. Such local installation inspection program must be approved by the Division to provide inspection services if the following minimum criteria is met:(7-1-24)

a.Inspections are conducted by the city or county employing inspectors holding a valid certification as residential building inspector from the International Code Council;(7-1-24)

b.Inspectors attended training sessions provided or approved by the Division and receive a certificate evidencing successful completion thereof.(7-1-24)

c.Voluntary Withdrawal. A city or county may voluntarily withdraw from participation in the program to inspect manufactured homes upon providing to the Administrator of the Division thirty (30) days written notice of its intention to do so.(7-1-24)

d.Quality Assurance. Any inspected installation is subject to quality assurance reviews by Division of Occupational and Professional Licenses. Findings made by the Division pursuant to such reviews will be forwarded to the inspection authority having jurisdiction. (7-1-24)

i.All inspectors and approved programs are subject to review.(7-1-24)

12.Modular Insignia and Serial Number.(7-1-24)

a.Assigned Insignia are not transferable and are void when not affixed as assigned.(7-1-24)

b.Each Modular Building must bear a legible identifying serial number. Each section of a multiple Modular Building must have the same identifying serial number followed by a numerical sequence identifier or a lett er suffix, or both.(7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.39.31.501 (Reserved)

24.35.01 Rules of the Idaho Outfitters and Guides Licensing Board

IDAPA 24.35.01.000 Legal Authority

Title 39, Chapter 21, Id aho Code.(7-1-26)

IDAPA 24.35.01.001 Scope

The rules implement, administer, and enforce the Act to establish uniform standards for licensing outfitted and guided activities to protect the public and protect, enhance, and facilitate management of Idaho's fish, wildlife, and recreational resources.(4-6-23)

IDAPA 24.35.01.002 Definitions

The definitions set forth in Section 36-21 02, Idaho Code, are applicable to these rules. In addition, the following terms have the meanings set forth below:(4-6-23)

01.Act. Title 36, Chapter 21, Idaho Code, commonly known as the Outfitters and Guides Act, as amended.(4-6-23)

02.Authorized Person. An investigator or inspector in the employ of the Board, a conservation officer of the IFGC, or any local, state, or federal law enforcement officer.(4-6-23)

03.Classified River. For the purpose of these rules, specific sections of some whitewater river or streams which are considered more hazardous than others have been designated “classified.” Classified rivers are denoted by an asterisk (*) in the list of rivers contained in Subsection 259.01.(4-6-23)

04.Compensation. The receipt, exchange or taking of goods, services, or cash in exchange for outfitted or guided activities. A bona fide charging of out-of-pocket travel expenses by members of a recreational party is not deemed compensation. However, such out-of-pocket expenses may not include depreciation, amortization, wages, or other recompense.(4-6-23)

05.Facilities and Services. The provision of personnel, lodging (tent, home, lodge, or hotel/motel), transportation (other than by commercial carrier), guiding, preparation and serving of food and equipment, or any other accommodation for the benefit of clientele in the conduct of outdoor recreational activities as designed in Section 36-2102(b), Idaho Code.(4-6-23)

06.Fishing. Fishing activities on those waters and for those species described in the rules of the IFGC, IDAPA 13.01.11, general fishing seasons and any anadromous fishing rules and as authorized in the Outfitter’s Operating Plan.(7-1-26)

07.Float Boats. Watercraft (inflatable watercraft, dories, drift boats, canoes, catarafts, kayaks, sport yaks, or other small watercraft) propelled by, and moving with the stream flow, maneuvered by oars, paddles, sweeps, pike poles or by motors for downstream steerage only. Downstream steerage does not include holding or upstream travel of a watercraft with a motor. Excluded as float boats are personal flotation devices, innertubes, air mattresses, or similar devices.(4-6-23)

08.Hazards. Potential dangers to the health, safety, or welfare of the outfitted public which are known risks inherent to an outfitted or guided activity.(7-1-25)

09.Hunting. The pursuit of any game animal or bird and all related activities including packing of client camp equipment, supplies, game meat and clients to and from a hunting camp.(4-6-23)

10.IFGC. The Idaho Department of Fish and Game or the Idaho Fish and Game Commission.

11.Major Activity. A licensed activity, the nature of which requires a significant commitment of time and effort by an outfitter in its execution and is intended to provide a significant amount of income to an outfitter.

12.Major Amendment. All outfitter license amendment requests requiring Board research or recommendation of a land management agency or other agency before the Board takes final action on the amendment request.( 4-6-23)

13.Minor Amendment. All outfitter license amendment requests that can be processed by the Board without requiring outside research or recommendation of a land managing agency or other agency before the Board takes final action on said amendment request.(4-6-23)

14.Operating Area. The area assigned by the Board to an outfitter for the conduct of outfitting activities.(4-6-23)

15.Operating Plan. A detailed schedule or plan of operation which an outfitter proposes to follow in the utilization of licensed privileges, areas, or activities.(4-6-23)

16.Out-of-Pocket Expenses. The direct expenses attributable to a recreational activity. Such direct expenses do not include:(4-6-23)

a.Compensation for either sponsors or participants;(4-6-23)

b.Amortization or depreciation of debt or equipment; or(4-6-23)

c.Costs of non-expendable supplies.(4-6-23)

17.Power Boats. All motorized watercraft used on Idaho waters open to commercial outfitting activities. Excluded as power boats are hovercraft, jetskis or similar devices, and float boats using motors for downstream steerage.(4-6-23)

18.Watercraft. A boat or vessel propelled mechanically or manually, capable of operating on inland water surfaces. Excluded as watercraft are hovercraft, jetskis, personal flotation devices (PFD's), or similar devices.

IDAPA 24.35.01.003 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.35.01.100 Outfitter or Designated Agent License or Amendment Application

A complete application for a new outfitter or designated agent license, outfitter license major amendment, or new landowner statement in existing areas must, in addition to all other requirements, include:(4-6-23)

01.Name. The name(s) registered with the Idaho Secretary of State as an assumed business name, the name of the business entity, or both.(4-6-23)

02.Other Signatures. Signed landowner or land manager statement from:(4-6-23)

a.The affected state and federal land managers in all areas where an outfitter plans to utilize lands administered by the state or federal government (this may involve memorandum of understanding procedures as applicable to proposed operation on national forest or public domain lands); and(4-6-23)

b.Private land owners, or their agents, where an outfitter applicant proposes to use such private lands in his operation.(4-6-23)

03.Operating Plan. An operating plan required by the germane land management agency or on a Board approved form.(4-6-23)

04.Insurance. Current certificate or proof of insurance covering licensed activities.(4-6-23)

05.Hearing. If more than one (1) applicant submits a complete application with landowner statement(s), the Board has the discretion to decide the successful applicant.(4-6-23)

06.Existing Operating Area. A licensed outfitter may be given priority for any opportunities within the outfitter’s existing operating area boundaries.(4-6-23)

07.Operating Area Limitations. To safeguard the health, safety, and welfare of the public and for the conservation of wildlife and fish resources, the Board may place a limit on the number of outfitter licenses issued within an operating area.(4-6-23)

IDAPA 24.35.01.101 Outfitter and Designated Agent License Renewal

01.Outfitter Licensing Priority. Prio rity for licensure in any outfitter’s operating area may be maintained by submitting a complete application for a license for the ensuing license period before the expiration date of the current license.(4-6-23)

02.Renewal. All licenses expire on March 31 and every application for license renewal for an outfitter and designated agent must be complete and include a use report containing an activity, use, and harvest report on the actual use during the preceding year and other information as required by the Board.(4-6-23)

03.Penalty Fee. When a completed renewal application is filed with the Board after the due date, a penalty fee must be paid before the license is issued.(4-6-23)

04.License Expired and Reinstatement. Reinstatement of an expired license will be governed by Section 67-2614, Idaho Code. If an application for reinstatement is not received within six (6) months of expiration of the license, the Board may consider the operating area and activities as an available opportunity.(4-6-23)

IDAPA 24.35.01.102 Outfitter or Designated Agent Responsibilities

An outfitter or designated agent is responsible for maintaining the standards set forth in the Operating Plan and for the actio ns of all guides and other employees while in the scope of their employment.(4-6-23)

IDAPA 24.35.01.103 Guide License Application Requirements

All new applicants for a Guide license must submit a completed application on Board approved forms along with the required fee.(4-6-23)

01.General Qualifications. The applicant must provide the following:(4-6-23)

a.Documentation of requisite training and experience sufficient to perform the services and activities provided on the license; and(4-6-23)

b.A current American Red Cross first aid certification or other comparable certification that is acceptable to the Board;(4-6-23)

02.Activity-Specific Qualifications. In addition to the general qualifications, the applicant must provide evidence of activity-specific training submitted with application or amendment.(4-6-23)

a.Hunting.(4-6-23)

i.Experience in the outfitter’s operating area(s) for at least ten (10) days and is knowledgeable of trails, terrain, drainages, and game habits and habitat.(4-6-23)

ii.Ability to read and understand a map and compass or operate a global positioning system (GPS) or other computerized map system.(4-6-23)

iii.Training and experience caring for meat and trophies, including the ability to correctly cape an animal and ability to instruct and assist clients in the proper care of meat.(4-6-23)

b.Float Boating on Classified Water.(4-6-23)

i.Three (3) complete float boat trips on each of the classified rivers applied for under the supervision of an outfitter or guide licensed for that river.(7-1-25)

ii.Guides with six (6) or more documented float trips on any other classified river section, under the supervision of a licensed outfitter or guide for that river, shall be deemed qualified once they complete one additional float trip under the supervision of a licensed outfitter or guide on the classified river section for which licensure is sought.(7-1-25)

iii.One (1) documented float boat trip on a classified section of river, under the supervision of an outfitter or guide licensed for that river, for an applicant able to demonstrate a log of at least 500 miles operating as a commercial float boat operator on select whitewater rivers with characteristics similar to Idaho’s classified rivers. To document this experience, a statement signed by the applicant under oath or affirmation should be recorded on a Board-approved form that includes precise put-in and take-out points, miles logged for each trip, and the names and addresses of the boat operators who have employed them.(7-1-25)

c.Power Boating on Classified Water.(4-6-23)

i.Fifty (50) hours on the total length of the river or section of water applied for.(4-6-23)

d.Float or Power Boating on Unclassified Water.(4-6-23)

i.At least one (1) complete commercial float or power boat trip on each of the sections or lakes applied for.(4-6-23)

e.ATV-UTV-Snowmobiling.(4-6-23)

i.Experience in the outfitter’s operating area for at least ten (10) days and is knowledgeable of the area’s drainages, rideable terrain, and unique avalanche or other hazards as well as the machines being utilized by the outfitter.(4-6-23)

ii.When operating in winter conditions in terrain with avalanche potential, must have Recreation level 1 avalanche training, American Avalanche Association or similar consisting of twenty-four (24) hours of training with over fifty percent (50%) in the field, and Avalanche Rescue through American Avalanche Association or similar, consisting of eight (8) hours of training with a minimum of five (5) hours in the field.(4-6-23)

f.Snow-Based Non-Motorized Travel in Avalanche Terrain (backcountry skiing, Nordic skiing, or snow shoeing on non-groomed trails).(4-6-23)

i.Experience in the outfitter’s operating area(s) for at least ten (10) days and is knowledgeable of the area’s drainages, rideable terrain, and unique avalanche hazards.(4-6-23)

ii.Recreation level 1 avalanche training, American Avalanche Association or similar consisting of twenty-four (24) hours of training with over fifty percent (50%) in the field, and Avalanche Rescue through American Avalanche Association or similar, consisting of eight (8) hours of training with a minimum of five (5) hours in the field.(4-6-23)

g.Rock Climbing/Mountaineering.(4-6-23)

i. Experience in the outfitter’s operating area for at least ten (10) days and is knowledgeable of the area’s routes, navigable terrain, and unique hazards.(4-6-23)

ii.When operating in winter conditions in terrain with avalanche potential, must have Recreation level 1 avalanche training, American Avalanche Association or similar consisting of twenty-four (24) hours of training with over fifty (50%) in the field, and Avalanche Rescue through American Avalanche Association or similar, consisting of eight (8) hours of training with a minimum of five (5) hours in the field.(4-6-23)

h.Equestrian Activities.(4-6-23)

i.Experience in the outfitter’s operating area for at least ten (10) days and is knowledgeable of horsemanship and the area’s routes, trails, terrain, drainages, and unique hazards.(4-6-23)

03.Validity. A guide license is valid only while the guide is under the employment of an Idaho licensed outfitter.(4-6-23)

04.Amendment. To add authorized activities to the license, a guide must submit a completed license amendment request on a Board-approved form, along with supplemental documentation of training and experience for each newly requested activity.(4-6-23)

05.Renewal. A license must be renewed before it expires by submitting a complete application for renewal forms together with the renewal fee. A license expires annually or biennially on the license holder’s birth date in accordance with Section 36-2108, Idaho Code. A license not renewed on or before the license holder’s birthdate will be immediately canceled in accordance with Section 67-2614(a), Idaho Code. No reinstatement fee will be charged.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.35.01.104 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.35.01.200 License Production

Upon request of an authorized person, a licensee must provide proof of licensure when engaged in licensed activities and identify a guide’s employing outfitter.(4-6-23)

IDAPA 24.35.01.201 Third-Party Agreement

An outfitter will not allow, condone, or abet any third-party agreement involving activities for which they are licen sed. An employee of the licensed outfitter acting in the scope of employment is not a third party.(4-6-23)

IDAPA 24.35.01.202 Standards for Non-Use

The Board may annually review the outfitter’s us e reports for the preceding three (3) years to determine whether any licensed activity or operating area fall within non-use. If the outfitter falls within non-use, a “notice of non-use” may be issued to the outfitter.(4-6-23)

01.Definitions.(4-6-23)

a.Non-use. When an outfitter is making zero (0) or negligible use of major licensed activities for any two (2) of the three (3) preceding years unless the lack of use is due to an act of nature or because of state or federal agency restrictions on hunting or fishing that limit the ability of the outfitter to seek and accommodate clients;

b.Zero (0) use. No recorded use by an outfitter of their licensed area or activities;(4-6-23)

c.Negligible use. An unreasonable lack of use as determined by the Board for any one (1) or more of the particular activities in the assigned operating area. Typically, use may be determined by comparison of use levels for the same activity(s) in similar operating areas.(4-6-23)

02.Required Records. Outfitters will maintain records sufficient to demonstrate to the Board use of their licensed activities and areas.(4-6-23)

IDAPA 24.35.01.203 Operating Area

An outfitter's operating area may be adjusted for reasons of wildlife and fish conservation, where territorial conflict exists, or for the safety of persons utilizing the services of outfitters. Special circumstances may also warrant short term modification of an outfitters operating area.(4-6-23)

01.Environmental Considerations. Any changes in wildlife population health, environmental conditions and/or new government regulation may result in the adjustment of an outfitter’s operating area.(4-6-23)

02.Conflict Considerations. An incident(s) of territorial conflict, particularly one that leads to public safety concerns, may result in the adjustment of an outfitter’s operating area.(4-6-23)

03.Safety Considerations. Any change(s) in the environmental condition(s), in the manner or amount of public use of the operating area and/or in a licensee's manner of operation within the operating area, that pose a threat to the health and safety of persons using the operating area may result in a change in the outfitters operating area.(4-6-23)

4. Controlled Hunts Outside Operating Area. The Board may authorize an outfitter who is licensed for hunting moose, bighorn sheep, or mountain goat to conduct a one-time hunt outside of the outfitter's licensed area when the outfitter submits a request on a Board-approved form.(4-6-23)

a.For changes of operation under Subsections 04 and 05 of this Rule, written permission from all outfitters licensed for the species in the hunt area being requested and all applicable landowners or land managers will be provided to the Board.(4-6-23)

b.For changes under Subsection 04 and 05 of this Rule, under special circumstances the Board may waive the requirement of approval from the overlapping outfitter(s).(4-6-23)

c.For changes under Subsection 05 of this Rule, no compensation is permitted between outfitters participating in the conduct of a controlled hunt in another outfitter’s area, unless the outfitter supplies a service for that compensation.(4-6-23)

05.Overlap Predator Areas. The Board may authorize outfitters to enter into a standing agreement with each other and the appropriate land manager(s) allowing the outfitters to hunt wolf, mountain lion, or black bear or to trap across multiple operating areas.(7-1-26)

IDAPA 24.35.01.204 Outfitter Business Purchase, License Considerations

The sale of an outfitting business requires an application for a new outfitter license by the purchaser, provided that the Board may give priority for licensure to an applicant who has negotiated an agreement related to a sale with a licensee if the applicant meets all other requirements or upon documentation from a court. The Board may consider prior nonuse of licensed operating area or activities when evaluating priority for licensure or placing conditions on a license.

IDAPA 24.35.01.205 Availability of Outfitting Opportunities

Except as provided in other sections of this chapter, when a new opportunity or existing opportunity which had previously been licensed to another outfitter becomes available, the Board may use a competitive application process through a waiting list, public notice, or both to select a qualified applicant. A competitive application process may be coordinated with another governmental agency that has management or permitting authority over the opportunity.

01.Waiting List. The waiting list will be maintained for each individual river, lake and reservoir outlined in Section 259 and for each specific IFGC unit listed in IDAPA 13.01.08.(7-1-26)

02.Placement on Waiting List. A written request, in a form specified by the Board, must be submitted to be placed on the waiting list, and a name on the waiting list will be maintained for a period of five (5) years or until December 31 of the fifth year that the name is placed on the list, whichever comes first.(4-6-23)

03.Notification. When public notice is used when an opening occurs, a public announcement will be made via the Board’s website and may be made in conjunction with notice by another governmental agency. Persons on the waiting list will be notified of the available opportunity in any competitive application process.(4-6-23)

04.Application Period and Consideration. Anyone wishing to apply for the opportunity must submit a complete application or amendment, by the date specified in the notice. The Board will consider the qualifications of all applicants and in its discretion select the best qualified applicant.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.35.01.206 Boat Equipment Requirements

Each float or power boat used by an outfitting operation must be identified as follows:(4-6-23)

01.Identification. Identification recorded with the Board on the outfitter application consisting of words, names, or letters not less than three (3) inches in height and be of a contrasting color indicating the current licensed outfitter and that is placed above the water line on each side of the bow or stern of the boat utilized by that outfitter in letters.(4-6-23)

02.Clearwater. On Sections CL2 and CL3 of the Clearwater River, a sticker affixed to the surface of any boat used for anadromous fishing that is not less than eight (8) inches in height and placed immediately adjacent to the identification words, names or letters on each side of the boat towards the bow, identifying the boat as operated by a licensed outfitter. Stickers will be provided and sold annually by the Board or a vendor designated by the Board.

IDAPA 24.35.01.207 Boat Transport of Hunting Clients

A boatman licensee (either power or float) m ust not transport big game hunters to any big game hunting area unless licensed to outfit for big game hunting in that area or has entered into an agreement with the licensed outfitter hunting for that area.(4-6-23)

IDAPA 24.35.01.208 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.35.01.257 Designation of Allocated Deer and Elk Tags

For the purposes of this section, an outfitting operation is an outfitter licensee whose licensed activities include hunting for the species in the area of the allocated tag being designated. When IFGC allocates tags, the allocated tags will be designated pursuant to Section 36-2120, Idaho Code, and this rule. The designation applies for the next season unless IFGC adjusts the number of allocated tags for the hunt.(4-6-23)

1. Notification. All notices, orders, or other documents may be made to the email address on file with the Board.(4-6-23)

02.Outfitted Hunter Tag Use History. Each outfitter’s hunter tag use history will be determined from the use recorded by IFGC pursuant to Section 36-408(4), Idaho Code, and as may be adjusted as a result of a tag transfer or hardship request that is approved by the Board.(4-6-23)

a.Transfers. An outfitting operation is credited for use of an allocated tag that it transfers to another outfitting operation for use that year in the same hunt. The receiving outfitting operation is not credited for using the transferred tag.(4-6-23)

b.Surrenders. An outfitting operation may surrender a designated allocated tag(s) to the undesignated tag pool for use by any outfitting operation in the same hunt. The surrendering outfitting operation is not credited for use of the surrendered tag unless it later uses the tag from the pool.(4-6-23)

03.New Hunt Allocated Tag Designation. When the IFGC allocates tags for a newly capped, limited, or controlled hunt, the allocated tags will be designated proportionately as follows:(7-1-26)

a.Divide each outfitting operation’s base allocation by the total of all base allocations in the hunt, resulting in a percentage of total use. Truncate the decimal at the hundredths place.(4-6-23)

b.Multiply the percentage of total use from Subsection 257.03.a. of these rules by the total number of allocated tags for the hunt, which determines the number of allocated tags designated to the outfitting operation.

04.Use of Previously Designated Allocated Tags. For established capped, limited, or controlled hunts, allocated tags will first be designated to each outfitting operation in an amount equal to the outfitting operation’s use of the allocated tags previously designated to it for the same hunt.(7-1-26)

a.In a capped or limited hunt, the use of previously designated allocated tags is the average use of allocated tags in the preceding two (2) years; in the event that IFGC adjusts the number of allocated tags in a hunt where there is only one (1) year of allocation, the Board will not average the use.(7-1-26)

b.In a controlled hunt, the use of previously designated allocated tags is the highest year of use of allocated tags in the preceding two (2) years.(4-6-23)

c.In any hunt where the average use of the last two years’ results in a number ending in point five (.5) and the resulting designation is rounded down, apply the following:(7-1-26)

i.If there are sufficient remaining or additional tags in the hunt to round up every outfitter designation that has been rounded down in Subsection 257.04.a. or b. above, then designate one (1) additional tag to those outfitters designations. If there are not sufficient tags available, then proceed to Subsection 257.05 below.

(7-1-26)

05.Remaining or Additional Allocated Tags. Allocated tags not designated above will be designated proportionately as follows:(4-6-23)

a.Subtract each outfitting operation’s use of previously designated allocated tags from Subsection 257.04 from its base allocation number to determine the number of non-allocated tags it used for a capped or limited hunt or the matching hunt with non-allocated tags for a controlled hunt, when necessary to determine non-allocated tag use; then(7-1-26)

b.Divide the result by the total number of non-allocated tags used by all outfitting operations, resulting in a percentage of the total non-allocated tags used by outfitting operations in that hunt. Truncate the decimal at the hundredths place; and finally(4-6-23)

c.Multiply the percentage of total use from Subsection 257.05.b. by the number of allocated tags yet to be designated, which determines the number of allocated tags designated to the outfitting operation.(4-6-23)

06.Rounding. If allocated tag designation results in a partial tag, the calculation will be rounded up when a decimal equals or exceeds six tenths (0.6) and rounded down when a decimal is less than six tenths (0.6).

When calculating after a reduction of allocated tags pursuant to Section 36-2120(4), Idaho Code, the calculation will be rounded up when a decimal equals or exceeds five tenths (0.5) and rounded down when a decimal is less than five tenths (0.5).(4-6-23)

07.Tie-breaker. If, after applying Subsections 257.03 through 06, there is a surplus or deficit of allocated tags to be designated, the unrounded proportion from Subsection 257.05, with as many decimal places as necessary, will be used, and then as follows:(4-6-23)

a.After a reduction in allocated tags, surplus tags will first be designated in amounts to restore outfitter operations to the number of tags that would have otherwise been designated pursuant to Subsection 257.04 or as close thereto as practicable.(4-6-23)

b.If a surplus, the outfitting operation whose unrounded proportion is the greatest will be designated one (1) tag, and if there are additional surplus tags, the outfitter with the next greatest unrounded proportion will be designated one (1) allocated tag, and repeated in descending unrounded proportions until all surplus tags are designated. In the event there is more than one outfitting operation with the same unrounded proportion and there are insufficient undesignated tags to designate to each outfitter, the undesignated tag will be designated based on a random drawing between those outfitting operations.(4-6-23)

c.A deficit will be resolved from the outfitting operation whose unrounded proportion is closest to six tenths (0.6), and then next closest to six tenths (0.6) when there is a deficit of more than one (1) allocated tag. If there is more than one (1) outfitting operation with the same unrounded proportion, a random drawing will be held between tho se outfitters.(4-6-23)

08.Stipulation by Outfitters. Outfitting operations in a hunt may submit to the Board a written stipulation determining the number of allocated tags designated to each outfitting operation in that hunt. The stipulation must be signed by all eligible outfitting operations for the hunt; however, under special circumstances, the Board may waive the requirement of approval from all other outfitting operations. If the Board approves the stipulation, the stipulation will be effective until the next designation of allocated tags for the hunt. On or before November 1 preceding the hunt, any outfitting operation may petition the Board to vacate the stipulation for good cause that would make it unconscionable or unjust to enforce the stipulation. If the Board vacates the stipulation, the allocated tags in that hunt will be designated pursuant to Section 36-2120, Idaho Code, and this rule.(4-6-23)

09.Undesignated Tag Pool. Any designated allocated tags that are surrendered or have not been utilized by an outfitting operation on or before July 16 or the next business day for a capped or limited hunt, or on or before September 10 or the next business day for a controlled hunt, will be available in an undesignated pool for any outfitting operation, as follows:(7-1-26)

a.Beginning April 10 preceding the hunt, an outfitting operation may submit a request for an allocated tag from the pool. The request must be on a Board-approved form.(4-6-23)

b.Beginning April 20 preceding the hunt, or next business day thereafter, until July 16, allocated tags will be designated from the pool on a first-come, first-served basis to an outfitting operation without any designated allocated tags or which has utilized all of its designated allocated tags, with a maximum of two (2) tags per operation per round until all tags are designated.(7-1-25)

c.No tags designated from the pool will be considered for historical use calculations until all tag transfers are recorded and all hardship requests have been resolved.(7-1-24)

d.After July 16, tags will be designated on a first-come, first-served basis. Any remaining tags will be distributed among all requesting operations with a maximum of two (2) tags per operation per round until all requested tags have been allocated.(7-1-25)

10.Objection to Calculation. If an outfitting operation believes the calculation is incorrect, it may object by filing a petition with the Board within fourteen (14) days from the date the notification was sent and in accordance with the Idaho Administrative Procedures Act. The petition will include any supporting information or documentation.(4-6-23)

a.All outfitting operations in the hunt in question will be notified of the petition.(4-6-23)

b.The outfitting operation bears the burden of establishing that the calculation was incorrect.(4-6-23)

11.Hardship Request. An outfitting operation may submit a written hardship request to maintain all or a portion of previous outfitted hunter tag use history when the outfitting operation shows good cause that its use of allocated designated tags was impacted by circumstances beyond the outfitting operation’s control. The request must be submitted on or before a deadline set by the Board. The outfitting operation must provide information or documentation as requested by the Board to substantiate the request.(4-6-23)

12.Change in Operating Area or Owner of Business. When an outfitting operation is sold or when an operating area is adjusted through a sale and designated allocated tags are associated with the affected operating area, the associated designated allocated tags and tag use history will transfer to the new owner.(4-6-23)

IDAPA 24.35.01.258 Number of Outfitters and Guides Limited

Big Lost and Little Lost Rivers and the Big Wood and the Little Wood Rivers – All reaches from headwaters to the termination of the flow of the Big Lost and the Little Lost Rivers and all reaches of the Big Wood and Little Wood Rivers are limited to a maximum of five (5) outfitters on both rivers combined.(4-6-23)

IDAPA 24.35.01.259 River, Lake, and Reservoir Power and Float Outfitter Limits

For the express purpose of safeguarding the health, safety and welfare of the pub lic, for the conservation of wildlife and range resources, and to enable the outfitted and non-outfitted public to enjoy the recreational value of Idaho’s rivers, streams, lakes, reservoirs and other natural resources, the Board has discretion to limit the number of outfitters licensed on waters that lie totally or partially within the State of Idaho. Pursuant to Section 36-2107(e), Idaho Code, the Board may cooperate with federal and state government to evaluate relevant factors in decisions related to setting outfitter licensure limits on navigable waterways. The following rivers and streams or sections that lie totally or partially within the state of Idaho are open to commercial boating operations by outfitters and guides.(4-6-23)

01.Licensable Waters – River Sections (BL1) Blackfoot River through (PR1) Priest River – Ta b l e:

No. Power No. Float (BL1) Blackfoot River - Blackfoot Reservoir/Government Dam to Trail Creek Bridge. For each license/permit issued, no more than two (2) boats per section/per day may be used by any outfitter at any one time in each of the following river sections:

a) Blackfoot Reservoir/Government Dam to Sage Hen Flats/Cutthroat Campground b) Sage Hen Flats/Cutthroat Campground to Morgan Bridge c) Morgan Bridge to Trail Creek Bridge No outfitter may have more than six (6) boats on the BL1 in any one (1) day.

OGLB licenses are for the entire BL1 segment; a section of BL1 cannot be separated from BL1 for the purposes of selling a portion of an outfitter's business.

(BO1) Boise River, South Fork - Danskin Bridge to the Neal Bridge EXCEPT on weekends or holidays. Each outfitter may use only one (1) boat for fishing only with a maximum of two (2) fisherman. No overnight camping or walk-and-wade fishing allowed.

(BO1A) Boise River - Eckert Road Bridge to Main Street Bridge.none (BO1B) Boise River - Main Street Bridge to West side of Garden City limits.none (BO2) Boise River - Downstream from the west side of the Garden City municipal limits to the east side of the Caldwell municipal limits. A maximum of two (2) outfitters may be licensed for fishing in addition to float boating. Each outfitter may use at any time a maximum of four (4) boats for boating activities. The Board may approve adjustments of these boat limitations to accommodate canoeing or kayaking activities that are part of an outfitters operating plan.

(CF1) Clark Fork River - Entire river upstream of a straight line extending north of county boat dock (near mouth of Johnson Creek) to Bear Paw Point (southwest tip of Denton Slough). Each outfitter may use at any one time a maximum of two (2) boats prior to the Friday preceding Memorial Day of each year, there is no limit thereafter. 2 outfitters for either (CF2) Clark Fork River - Entire river upstream of a straight line extending north of county boat dock (near mouth of Johnson Creek) to Bear Paw Point (southwest tip of Denton Slough) (boating limited to the Friday preceding Memorial Day through November 30) 2 outfitters for either (CL1) Clearwater River - Lowell to the Lower Bridge at Kooskia. Each outfitter may use at any one time a maximum of (a) three (3) boats for fishing, and (b) five (5) boats for other boating activities. Fishing may not be conducted downstream from the Upper Bridge at Kooskia by CL1 outfitters. The Board may approve adjustments of these boat limitations to accommodate canoeing or kayaking activ- (CL2) Clearwater River - The Upper Bridge at Kooskia to the Orofino Bridge.

Each outfitter may use at any one time a maximum of (a) three (3) boats for fishing, and (b) five (5) boats for other boating activities. The Board may approve adjustments of these boat limitations to accommodate canoeing or kayaking activ- (CL3) Clearwater River - The Orofino Bridge to the mouth of the Clearwater River with the Snake River at Lewiston. Each outfitter may use at any one time a maximum of (a) three (3) boats for fishing, and (b) five (5) boats for other boating activities. The Board may approve adjustments of these boat limitations to accommodate canoeing or kayaking activities that are part of an outfitters operating plan. * (NFCL) North Fork Clearwater River - Kelly Forks Bridge downstream to backwaters of Dworshak Reservoir (CDNF) Headwaters of North Fork Coeur d‘Alene- Including tributaries (Independence and Tee Pee Creeks) upstream from Devils Elbow Campground. Three (3) walk and wade only licenses. Up to four (4) clients on the river at one time per license. nonenone (CD1) Coeur d‘Alene River - Devil's Elbow to South Fork confluence.  Fishing limit is two (2) float boats per license with a maximum of two (2) clients at a time per boat. Two (2) additional walk and wade licenses can be issued. Walk and wade limited to a maximum of two (2) clients at a time per license.

(CD2) Coeur d‘Alene River - South Fork confluence downstream to Cataldo Mission Boat Ramp. Fishing limit is one (1) float boat per license with a maximum of two (2) clients or two walk and wade clients per license at a time. Walk and wade activities do not have to be initiated from a float boat.

(CD3) Lateral (Coeur d‘Alene chain) Lakes - Connected by the Coeur d’Alene River. Cataldo Mission Boat Ramp to Highway 97 Bridge. A limit of one (1) power boat per license with a maximum of two (2) clients at a time or a limit of one (1) guide per license and two (2) float tubes at a time or two (2) clients walking and wading. The walk and wade activities must be associated with the power boating. 3none * (JB1) Jarbidge/Bruneau Riversnone4 (KO1) Kootenai River - Montana state line to Canada boundary55 (LCL1) Little North Fork Clearwater River - Mouth of Canyon Creek to first bridge on the Little North Fork Clearwater River. Fishing only. Each outfitter may use only two (2) boats per day with a maximum of two (2) fishermen per boat. * (LO1) Lochsa Rivernone5 (MO1) Moyie River - Canada boundary to Bonners Ferry Municipal Dam  (boating closing date July 20) * (OW1) Owyhee River - Nevada state line to Oregon state line or South Fork to confluence with Owyhee River and continuing on to a take-out point.

No. Power No. Float (7-1-25)

02.Licensable Waters – River Sections (MF1) Middle Fork Salmon River through (SE2) Selway River – Table:

(PN1) Payette River, North Fork - Payette Lakes Outlet to Hartsell Bridge. Four (4) boat or ten (10) canoe limit per trip, and only two (2) trips per day per outfitter.

(PN1A) Payette River, North Fork - Cascade City Park, ¼ mile south of Cascade on Highway 55 to Cabarton. Restrictions: Catch and release for TROUT ONLY, other species F & G rules apply. No stopping by commercial groups from ¼ mile above to ¼ mile below heron nesting trees. Four (4) boat or ten (10) canoe limit per trip, and only two (2) trips per day per outfitter.

(PN2) Payette River, North Fork - Cabarton to Smiths Ferry Bridgenone5 (PS1) Payette River, South Fork - Grandjean to Deadwood Rivernone5 * (PS2) Payette River, South Fork - Deadwood River to Banksnone5 (PA1) Payette River - Banks to Black Canyon Damnone5 (PO1) Pend Oreille River55 (PR1) Priest River - Dickensheet Campground to Priest River Citynone2 No. Power No. Float (LS1) Little Salmon River – From Highway 95 bridge at Hazard Creek to confluence of the Main Salmon River. Annually, prior to May 15, portage of the amphitheater rapid on river right is required when anglers are present in the hole below the rapid. Closed for operating below mouth of the Rapid River in May through July. No fishing. *##(MF1) Salmon River, Middle Fork - Boundary Creek to Cache Bar on the Salmon River none27 (SA1) Salmon River - First bridge across Salmon River above Redfish Lake Creek to Torrey's Bar (SA2) Salmon River - Torrey's Bar to first Highway 93 bridge above Challis. Each outfitter may use at any one time a maximum of (a) three (3) boats for fishing, and (b) five (5) boats for other boating activities. The Board may approve adjustments of these boat limitations to accommodate canoeing or kayaking activities that are a part of an outfitter's operating plan.

(SA3) Salmon River - First Highway 93 bridge above Challis to Kilpatrick River access. Each outfitter may use at any one time a maximum of (a) three (3) boats for fishing, and (b) five (5) boats for other boating activities. The Board may approve adjustments of these boat limitations to accommodate canoeing or kayaking activities that are a part of an outfitter's operating plan.

No. Power No. Float (7-1-26)

03.Licensable Waters – River Sections (SH1) Henry’s Fork Snake River through (TE3) Teton (SA4A) Salmon River - Kilpatrick River access to North Fork - License period from May 1 to September 30. Each outfitter may use at any one time a maximum of (a) three (3) boats for fishing and (b) five (5) boats for other boating activities. The Board may approve adjustments of these boat limitations to accommodate canoeing or kayaking activities that are part of an outfitter's operating plan.

(SA4B) Salmon River - Kilpatrick River access to North Fork - License period from October 1 to April 30. Each power boat outfitter may use at any one time a maximum of one (1) boat and each float boat outfitter may use at any one time a maximum of three (3) boats.

(SA5) Salmon River - North Fork to Corn Creek39 *##(SA6) Salmon River - Corn Creek to Spring Bar Boat Ramp with no outfitter fishing below Vinegar Creek from September 15 through March 31 except that on a case-by-case basis, outfitter fishing may occur when permitted by the BLM and with the notification to and concurrence of the Board Executive Officer. * (SA7A) Salmon River - Vinegar Creek to Hammer Creek - License period from March 15 to October 15. No power boating is allowed from the Saturday before Memorial Day through Labor Day from 10:30 a.m./Mountain Time to 5:00 p.m./ Mountain Time daily between the Riggins City Boat Dock and Lucile. * (SA7B) Salmon River - Power boats from Vinegar Creek to Spring Bar Boat Ramp and float boats from Vinegar Creek to Island Bar Boat Ramp, open from September 15 to March 31 only. Each float boat outfitter may use at any one time a maximum of three (3) boats for fishing, or two (2) additional boats for fishing when permitted by the BLM and with the notification to and concurrence of the Board Executive Officer; and each power boat outfitter may use at any one time a maximum of two (2) boats for fishing, or one (1) additional boat for fishing when permitted by the BLM and with the notification to and concurrence of the Board Executive Officer. * (SA7C) Salmon River - Riggins City Park Boat Ramp to Hammer Creek. Three (3) designated outfitters may utilize float boats to fish from the Riggins City Boat Dock to Hammer Creek during the period from September 15 to March 31. none3 *##(SA8) Salmon River - Hammer Creek to the Idaho/Washington State line near Lewiston * (SE1) Selway River - Paradise Campground to Selway Fallsnone4 (SE2) Selway River - Selway Falls to the mouth of the Selway River at Lowell. Each outfitter may use at any one time a maximum of (a) three (3) boats for fishing, and (b) five (5) boats for other boating activities. The Board may approve adjustments to these boat limitations to accommodate canoeing or kayaking activities that are part of an outfitter's operating plan.

No. Power No. Float River – Table:

No. Power No. Float (SH1) Snake River, Henry's Fork - Henry's Lake Outlet to Hatchery Ford. (Each outfitter may use at any one time a maximum of (a) eight (8) boats for fishing No more than three (3) of these boats may be used at any one time on any of the following river reaches:

Henry's Lake Outlet to Island Park Dam, Island Park Dam to Last Chance, Last Chance to Osborn Bridge, and Osborn Bridge to Hatchery Ford), and (b) five (5) boats for other boating activities. The Board may approve adjustments to these boat limitations to accommodate canoeing or kayaking activities that are part of an outfitter's operating plan. none7 (SH2) Snake River, Henry's Fork - Mesa Falls to St. Anthony. Each outfitter may use at any one time a maximum of (a) eight (8) boats for fishing, no more than three (3) of these boats may be used at any one time on any one of the following river reaches: Mesa Falls to Stone Bridge, Stone Bridge to Ashton Dam, and Ashton Dam to Chester Dam, and Chester Dam to St. Anthony, and (b) five (5) boats for other boating activities. The Board may approve adjustments of these boat limitations to accommodate canoeing or kayaking activnone8 (SH3) Snake River, Henry's Fork - No more than three (3) boats for fishing may be used by an outfitter at any one (1) time in each of the following river sections:

a) St. Anthony to Red Road Bridge Boat Access (i.e., Parker/Salem or Fort Henry)

b) Red Road Bridge Boat Access to Warm Slough Boat Access c) Warm Slough Boat Access to Menan Boat Access No outfitter may have more than six (6) boats on the SH3 in any one (1) day.

When permitted by the BLM and with the notification to and concurrence of the Board Executive Officer, each outfitter may be allowed adjustments to the maximum boat limits in order to accommodate non-fishing boating activities (e.g., canoeing, paddle boards, and kayaks) and hazardous excursions that are part of an outfitter's operating plan. These adjustments must be reviewed and approved annually.

OGLB licenses are for the entire SH3 segment; a section of SH3 cannot be separated from SH3 for the purposes of selling a portion of an outfitter's business.

(SS1) Snake River - South Fork - No more than four (4) boats per section/per day may be used by an outfitter at any one (1) time in each of the following river sections:

a) Palisades Dam Boat Access to the Spring Creek Boat Access (Swan Valley Bridge) or Conant Boat Access. Exception: Not more than eight boats would be permitted between Spring Creek Boat Access and Conant Boat Access to allow for the flexibility to launch/ take-out boats.

b) Spring Creek or Conant Boat Access to Fullmer Boat Access. Exception: Not more than eight (8) boats would be permitted in Section (b) on the same day, provided that no more than four (4) of said boats are in this Section after 11:00 a.m. due to overnight use at designated outfitter camps.

c) Fullmer Boat Access to Byington Boat Access.

d) Byington Boat Access to Lorenzo Boat Access.

e) Lorenzo Boat Access to Menan Boat Access.

Additionally, no outfitter may have more than twelve (12) boats on the SS1 in any one day.

A one-time per year exception after July 15 may be granted from Conant Boat Access to Byington Boat Access that would allow two (2) additional boats per section to accommodate large client groups. During this one-time exception, if the two (2) additional boats do not accommodate the large client group, additional boats must come from slots allocated to other outfitters. The maximum daily boat limit for SS1 may not be exceeded. This would require written concurrence from the BLM/USFS and the Board Executive Officer.

Float boats may use motors (5HP or less) for downstream steerage only within the entire SS1 reach. Downstream steerage would not include holding or upstream travel of watercraft with a motor.

OGLB licenses are for the entire SS1 segment; a section of SS1 cannot be separated from SS1 for the purposes of selling a portion of an outfitter's business.

None*8** * Each licensed float boat outfitter may use one (1) supply boat (float or power) that does not carry clients. During periods of preparing overnight camps (i.e., setting up tents and portable toilet facilities, boating in grills and other cooking supplies) for the season, usually May or June of each year; and removing the same items listed above from overnight camps at the end of the season, usually October or November; multiple supply boats may be used. ** One (1) license additional for waterfowl hunting covering both BLM and USFS managed lands and waters for the South Fork (Palisades Dam to Wolf Flats Boat Access may be issued. This license opportunity is in addition to the eight (8) float licenses and is limited to providing waterfowl hunting during waterfowl hunting season as defined by Idaho Fish and Game Rules and where no more than two (2) float or power boat boats per day per section a and b only can be used by the outfitter at any one time for that purpose. Fishing may not be provided or conducted unless the outfitter is also licensed and permitted as one (1) of the eight (8) outfitters addressed in this rule who may not provide hunting activities. This business opportunity may be sold separately.

No. Power No. Float (SN1) Snake River - For each license/permit issued, no more than four (4) boats per section/per day may be used by an outfitter at any one time in each of the following river sections:

a) Menan Boat Access to Mike Walker Boat Access (includes Federally managed lands).

b) Mike Walker Boat Access to Gem State Power Plant (includes non-Federal lands).

Float boats may use motors (5HP or less) for downstream steerage only within the entire SS1 reach. Downstream steerage would not include holding or upstream travel of watercraft with a motor.

OGLB licenses are for the entire SN1 segment; a section of SN1 cannot be separated from SN1 for the purposes of selling a portion of an outfitter's business.

(SN2) Snake River - Gem State Power Plant. Idaho Falls, downstream to headwaters of American Falls Reservoir. For each license/permit issued, no more than four (4) boats per section/per day may be used by any outfitter at any one time in each of the following river sections:

a) Gem State Power Plant to Shelley/Firth b) Shelley/Firth to Porterville c) Porterville to Blackfoot (Boating limited, walk-wade if there is access)

d) Blackfoot to Tilden Bridge e) Tilden Bridge to the headwaters of American Falls Reservoir No outfitter may have more than twelve (12) boats on the SN2 in any one day.

OGLB licenses are for the entire SN2 segment; a section of SN2 cannot be separated from SN2 for the purposes of selling a portion of an outfitter’s business.

No. Power No. Float (SN3) Snake River - American Falls Dam to Massacre Rocks State Park. For each license/ permit issued, no more than five (5) boats per section/per day may be used by any outfitter at any one time in each of the following river sections:

a) American Falls Dam to Pipeline (includes federally and non- federally managed lands)

b) Pipeline to Vista (includes federally and non- federally managed lands)

c) Vista to Eagle Rock (includes non-federally managed lands)

d) Eagle Rock to Massacre Rocks (includes non-federally managed lands)

No outfitter may have more than ten (10) boats on the SN3 in any one day.

Float boats may use motors (5HP or less) for downstream steerage only. Downstream steerage does not include holding or upstream travel of watercraft with a motor.

Sturgeon Fishing: Pipeline to Massacre Rocks, no more than five (5) boats per section/per day may be used by any outfitter at any one time in each of the river sections between Pipeline to Massacre Rocks.

American Falls Dam to Pipeline, one (1) boat within this section/two (2) weekdays per week/two (2) weekend days per month. Idaho Department of Fish and Game, Southeast Region (Pocatello) needs to be notified prior to Sturgeon Fishing.

OGLB licenses are for the entire SN3 segment; a section of SN3 cannot be separated from SN3 for the purposes of selling a portion of an outfitter’s business.

(SN4) Snake River - Massacre Rocks State Park to Milner Dam33 * (SN5) Snake River - Milner Dam to Star Fallsnone3 * (SN6) Snake River - Star Falls to Twin Fallsnone5 (SN7) Snake River - Twin Falls to Lower Salmon Falls Dam33 (SN8) Snake River - Lower Salmon Falls Dam to Bliss Dam35 (SN9) Snake River - Bliss Dam to headwaters of C.J. Strike Reservoir55 (SN10) Snake River - C.J. Strike Dam to Walter's Ferry 5 outfitters for either (SN11) Snake River - Walter's Ferry to headwaters of Brownlee Reservoir5none * (SN12) Snake River - Hells Canyon Dam to Pittsburg Landing1815 * (SN13) Snake River - Hells Canyon Dam to Pittsburg Landing,  two (2) one-day float trips only (SN14) Snake River - Pittsburg Landing to the Idaho/Washington State Line near Lewiston. Excludes the mouth of the Salmon River defined as a straight line perpendicular to flow from the most downstream point of land where the Salmon and Snake rivers merge.

No. Power No. Float (SN15) Snake River - Washington/Oregon state line to Lewiston Limitations pending. (This section is set aside for future rules of fishing only outfitters.)

(SJ1) St. Joe River - St. Joe River Headwaters to Red Ives. No outfitted boating. One (1) walk and wade only fishing outfitter. nonenone (SJ2) St. Joe River - Red Ives to Avery. In addition to one (1) float boat license, three (3) walk and wade only outfitters. No fishing from float boats, boat clients may fish via walk and wade.

(SJ3) St. Joe River - Avery to St. Joe City Bridgenone2 (SJ4) St. Joe River - St. Joe City Bridge to Lake Coeur d’Alene2none (SM1) St. Maries River55 (TE1) Teton River - Upper put-in to Cache Bridge, motors not to exceed 10 hp 5 outfitters for either (TE2) Teton River - Cache Bridge to Harrop Bridge, motors not to exceed 10 hp 6 outfitters for either No. Power No. Float * Classified rivers ## Floatboat and powerboat outfitters on these sections are considered within their area of operations when hiking from the river or fishing in tributaries away from the river but does not include overnight activities. Conflicts with land-based outfitters will be handled on a case-by-case basis.(7-1-26)

04.Other -- Table. The following lakes and reservoirs or portions thereof that lie totally or partially within the state of Idaho are open to fishing by outfitters with the following limitations:

(TE3) Teton River - No more than two (2) boats per section/per day may be used by an outfitter at any one time in each of the following river sections: a), b), d), e) and f). No more than four (4) boats per section/per day may be used by an outfitter at any one time on river section c) and where two (2) boats from same outfitter must be spaced at three-hour (3) intervals:

a) Harrop Bridge Boat Access to Felt Dam Boat Access.

b) Felt Dam Boat Access to Spring Hollow Boat Access.

c) Spring Hollow Boat Access to Teton Dam Site Boat Access.

d) Teton Dam Site Boat Access to Hog Hollow Bridge Boat Access.

e) Hog Hollow Bridge Boat Access to Teton Highway.

f) Teton Highway to confluence with the Henry’s Fork of the Snake River. Note: No boat access exists at the confluence with the Henry’s Fork of the Snake River. Outfitters would utilize Hibbard Bridge or Warm Slough Access on SH3. No fishing on SH3.

No outfitter may have more than eight (8) boats on the TE3 in any one day.

Float boats may use motors not to exceed 10 hp in section a) (Harrop Bridge to Felt Dam Access) only. Float boats may use motors (5HP or less) for downstream steerage only in sections d), e) and f). Motors are not allowed in other sections. Downstream steerage does not include holding or upstream travel of watercraft with a motor.

OGLB licenses are for the entire TE3 segment; a section of TE3 cannot be separated from TE3 for the purposes of selling a portion of an outfitter's business.

Lake or ReservoirMaximum No. of Operators Maximum No. Boats per Operator per Lake or Reservoir Lake Coeur d'Alene82 Dworshak Reservoir72 Henry's Lake 82 Island Park Reservoir72 Magic Reservoir32 Palisades Reservoir102 Lake Pend Oreille112 No. Power No. Float (7-1-25)

05.Other Lakes and Reservoirs. All other Idaho lakes and reservoirs are limited to two (2) fishing outfitters with a maximum of two (2) boats (float or power) per outfitter.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.35.01.260 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.35.01.300 Unethical and Unprofessional Conduct

The Board may refuse to issue or renew a license or otherwise discipline a license holder for any of the following:

01.Harass. Harassment of the public in their use of Idaho’s outdoor recreational opportunities.

02.Endanger. Operating in a manner which endangers the health, safety, or welfare of the public.

03.Interfere. Interference with private landowners, public land management agencies, and/or stockmen and their rights and privileges.(4-6-23)

IDAPA 24.35.01.301 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.35.01.400 Inspections

The Board has the authority to inspect outfitter facilities and equipment.(4-6-23)

IDAPA 24.35.01.401 (Reserved)

Priest Lake52 American Falls Reservoir32 C.J. Strike Reservoir42 Brownlee Reservoir52 Oxbow Reservoir32 Hells Canyon Reservoir32 Lake or ReservoirMaximum No. of Operators Maximum No. Boats per Operator per Lake or Reservoir

24.39.90 Rules Governing the Damage Prevention Board

IDAPA 24.39.90.000 Legal Authority

These rules are promulgated pursuant to Sections 55-2 203, 67-2604, 67-2614, 67-9409, and 67-9406, Idaho Code.

(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.39.90.001 Scope

These rules are applicable to underground facilities, and facilit y owners as established in Title 55, Chapter 22, Idaho Code.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.39.90.002 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.39.90.100 Educational and Training Materials

01.Approval of Training and Educational Programs. The Board approves acceptable training courses or programs and educational materials on relevant underground facility damage prevention topics pertaining to safe excavation, locating and marking of facilities, determining facility damage, emergency procedures, excavator downtime, pre-marking of intended excavation areas, and appropriate procedures when encountering unmarked facilities.(7-1-25)

02.Scope of Training and Educational Programs. Such training programs and educational materials must relate to various aspects of underground facility damage prevention, and contain practices, information, and standards generally accepted and recognized among stakeholders in Idaho.(7-1-25)

03.Accessibility of Training and Educational Programs. The Division maintains and periodically updates a database of approved educational materials and training programs.(7-1-25)

04.Purposes of Training and Educational Programs. Such programs may be used for general educational use by stakeholders or for remedial training that may be ordered by the board or the administrator pursuant to Section 55-2211, Idaho Code.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.39.90.101 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.39.90.300 Discipline

01.Complaint Forms. Person s may submit written complaints to the administrator regarding an alleged violation of Title 55, Chapter 22, Idaho Code, on such forms as required by the Division. Notice of the complaint may be served concurrently on the alleged violator by the person submitting the complaint. Verifiable proof of such notification of a complaint provided to the alleged violator must also be provided to the administrator, as outlined in the board-approved complaint form.(7-1-25)

02.Complaint Procedures and Timelines. The following timelines and procedure govern the process of filing and administering complaints related to violations of Title 55, Chapter 22, Idaho Code, and the rules of the Board.(7-1-25)

a.Initial Filing. Complaints must be filed with the administrator not later than thirty (30) days from the date of the alleged violation giving rise to the complaint or from the date the violation should have reasonably been discovered by the complainant, whichever is later.(7-1-25)

b.Response. The administrator must notify the alleged violator of the complaint and request a response and any additional information from the alleged violator as may be necessary. The alleged violator may provide a response to the administrator within thirty (30) days from the date they are notified of the complaint by the administrator.(7-1-25)

c.Recommendation. Within thirty (30) days of receipt of the response, or if no response is received, within fifteen (15) days from the deadline for filing a response, the administrator must notify the complainant and the alleged violator of his recommended course of action. The administrator may extend the period of time in which to determine a recommended course of action, and so notify the parties, if he determines it is necessary to further review or investigate the complaint.(7-1-25)

d.Contest. The alleged violator has the right to contest the imposition of a civil penalty before the damage prevention board. Notice of such contest must be provided by the alleged violator not more than thirty (30) days after receipt of the administrator’s recommended course of action. Recommendations of the administrator regarding complaints may be reviewed by the board at its next regularly scheduled meeting.(7-1-25)

03.Claims. Claims for the cost of repairs for damaged underground facilities are enforced by the affected underground facility owner in accordance with procedures as may be established by the facility owner, and in accordance with applicable law. Underground facility owners must provide notice to excavator contractors of such procedures, along with sufficient information supporting the basis for the amount of a claim within six (6) months from the date of the event giving rise to the claim or from the date the event should have reasonably been discovered by the underground facility owner, whichever is later.(7-1-25)

04.Civil Penalties. The Idaho Damage Prevention Board is authorized under Section 55-2203(17), Idaho Code, to establish by administrative rule the fines to be paid for civil penalties issued for violations of Title 55, Chapter 22, Idaho Code. To the extent authorized by Section 55-2211, Idaho Code, the acts described in this section subject the violator to a civil penalty of not more than one thousand dollars ($1,000) for a second offense and a civil penalty of not more than five thousand dollars ($5,000) for each offense that occurs thereafter within eighteen (18) months from an earlier violation, and where facility damage has occurred.(7-1-25)

05.Violations of Title 55, Chapter 22, Idaho Code. The following acts subject a person to civil penalties:(7-1-25)

a.Pre-marking Excavation Site. Any person who fails to adequately pre-mark onsite the path of proposed excavation as reasonably required under the circumstances in accordance with Section 55-2205(1)(b), Idaho Code, is subject to a civil penalty.(7-1-25)

b.Notice of Excavation. Any person who fails to provide notice of the scheduled commencement of excavation to any underground facility owner through a one-number notification service, or directly to a facility owner, as applicable within the prescribed time as required by Section 55-2205(1)(c), Idaho Code, is subject to a civil penalty.(7-1-25)

c.One-Number Notification to Facility Owner. A one-number notification service that fails to provide notice of a scheduled excavation upon notification from an excavator is subject to a civil penalty.(7-1-25)

d.Failure to Locate or Mark. An underground facility owner, owner’s agent, or locator who fails to locate or mark underground facilities when responsible to do so in accordance with Section 55-2205(2), Idaho Code, or within the prescribed time provided therein, is subject to a civil penalty.(7-1-25)

e.Failure to Wait for Locate or Maintain Markings. An excavator who commences excavation prior to waiting the time prescribed by Section 55-2205(2), Idaho Code, for all known facilities to be located and marked, or an excavator who fails to maintain the markings of underground facilities previously so marked subsequent to the commencement of excavation in accordance with Section 55-2205(2), Idaho Code, is subject to a civil penalty.

(7-1-25)

f.Failure to Cease Excavation or Report Unidentified Facilities. An excavator who does not cease excavation in the immediate vicinity upon the discovery of underground facilities therein, whether such facilities be activ e or abandoned, which were not previously identified or located with reasonable accuracy, or does not notify the owner or operator of the facilities, or a one-number notification service in accordance with Section 55-2205(4), Idaho Code, is subject to a civil penalty.(7-1-25)

g.Failure to Identify Facilities in Contract Documents. Project owners who fail to indicate in bid or contract documents the existence of underground facilities known by the owner to be located within the proposed area of excavation in accordance with Section 55-2207, Idaho Code, is subject to a civil penalty.(7-1-25)

h.Precautions to Avoid Damage. An excavator who does not engage in any of the activities required by Section 55-2207(2), Idaho Code, or use reasonable care to avoid damage to underground facilities is subject to a civil penalty.(7-1-25)

i.Reporting of Damage to Facility. An excavator who fails to report to a facility owner and a onenumber notification service any contact or damage to an underground facility caused by such excavator in the course of excavation, or fails to alert an appropriate authority upon an actual breach of a facility which causes the release of gas or hazardous liquids as required by Section 55-2208(1), Idaho Code, is subject to a civil penalty.(7-1-25)

j.Reporting to the Board. An excavator or underground facility owner who observes, suffers or causes damage to an underground facility or excavator downtime related to the failure of one (1) or more stakeholders to comply with the damage prevention regulations and fails to report such information to the board as required by Section 55-2208(5), Idaho Code, is subject to a civil penalty.(7-1-25)

k.Failure to Participate. Any person, as defined in Section 55-2206 who fails to participate or cooperate with a one-number notification service as prescribed by Section 55-2206, Idaho Code, is subject to a civil penalty.(7-1-25)

l.False Notification of Emergency. Any person who provides notice of an emergency excavation when there is not an emergency as defined in Idaho Code Section 55-2202(5).(7-1-25)

06.Second Offense. For the purpose of this section, a second offense is deemed to be any violation of Title 55, Chapter 22, Idaho Code, for which a civil penalty may be imposed in accordance with this section which occurs within eighteen (18) months of a previous violation of any provision.(7-1-25)

07.Multiple Violations. Each day that a violation of Title 55, Chapter 22, Idaho Code, occurs for which a civil penalty may be imposed as provided herein constitutes a separate offense.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.39.90.301 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.39.90.350 Administrative Appeals

01.Appeal Bond. Up on notice of the imposition of training or a civil penalty, the notified party may contest the imposition of such before the Damage Prevention Board in accordance with Section 018 of these rules. An appeal bond in the amount of two hundred dollars ($200) must accompany the request for hearing to contest the matter. In the case of training, the Division of Building Safety will refund the bond if the contesting party appears at the hearing. In the case of a civil penalty, the Division will refund any portion of the bond not used to satisfy the penalty imposed by the Board or the entire bond if the contesting party prevails at the hearing.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.39.90.351 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.39.90.400 Fees

Each owner of an underground facility must pay a fee of ten cents ($ .10) each time such owner receives notice from a one-number notification service as prescribed by Section 55-2205, Idaho Code. The fee assessed upon the underground facility owner is collected by the one-number notification service, and is payable to the board in accordance with the following schedule:(7-1-25)

01.Fee Assessed. The fee will be assessed on an underground facility owner for each notification issued by the one-number notification service to the underground facility owner, with the one-number notification service required to submit a summary of the number of notices issued in a given month to the board no later than fifteen (15) days following the end of the month in which the notices were issued.(3-28-23)

02.Payment Submission. The one-number notification service must submit payment to the board for all payments received from underground facility owners no later than seventy (70) days following the end of the month in which the notices were issued to the facility owners. In those cases where the payment from the underground facility owner is received after the seventy-day (70) period, the one-number service must include late payments in its next payment to the board.(3-28-23)

03.Notices Issued. The one-number notification service must also submit a detailed list of notices issued, including the facility owner’s contact information, for which payment has not been received within the seventy (70) day period following the end of the month in which the notices were issued. Such list must be updated on a monthly basis to reflect the status of all past-due payments due from underground facility owners that have not been received.(3-28-23)

04.Audit of One Number Service Records. The Board has the right to review and audit the payment records of any one-number notification service relating to the collection of the fee imposed on underground facility owners. In the event the board wishes to conduct a review and/or audit of a one-number notification service, the board will provide no less than a five (5) business day advance notice of the intended action. The board may delegate any responsibilities contained herein this chapter to the Division of Occupational and Professional Licenses.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.39.90.401 (Reserved)

24.22.01 Rules of the Idaho State Liquefied Petroleum Gas Safety Board

IDAPA 24.22.01.000 Legal Authority

These rules are promulgated pursuant to Sections 67-2614, 67-9406, and 67-9409, 54-5310, Idaho Code.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.22.01.001 Scope

These rules govern the Idaho Liquefied Petroleum Gas Public Safety Act. (3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.22.01.002 Incorporation by Reference

The document titled Liquefied Petroleum Gas Code, 2024 Edition, commonly known as NFPA 58, published by Nati onal Fire Protection Association (NFPA), is herein incorporated by reference and is available for public inspection at the Board’s office. Copies of the 2024 Liquefied Petroleum Gas Code are available for purchase from the National Fire Protection Association, 11 Tracy Drive, Avon, MA 02322.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.22.01.003 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.22.01.100 Licensure

01.Education and Examination.

Each applicant must provide proof that they have successfully completed the following:(7-1-25)

a.The Fundamentals of Propane Training provided by the Propane Education and Research Council, or equivalent as approved by the Board; and(7-1-25)

b.Receipt of a passing grade on the Fundamental of Propane Training examination provided by the propane Education and Research Council or the equivalent as determined by the Board within the thirty-six (36) months immediately preceding application.(7-1-25)

02.Supervised Practical Experience. Each applicant must provide certified proof that the applicant has obtained at least two thousand (2,000) hours of practical experience in a Liquefied Petroleum Gas (LPG) facility while the applicant was under supervision of a licensed dealer.(7-1-25)

03.Endorsement. Any person who holds a current, unsuspended, unrevoked or otherwise nonsanctioned license in another state or country that has licensing requirements substantially equivalent to or higher than those in Idaho may, submit the required application, supporting documentation, and required fee, for Board consideration. Those applicants who received their professional education or experience outside of the United States must provide such additional information concerning their professional education or experience as the Board may request. The Board may, in its discretion, require successful completion of additional course work or examination for any applicant under this provision.(7-1-25)

04.Dealer-in-Training License. An individual may not begin obtaining supervised practical experience until the individual has applied for and obtained a dealer-in-training license from the board. Such license is issued on a non-renewable basis and is for the purpose of enabling the individual to gain the supervised practical experience that the person must obtain to become an LPG dealer. The dealer-in-training license is valid for eighteen (18) months from the date of issue.(7-1-25)

05.Facility Licensure and Operation Requirements.(7-1-25)

a.Application for a facility license must include a certificate of general liability insurance set forth in these rules and plans and specifications complying with local ordinances and zoning requirements. All applications must be submitted to the Board for approval and a license must be issued before a new facility may open for business;

(7-1-25)

b.Each facility application must clearly identify and designate a location adequate to allow the facilities safe operation and the selling, filling, refilling, or commercial handling or commercial storage of liquefied petroleum gas;(7-1-25)

c.Each facility must meet all requirements of NFPA 58.(7-1-25)

06.Facility Changes in Ownership or Location.(7-1-25)

a.Whenever a change of ownership or location of a facility occurs, an original application must be submitted, the fee must be paid and compliance with all rules concerning a new facility documented, before a new license will be issued. FACILITY LICENSES ARE NOT TRANSFERABLE.(7-1-25)

b.Deletion of an owner from multiple ownership does not constitute a change in ownership. (7-1-25)

c.Addition of an owner to multiple ownership does constitute a change in ownership.(7-1-25)

d.Whenever any facility ceases operation at the licensed location, the owner(s) must notify the Board in writing that the facility is out of business and the facility license must be submitted to the Division. A new facility license will not be issued for any location that is currently licensed as a facility at the time of application.(7-1-25)

07.General Liability Insurance Requirement. No facility license will be issued without a certificate showing proof of a current general liability insurance policy in the sum of not less than one million dollars ($1,000,000) for an occurrence. The Board may conduct random audits.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.22.01.101 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.22.01.300 Discipline

01.Civil Fine.

The Board may impose a civil fine not to exceed one thousand dollars ($1,000) for each violation of Section 54-5315, Idaho Code.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.22.01.301 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.22.01.400 Fees

All fees are non-refundable:

( 7-1-26)

IDAPA 24.22.01.401 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.22.01.500 Inspection Rules

All facilities are subject to inspection by the Board or its agents at any time without notice to insure the safe operation of each facility and to insure continued compliance with the requirements of NFPA 58 and the Idaho laws and rules.

The Board may adopt a form which establishes for the facility those material rules of NFPA 58 which will be inspected, and a level of compliance necessary for issuance or retention of a license or disciplinary action. The Board may further determine the time frame a facility may be granted in order to comply with NFPA 58, but still continue to operate, or pursue disciplinary action for a failure to comply. In the event of non-compliance necessitating reinspection, the Board may assess a re-inspection fee.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.22.01.501 (Reserved)

FEE TYPE

AMOUNT

(Not to Exceed)

RENEWAL

(Not to Exceed)

Application$35 Individual License$90$90 Endorsement$90 Dealer-in-training$50 Facility License$115$115 Bulk Storage Facility$460$460 Facility Reinspection$150

24.33.06 Rules of the Licensure of Respiratory Therapists and Permitting of Polysomnographers in Idaho

IDAPA 24.33.06.000 Legal Authority

These rules are promulgated pursuant to Sections 54-4305, 54-430 6, 54-4309, 54-4310, and 54-4311, Idaho Code.

IDAPA 24.33.06.001 Scope

These rules govern the practice of respiratory care and po lysomnography related to respiratory care.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.33.06.002 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.33.06.100 Licensure

01.Application for Respiratory Care and Po lysomnography Related Respiratory Care Practitioner. The Board may issue a dual license/permit to perform respiratory care and polysomnography related respiratory care to an applicant who meets the requirements set forth in this chapter and Sections 54-4308 and 54- 4307(2) and (3), Idaho Code.(7-1-25)

02.Comprehensive Registry Exam. The comprehensive registry examination administered by the Board of Registered Polysomnographic Technologists, or administered by an equivalent board, recognized by the Board, the successful completion of which entitles a person to the professional designation of Registered Polysomnographic Technologist (RPSGT).(7-1-25)

03.Provisional Licensure or Permit by Examination. A provisional license or permit may be issued to an applicant following graduation from an accredited or approved respiratory care or polysomnography-related respiratory care educational program and the applicant has either applied to take or has taken the requisite Boardapproved national examination(s) and is awaiting results. An applicant who fails to pass the requisite Board-approved national examination(s) during the six (6) month timeframe is not eligible for further temporary licensure or permitting. Provisional licenses and permits issued to examination candidates are issued for a period not to exceed six (6) months and are nonrenewable.(7-1-25)

04.Continuing Education. Licensees are responsible for choosing respiratory therapy related continuing education programs that focus on protecting the health and safety of the public.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.33.06.101 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.33.06.200 Practice Standards

01.Supervision Of Respiratory Care.

The practice or provision of respiratory care or polysomnography services by persons holding a student, consulting, or training exemption or a provisional license or permit shall be under the supervision of a respiratory care practitioner or licensed physician who shall be responsible for the activities of the person being supervised. The supervising respiratory care practitioner or licensed physician need not be physically present or on the premises at all times but must be available for telephonic consultation.

IDAPA 24.33.06.201 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.33.06.400 Fees

01.Fees. Nonrefundable fees are as follows:

Fees – Table (Non-Refundable)

Initial Licensure Fee -Not more than $180 Reinstatement Fee-$50 plus unpaid renewal fees Annual Renewal Fee-Not more than $140 Provisional License Fee-Not more than $90 Dual Licensure/Permit Fee-Not more than $180

IDAPA 24.33.06.401 (Reserved)

A person holding a current license or permit, if qualified, may apply for and obtain a dual license/permit without paying an additional fee.

Fees – Table (Non-Refundable)

24.39.30 Rules of Building Safety (Building Code Rules)

IDAPA 24.39.30.000 Legal Authority

The rules are promulgated pursuant to Sections 33-356, 39-4107, 39-4109, 39-4112, 39-4113, 39-9701, Idaho Code.

IDAPA 24.39.30.001 Scope

The rules prescribe the criteria for enforcem ent and administration of the Idaho Building Code Act by the Idaho Building Code Board and the Division of Occupational and Professional Licenses and the integrated design and fundamental commissioning of public school facilities.(7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.39.30.002 Definitions

01.Listing Agency.

A person, firm, association, partnership or corporation which is in the business of listing or labeling and which maintains a periodic inspection program on current production of listed materials, and which makes available, not less frequently than annually, a published report of such listing in which specific information is included that the product has been tested to nationally approved standards and found safe for use in a specified manner.(7-1-24)

02.Minor Alteration. The following definition is used for the purpose of administering annual permits.(7-1-24)

a.Minor alterations shall include, but are not limited to, the following: partition walls constructed within a defined room; relocation of or existing openings or installation of new doors and windows in non-load bearing walls and not in construction meant to compartmentalize fire; window replacement in unaltered existing openings; roof repairs involving installation of less than one hundred (100) square feet of new roof covering; and new suspended ceilings that are not part of a required fire resistive assembly.(7-1-24)

b.Minor alterations shall not include: work that alters the fire resistive characteristics of the building or fire suppression systems; work that creates new openings in construction meant to compartmentalize fire such as fire walls, fire barriers, fore partitions, smoke barriers, smoke partitions, horizontal assemblies, shaft enclosures, stair enclosures; work that increases the floor area or height of the building; work that changes the structural load path of the building for gravity or horizontal loads; work that reduces the thermal resistant capacity of the building envelop; changes in the occupancy classification of the building or space; increases in the floor loads.(7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.39.30.003 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.39.30.200 Integrated Design and Fundamental Commissioning of Public School

FACILITIES.

01.Technical and Educational Information.

Technical and educational information related to integrated design and fundamental commissioning in the form of the American Institute of Architects Integrated Project Delivery Guide; Portland Energy Conservation, Inc. (PECI) Commissioning Guides; ASHRAE Guideline 0- 2005-The Commissioning Process; and the Northwest Energy Efficiency Alliance Integrated Design Special Focus on Energy Performance Guide is available on the Division’s. A building commissioned under the prescriptive approaches defined by any of the above-named national organizations is deemed to have completed the Fundamental Commissioning process.(7-1-24)

02.Commissioning Agents. The Division has compiled and made available for public examination a list of all known third party building commissioning agents in Idaho and its contiguous states. The Division has ensured that all such commissioning agents appearing on this list have been certified by the Building Commissioning Association (BCA) or other similar certifying entity.(7-1-24)

03.Annual Optimization Review.(7-1-24)

a.The third-party commissioning agent who performed the initial fundamental commissioning for a public school building must provide the school district with a written report identifying the systems which will be subject to the Idaho Code Section 33-356 annual optimization review and identifying the system requirements and/or other relevant measuring criteria. The written report shall, at a minimum include the following:(7-1-24)

i.Verification that the heating, ventilation, and air conditioning (HVAC) systems, controls, dampers, valves, sensors and other equipment used to control the system are functioning as they were at the commissioning of the building;(7-1-24)

ii.Verification that the lighting controls are functioning as they were at the commissioning of the building; and(7-1-24)

iii.The requirement that any changes made to any of the controls contained on the agent’s list after the initial commissioning be re-set back to the commissioned settings unless it can be demonstrated that the new settings result in greater energy efficiency.(7-1-24)

b.The annual optimization review shall be performed by persons qualified to make the required determinations and adjustments.(7-1-24)

c.Following the annual optimization review, the school district shall submit to the Division written verification indicating (1) the systems identified by the commissioning agent, including those identified in this Section are functioning as they were at the initial commissioning; and (2) identifying the persons performing the optimization and their qualifications.(7-1-24)

04.Commissioning Anniversary Date. The date upon which the commissioning agent provides the school district with the required written report described in Paragraph 038.04.b. of these rules shall be the commissioning anniversary date for purposes of this Section. If a school district seeks to qualify a building for the building replacement value calculation, the annual optimization review shall be performed within thirty (30) days of the annual commissioning anniversary date following the first year the building is in operation. The written verification required by Paragraph 038.03.e. of these rules is due to the Division not later than sixty (60) days after the annual commissioning anniversary date.(7-1-24)

05.Fundamental Building Commissioning Requirements.(7-1-24)

a.School districts seeking to qualify a building for the building replacement value calculation shall engage a building commissioning agent.(7-1-24)

b.The commissioning agent must document the owner’s requirements for each commissioned system in the facility. All HVAC and controls systems, duct work and piping, renewable and alternative technologies, lighting controls and day lighting, waste heat recovery, and any other advanced technologies incorporated in the building must be commissioned. Building envelope systems must also be verified. The owner’s requirements for these systems may include efficiency targets and other performance criteria such as temperature and lighting levels that will define the performance criteria for the functional performance testing that occurs prior to acceptance.

c.The commissioning agent shall include commissioning requirements in the project construction documents. This includes the scope of commissioning for the project, the systems to be commissioned, and the various requirements related to schedule, submittal reviews, testing, training, O & M manuals, and warranty reviews.

d.The commissioning agent shall develop and utilize a commissioning plan. This plan must include an overview of the commissioning process for the project, a list of commissioned systems, primary commissioning participants and their roles, a communication and management plan, an outline of the scope of commissioning tasks, a list of work products, a schedule, and a description of any commissioning testing activities.(7-1-24)

e.The commissioning agent must submit a report to the owner once the commissioning plan has been executed.(7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.39.30.201 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.39.30.500 Permits and Plan Review

01.Annual Permit. In lieu of an individual permit for each minor alteration to an already approved building, the Division may issue an annual permit upon application therefor to any state agency or state governmental organization regularly employing one (1) or more qualified trade persons in the building, structure or on the premises or campus owned or operated by the applicant for the permit. The agency to whom an annual permit is issued shall keep a detailed record of alterations made under such annual permit. The Division shall be allowed access to such records upon request or such records shall be filed with the Division as designated. The permit holder shall request inspections and make the work accessible for inspection as required by the adopted codes and herein.(7-1-24)

02.Plans Not Required. Plans are not required for group U occupancies of Type V conventional lightframe wood construction.(7-1-24)

03.Fees.(7-1-24)

a.Technical Service Fee. One hundred dollars ($100) per hour.(7-1-24)

b.Building Permit Fees. The determination of value or valuation will be made by the administrator and includes the total value of all construction work for which a permit is issued.

(7-1-26)

c.Fees for Annual Permits. A fee for inspections performed on annual permits shall be charged at the rate of one hundred dollars ($100) per inspection. The Division shall bill the applicant for annual permits and failure of the applicant to pay the fee within sixty (60) days may result in cancellation of the annual permit.(7-1-24)

d.Plan Review Fees. Plan review fees shall be charged at an hourly rate of one hundred dollars ($100) per hour up to a maximum of sixty-five percent (65%) of the calculated building permit fee with a minimum required fee of forty percent (40%) of the calculated building permit fee. All requests for plan review services shall be accompanied by a payment in the amount of at least forty percent (40%) of the calculated building permit fee. Upon completion of the plan review, any additional fees, above the minimum required, are due to the Division by the requesting party.(7-1-24)

TABLE 1-A - BUILDING PERMIT FEES

Total ValuationFee $1 to $500= $16.45 $501 to $2,000= $16.45 for the first $500 plus $2.14 for each additional $100, or fraction thereof, to and including $2,000 $2,001 to $25,000= $48.48 for the first $2,000 plus $9.80 for each additional $1,000, or fraction thereof, to and including $25,000 $25,001 to $50,000= $274.23 for the first $25,000 plus $7.07 for each additional $1,000, or fraction thereof, to and including $50,000 $50,001 to $100,000= $450.63 for the first $50,000 plus $4.90 for each additional $1,000, or fraction thereof, to and including $100,000 $100,001 to $500,000= $695.63 for the first $100,000 plus $3.92 for each additional $1,000, or fraction thereof, to and including $500,000 $500,001 to $1,000,000= $2,263.63 for the first $500,000 plus $3.33 for each additional $1,000, or fraction thereof, to and including $1,000,000 $1,000,001 to $5,000,000= $3,926.13 for the first $1,000,000 plus $2.56 for each additional $1,000, or fraction thereof, to and including $5,000,000 $5,000,001 to $10,000,000= $14,146.13 for the first $5,000,000 plus $1.93 for each additional $1,000, or fraction thereof, to and including $10,000,000 $10,000,001 and up= $23,771.13 for the first $10,000,000 plus $1.40 for each additional $1,000, or fraction thereof

IDAPA 24.39.30.501 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.39.30.600 Idaho Building Codes

Pursuant to Sections 39-4109 and 39-4109A, Idaho Code, t he Board adopts the following international codes with identified amendments: (7-1-24)

01.International Building Code. The 2018 Edition, including appendices pertaining to building accessibility, with the following amendments:(7-1-24)

a.Delete Section 305.2.3 and replace with the following: 305.2.3 Twelve (12) or fewer children in a dwelling unit. A facility such as the above within a dwelling unit and having twelve (12) or fewer children receiving such day care shall be classified as a Group R-3 occupancy or shall comply with the International Residential Code.

i.Delete Section 308.2.4 and replace with the following: 308.2.4 Five (5) or fewer persons receiving custodial care. A facility with five (5) or fewer persons receiving custodial care shall be classified as a Group R-3 occupancy or shall comply with the International Residential Code.(7-1-24)

ii.Delete Section 308.3.2 and replace with the following: 308.3.2 Five (5) or fewer persons receiving medical care. A facility with five (5) or fewer persons receiving medical care shall be classified as a Group R-3 occupancy.(7-1-24)

iii.Delete Section 308.5.4 and replace with the following: 308.5.4 Persons receiving care in a dwelling unit. A facility such as the above within a dwelling unit and having twelve (12) or fewer children receiving day care or having five (5) or fewer persons receiving custodial care shall be classified as a Group R-3 occupancy or shall comply with the International Residential Code.(7-1-24)

b.Section 310.4: Add the following: “Dwelling units providing day care for twelve (12) or fewer children”.(7-1-24)

c.Section 310.4.1. Delete and replace with the following: 310.4.1 Care facilities within a dwelling.

Care facilities for twelve (12) or fewer children receiving day care or for five (5) or fewer persons receiving personal care or custodial care that are within a one- or two-family dwelling are permitted to comply with the International Residential Code.(7-1-24)

d.Add new Section 602.1.2: 602.1.2 Alternative provisions. As an alternative to the construction types defined in Sections 602.2 through 602.5, buildings and structures erected or to be erected, altered, or extended in height or area may be classified as construction type IV-A, IV-B, or IV-C in accordance with the provisions adopted in Paragraph 004.01.b of these rules. Buildings and structures classified as construction type IV-A, IV-B, or IV-C shall comply with the provisions adopted in Paragraph 004.01.h of these rules and all other applicable provisions of this code.(7-1-24)

e.Table 2902.1 Minimum Number of Required Plumbing Fixtures. Delete footnote ͤ and replace with the following: e For business occupancies, excluding restaurants , and mercantile occupancies with an occupant load of thirty (30) or fewer, service sinks shall not be required.(7-1-24)

f.Table 2902.1 Minimum Number of Required Plumbing Fixtures. Delete footnote f and replace with the following: f Drinking fountains are not required for an occupant load of thirty (30) or fewer.(7-1-24)

g.Section 3113 Relocatable Buildings. Delete.(7-1-24)

02.International Building Code, 2021 Edition. The following provisions of the 2021 Edition related to mass timber construction:(7-1-24)

a.In Section 202, the definitions of the terms MASS TIMBER; NONCOMBUSTIBLE PROTECTION (FOR MASS TIMBER); SECONDARY STRUCTURAL MEMBERS; and WALL, LOAD BEARING;(7-1-24)

b.Sections 403.3.2, 508.4.4.1, 509.4.1.1, 602.4 through 602.4.3.6, 703.6, 703.7, 704.4, 722.7 through 722.7.2.2, 1705.5.3, 1705.20, 2304.10.1, 3313.1 through 3313.3.3, 3313.5, and 3314.1;(7-1-24)

c.Tables 504.3, 504.4, 506.2, 601, 705.5, 722.7.1(1), 722.7.1(2), and 1705.5.3, including any note following each table adopted in this subparagraph; and(7-1-24)

d.In Chapter 35, the referenced standards ANSI/APA PRG 320—2019: Standard for Performancerated Cross-laminated Timber, referenced in Sections 602.4 and 2303.1.4, and ASTM D3498—03(2011): Standard Specification for Adhesives for Field-Gluing Plywood to Lumber Framing for Floor Systems, referenced in Section

IDAPA 24.39.30.703 7.(7-1-24)

03.International Residential Code, 2018 Edition. Parts I, II, III, and IX of the 2018 Edition for one (1)- and two (2)- family dwellings, with the following amendments:(7-1-24)

a.Section R101.2 Scope. Delete the exception and replace with the following: Exception: The following shall also be permitted to be constructed in accordance with this code: 1. Owner-occupied lodging houses with five (5) or fewer guestrooms and ten (10) or fewer total occupants. 2. A care facility with five (5) or fewer persons receiving custodial care within a dwelling unit or single-family dwelling. 3. A care facility for five (5) or fewer persons receiving personal care that are within a dwelling unit or single-family dwelling. 4. A care facility with twelve (12) or fewer children receiving day care within a dwelling unit or single-family dwelling.(7-1-24)

b.Section R105.2. Amend Item number 7 under the “Building” subheading Replace the words “24 inches (610 mm)” with “four (4) feet (1219) mm)”(7-1-24)

c.Section R105.2. Add the following exemption under the “Building” subheading: 11. Flag poles.

d.Section R301.2.1.2 Protection of Openings. Delete.(7-1-24)

e.Table R302.1(1). Delete and replace with the following:

TABLE R302.1(1) - EXTERIOR WALLS

EXTERIOR WALL ELEMENT

MINIMUM FIRE-RESISTANCE

RATING

MINIMUM FIRE

SEPARATION

DISTANCE

Walls Fire-resistance rated 1 hour-tested in accordance with ASTM E 119, UL263, or Section 703.3 of the International Building Code with exposure from both sides < 3 feet Not fire-resistance rated0 hours≥ 3 feet Projections Fire-resistance rated 1 hour on the underside, or heavy timber, or fire retardant-treated wood a,b ≥ 2 feet to < 3 feet Not fire-resistance rated0 hours≥ 3 feet Openings in Walls Not allowedN/A< 3 feet 25% maximum of wall area0 hours≥ 3 feet to < 5 feet Unlimited0 hours5 feet N/A = Not Applicable The fire-resistance rating shall be permitted to be reduced to zero (0) hours on the underside of the eave overhang if fireblocking is provided from the wall top plate to the underside of the roof sheathing.

The fire-resistance rating shall be permitted to be reduced to zero (0) hours on the underside of the rake overhang where gable vent openings are not installed.(7-1-24)

f.Delete Table R302.6 Dwelling-Garage Separation and replace with the following table:

g.Section R302.13 Fire protection of floors. Delete.(7-1-24)

h.Section R303.4. Delete and replace with the following: Mechanical Ventilation. Dwelling units shall be provided with whole-house mechanical ventilation in accordance with Section M1505.4.(7-1-24)

i.Section R313.1 Townhouse automatic fire sprinkler systems. Delete the exception and replace with the following: Exception: Automatic residential fire sprinkler systems shall not be required in townhouses where either two (2) one (1)-hour fire-resistance-rated walls or a common two (2)-hour fire-resistance rated wall, as specified in item number 2 of Section R302.2.2 is installed between dwelling units or when additions or alterations are made to existing townhouses that do not have an automatic residential fire sprinkler system installed.(7-1-24)

j.Section R313.2 One- and two-family dwellings automatic fire sprinkler systems. Delete. (7-1-24)

k.Section R314.2.2 Alterations, repairs and additions Exception Item #2. Delete.(7-1-24)

l.Section R315.2.2 Alterations, repairs and additions Exception Item #2. Delete.(7-1-24)

m.Section R322.1.10 As-built elevation documentation. Delete.(7-1-24)

n.Tables R403 Minimum Depth (D) and Width (W) of Crushed Stone Footings (inches), R403.1(1)

Minimum Width and Thickness for Concrete Footings for Light-Frame Construction (inches), R403.1(2) Minimum Width and Thickness for Concrete Footings for Light-Frame Construction and Brick Veneer (inches), and R403.1(3)

Minimum Width and Thickness for Concrete Footings with Cast-In-Place or Fully Grouted Masonry Wall Construction (inches). Delete.(7-1-24)

o.Add the following as Table R403.1:(7-1-24)

PenetrationsAll Comply with Section R302.4< 3 feet None required≥ 3 feet SeparationMaterial From the residence, attics, and habitable rooms above the garage Not less than 5/8-inch Type X gypsum board or equivalent applied to the garage side Structure(s) supporting floor/ceiling assemblies used for separation required by this section Garages located less than 3 feet from a dwelling unit on the same lot Not less than 5/8-inch Type X gypsum board or equivalent applied to the interior side of exterior walls that are within this area EXTERIOR WALL ELEMENT MINIMUM FIRE-RESISTANCE RATING MINIMUM FIRE SEPARATION DISTANCE TABLE R403.1 MINIMUM WIDTH OF CONCRETE, PRECAST, OR MASONRY FOOTINGS (inches)

For SI: 1 inch = 25.4 mm, 1 pound per square foot = 0.0479 kPa.

Where minimum footing width is twelve (12) inches, use of a single wythe of solid or fully grouted twelve (12)-inch nominal concrete masonry units is permitted.(7-1-24)

p.Section R403.1.1. Delete and replace with the following: R403.1.1 Minimum size. Minimum sizes for concrete and masonry footings shall be as set forth in Table R403.1 and Figure R403.1(1). The footing width (W) shall be based on the load bearing value of the soil in accordance with Table R401.4.1. Spread footings shall be at least six (6) inches in thickness (T). Footing projections (P) shall be at least two (2) inches and shall not exceed the thickness of the footing. The size of footings supporting piers and columns shall be based on the tributary load and allowable soil pressure in accordance with Table R401.4.1. Footings for wood foundations shall be in accordance with the details set forth in Section R403.2 and Figures R403.1(2) and R403.1(3).(7-1-24)

q.Section R602.10. Delete and replace with the following: Buildings shall be braced in accordance with this Section or, when applicable Section R602.12, or the most current edition of APA System Report SR-102 as an alternate method. Where a building, or portion thereof, does not comply with one (1) or more of the bracing requirements in this Section, those portions shall be designed and constructed in accordance with Section R301.1.

04.International Existing Building Code. 2018 Edition.(7-1-24)

05.International Energy Conservation Code – Commercial Provisions. The 2018 Edition with the following amendments:(7-1-24)

a.Add new Section C101.5.2: C101.5.2 Industrial, electronic, and manufacturing equipment.

Buildings or portions thereof that are heated or cooled exclusively to maintain the required operating temperature of industrial, electronic, or manufacturing equipment shall be exempt from the provisions of this code. Such buildings or portions thereof shall be separated from connected conditioned space by building thermal envelope assemblies complying with this code.(7-1-24)

LOAD-BEARING VALUE OF SOIL (psf) 1,5002,0003,000≥ 4,000 Conventional light-frame construction 1-Story12121212 2-Story15121212 3-Story23171212 4-inch brick veneer over light frame or 8-inch hollow concrete masonry 1-Story12121212 2-Story21161212 3-Story32241612 8-inch solid or fully grouted masonry 1-Story16121212 2-Story29211412 3-Story42322116

b.Add the following Exemptions to section C402.1.1:(7-1-24)

i.Exemption 4. Accessory utility and storage buildings and sports practice buildings accessory to A, B, and E occupancies where buildings maintain no heating or cooling or where intermittent heating and cooling systems are installed.(7-1-24)

ii.Exemption 5. Buildings for domestic water wells, irrigation wells, sewer pump facilities, and sewer lift station buildings where equipment produces internal heat loads and where intermittent heating or cooling is provided to prevent freezing or overheating of equipment.(7-1-24)

c.Add the following as exception number 7 under Section C403.5 Economizers (Prescriptive): 7.

Unusual outdoor air contaminate conditions – Systems where special outside air filtration and treatment for the reduction and treatment of unusual outdoor contaminants, makes an air economizer infeasible.(7-1-24)

06.International Energy Conservation Code – Residential Provisions. The 2018 Edition with the following amendments:(7-1-24)

a.R202 General Definitions. Add the following to the definition of “Conditioned Space”: This definition shall not apply to garage spaces or other similar spaces where heating or cooling is installed for frost protection or intermittent use.(7-1-24)

b.Table R402.1.2 Insulation and Fenestration Requirements by Component. Delete the rows in climate zones “5 and Marine 4” and “6” and replace with the following:

c.Table R402.1.2 - Insulation and Fenestration Requirements by Component. Add the following as footnote k to the Table title: k. For residential log home building thermal envelope construction requirements see Section R402.6.(7-1-24)

d.Table R402.1.4 Equivalent U-Factors. Delete the rows in climate zones “5 and Marine 4” and “6” and replace with the following:

TABLE R402.1.2

INSULATION AND FENESTRATION REQUIREMENTS BY COMPONENT

U- Factor b, e Wood Frame i 50.320.55NR38 20 or 13+5 h 13/1730 g 15/1910, 2 ft15/19 60.300.55NR49 22 or 13+5 h 15/2030 g 15/1910, 4 ft15/19 TABLE R402.1.4 EQUIVALENT U-FACTORS Frame Wall 50.320.550.0300.0600.0820.0330.0500.055

e.Section R402.4.1.2. Add the following exception: Visual Inspection. The Permit Holder will determine at the time of permit application the method of determining building envelope tightness. A visual inspection shall be considered acceptable in lieu of testing when the items listed in Table R402.4.1.1, applicable to the method of construction, are field verified.(7-1-24)

f.Add new Section R402.6: R402.6 Residential log home thermal envelope. Residential log home construction shall comply with Section R401 (General), Section R402.4 (Air leakage), Section R402.5 (Maximum fenestration U-factor and SHGC), Section R403.1 (Controls), the mandatory sections of Sections R403.3 through R403.9, Section R404 (Electrical Power and Lighting Systems), and either 1., 2., or 3. as follows: 1. Sections R402.2 through R402.3, Section R403.3.1 (Insulation), Section R404.1 (Lightning equipment), and Table R402.6 (Log Home Prescriptive Thermal Envelope Requirements by Component). 2. Section R405 (Simulated Performance Alternative).

3. REScheck (U.S. Department of Energy Building Codes Program).(7-1-24)

g.Add new Table R402.6: 60.300.550.0260.0570.0600.0330.0500.055 TABLE R402.6 LOG HOME PRESCRIPTIVE THERMAL ENVELOPE REQUIREMENTS BY COMPONENT Min.

Average Log Size In Inches Crawl Space 5, 6 - High efficiency equipment path 0.320.60NR4953015/1910, 4 ft.10/13 The fenestration U-factor column excludes skylights. The SHGC column applies to all glazed fenestration.

R-5 shall be added to the required slab edge R-values for heated slabs. 90% AFUE natural gas or propane, 84% AFUE oil, or 15 SEER heat pump heating equipment (zonal electric resistance heating equipment such as electric base board electric resistance heating equipment as the sole source for heating is considered compliant with the high efficiency equipment path).

“15/19” means R-15 continuous insulated sheathing on the interior or exterior of the home or R-19 cavity insulation at the interior of the basement wall. “15/19” shall be permitted to be met with R-13 cavity insulation on the interior of the basement wall plus R-5 continuous insulated sheathing on the interior or exterior of the home. “10/13” means R-10 continuous insulated sheathing on the interior or exterior of the home or R-13 cavity insulation at the interior of the basement wall.

TABLE R402.1.4

EQUIVALENT U-FACTORS

Frame Wall 601. – 999.(RESERVED) 50.320.60NR4983010/1310, 2 ft.10/13 60.300.60NR4983015/1910, 4 ft.10/13 TABLE R402.6 LOG HOME PRESCRIPTIVE THERMAL ENVELOPE REQUIREMENTS BY COMPONENT Min.

Average Log Size In Inches Crawl Space The fenestration U-factor column excludes skylights. The SHGC column applies to all glazed fenestration.

R-5 shall be added to the required slab edge R-values for heated slabs. 90% AFUE natural gas or propane, 84% AFUE oil, or 15 SEER heat pump heating equipment (zonal electric resistance heating equipment such as electric base board electric resistance heating equipment as the sole source for heating is considered compliant with the high efficiency equipment path).

“15/19” means R-15 continuous insulated sheathing on the interior or exterior of the home or R-19 cavity insulation at the interior of the basement wall. “15/19” shall be permitted to be met with R-13 cavity insulation on the interior of the basement wall plus R-5 continuous insulated sheathing on the interior or exterior of the home. “10/13” means R-10 continuous insulated sheathing on the interior or exterior of the home or R-13 cavity insulation at the interior of the basement wall.

24.39.10 Rules of the Idaho Electrical Board

IDAPA 24.39.10.000 Legal Authority

The rules are promulgated pursuant to Sections 54-1001, 54-100 5, 54-1006, 54-1007, 54-1009, 54-1018, 67-2604, 67-2614, 67-9406 and 67-9409, Idaho Code.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.39.10.001 Scope

The rules prescribe criteria and fees for issuance of licenses, electrical permits, and inspections of electrical installations, civil penalties, and adoption and amendment of the National Electrical Code.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.39.10.002 Definitions

01.Associated Buildings.

All buildings, structures, and fixtures used for domestic purposes and in connection with the primary or secondary residence, such as garages, sheds, barns, or shops.(3-28-23)

02.Person. Includes an individual, company, firm, partnership, corporation, association or other organization.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.39.10.003 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.39.10.100 Licensure and Registration

01.Residential Electrician.

An applicant must pass an examination designated by the Board and submit evidence of a minimum of four thousand (4,000) hours of work experience and an apprentice making installations as defined in Section 54-1003A(3), Idaho Code, and satisfactory competition of a two-year sequence of instruction approved by the Idaho Division of Career Technical Education and the Idaho Electrical Board.(4-4-25)

02.Journeyman Electrician. An applicant must pass an examination designated by the Board and either (a) submit evidence of a minimum of eight thousand (8,000) hours of work experience as an apprentice making electrical installations in accordance with the requirements of the jurisdiction in which the applicant obtained the experience and satisfactory completion of a four-year sequence of instruction approved by the Idaho Division of Career-Technical Education, or (b) submit proof of sixteen thousand (16,000) hours of electrical experience in accordance with the requirements of the jurisdiction in which the applicant obtained the experience.(4-4-25)

a.Examination. An applicant may sit for the exam after showing proof of completion of either the approved 4-year sequence of instruction or 16,000 hours of electrical experience.(3-28-23)

b. Provisional Journeyman Electrician. A provisional journeyman electrician license can be issued to an applicant who has completed the 16,000 hours of electrical experience but has not yet passed the examination.

c. Work experience in appliance repair, motor winding, or communications will not count towards the requirements to take the journeyman examination or obtain a provisional journeyman or journeyman license.

d.No more than two thousand (2,000) hours of work experience gained while engaged in the practice of a limited electrical installer or trainee may be counted toward the satisfaction of the experience requirements for journeyman licensure.(3-28-23)

3. Master Electrician. A master electrician does not need to also hold a journeyman license.

04.Limited Electrical Installer. An applicant must submit evidence of a minimum of four thousand (4,000) hours of work experience in the same limited category in accordance with the requirements of the jurisdiction in which the applicant obtained the experience.(3-28-23)

05.Electrical Contractor and Limited Electrical Contractor. An applicant must pass an examination designated by the Board and submit an application. Each contractor shall designate one supervising electrician who shall be responsible for the activities of the license. Any such supervising electrician shall not represent any other applicant for a contractor’s license. A supervising electrician holding more than one electrician license shall not use multiple licenses to represent more than one contractor.(4-4-25)

a.In the event the working relationship between a contractor and its supervis ing electrician terminates, the contractor will notify the Division in writing within ten (10) business days of the date of termination.

The contractor may not purchase permits or make electrical installations unless another duly qualified supervising electrician is designated.(4-4-25)

IDAPA 24.39.10.101 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.39.10.200 Practice Standards

01.Electrical Contracting Work. Contracting work includes electrical maintenance or repair work, in addition to new electrical installations, unless such work is expressly exempted by Section 54-1016, Idaho Code.

02.Contractor Scope. A contractor’s allowable scope of work is the same as the scope of its licensed employee.(3-28-23)

03.Supervision.(3-28-23)

a.The master electrician, journeyman electrician, residential electrician or limited electrical installer shall be designated the supervising electrician; must be available during working hours to carry out the duties of supervising, as set forth herein; and will be responsible for supervision of electrical installations made by said contractor as provided by Section 54-1010, Idaho Code. Any supervisory activities shall fall within the supervising electrician’s licensed scope of practice.(4-4-25)

i.A master electrician, journeyman electrician, residential electrician, or limited electrical installer is not qualified for one (1) year as the supervising electrician if his contractor license was revoked.(4-4-25)

ii.An individual contractor may act as his own supervising master electrician, journeyman electrician, residential electrician, or limited electrical installer upon the condition that he holds an active master electrician, journeyman electrician, residential electrician, or limited electrical installer license.(4-4-25)

b.The employing contractor or limited electrical contractor must ensure each apprentice, trainee, and provisional journeyman electrician performs electrical work only under the constant on-the-job supervision and training of a master electrician, journeyman electrician, residential electrician or limited electrical installer. (4-4-25)

c.A journeyman who is an employee of a company, corporation, firm, or association with a facility account may sign as supervising electrician for that facility account in addition to signing as supervising journeyman for his own contractor’s license so long as the journeyman is listed as the owner.(3-28-23)

04.Connecting and Energizing Prior to Inspections. At the request of a licensed electrical contractor and upon receipt of a copy of an electrical permit, a power supply company may connect and energize an electrical service, to the line side of the service disconnect, prior to a passed inspection in the following situations: to preserve life or property or to provide temporary service for construction. Any contractor energizing an electrical installation prior to an inspection assumes full responsibility for the installation.(3-28-23)

05.Limited Electrical Installations. A limited electrical installer must be employed by an electrical contractor or limited electrical contractor in the same restricted category and may only countersign a limited electrical contractor’s license application as supervising limited electrical installer for work within the same restricted category.

Limited electrical installations must comply with the National Electrical Code, as amended herein. The following categories of electrical installations constitute limited electrical installations, the practice of which shall require an electrical contractor or limited electrical contractor license and supervision by a journeyman, master electrician, or limited electrical installer:(3-28-23)

a.Elevator, Dumbwaiter, Escalator, or Moving-Walk Electrical. An elevator electrical limited licensee is only authorized to install, maintain, repair, and replace equipment, controls, and wiring beyond the disconnect switch in the machine room of the elevator and pertaining directly to the operation and control thereof when located in the elevator shaft and machine room.(3-28-23)

b.Sign Electrical. A sign electrical limited licensee is only authorized to install, maintain, repair, and replace equipment, controls, and wiring on the secondary side of sign disconnecting means; provided the disconnecting means is located on the sign or within sight therefrom.(3-28-23)

c.Manufacturing or Assembling Equipment. A licensed limited electrical manufacturing or assembling equipment installer is only authorized to install, maintain, repair, and replace equipment, controls, and accessory wiring, integral to the specific equipment, on the load side of the equipment disconnecting means.

Electrical service and feeder are to be installed by others. The licensee may also install circuitry in modules or fabricated enclosures for the purpose of connecting the necessary components which individually bear a label from a nationally recognized testing laboratory when such equipment is designed and manufactured for a specific job installation.(3-28-23)

i.This subsection does not apply to a limited electrical manufacturing or assembling equipment installer installing electrical wiring, equipment, and apparatus in modular buildings as that phrase is defined in Section 39-4105, Idaho Code. Only journeyman electricians and electrical apprentices, employed by an electrical contractor, may perform such installations.(3-28-23)

d.Limited Energy Electrical. Limited energy systems are defined as fire and security alarm systems, class 2 and class 3 signaling circuits, key card operators, nurse call systems, motor and electrical apparatus controls and other limited energy applications covered by the NEC. Unless exempted by Section 54-1016, Idaho Code, any person who installs, maintains, replaces or repairs electrical wiring and equipment for limited energy systems in facilities other than one (1) or two (2) family dwellings shall be required to have a valid limited energy limited electrical license.(3-28-23)

i. Limited energy systems do not include, and no license of any type is required for, the installation of landscape sprinkler controls or communication circuits, wires and apparatus that include telephone systems, telegraph facilities, outside wiring for fire and security alarm systems which are used for communication purposes, and central station systems of a similar nature, PBX systems, audio-visual and sound systems, public address and intercom systems, data communication systems, radio and television systems, antenna systems and other similar systems.

e.Irrigation Sprinkler Electrical. An irrigation system electrical limited licensee is only authorized to install, maintain, repair and replace equipment, controls and wiring beyond the disconnect switch supplying power to the electric irrigation machine. The irrigation machine is considered to include the hardware, motors and controls of the irrigation machine and underground conductors connecting the control centers on the irrigation machine to the load side of the disconnecting device. Disconnect device to be installed by others.(3-28-23)

f.Well Driller and Installer.(4-4-25)

g.Water Pump Installer. A license holder in this category is only authorized to perform the following typ es of installations:(3-28-23)

i.Single or three (3) phase water pumps: install, maintain, repair and replace all electrical equipment, wires, and accessories from the pump motor up to the load side, including fuses, of the disconnecting device.

Disconnecting device to be installed by others.(3-28-23)

ii.Domestic water pumps, one hundred twenty/two hundred forty (120/240) volt, single phase, sixty (60) amps or less: install, maintain, repair and replace all electrical equipment, wires, and accessories from the pump motor up to and including the disconnecting device.(3-28-23)

iii.Temporarily connect into a power source to test the installations, provided that all test wiring is removed before the installer leaves the site.(3-28-23)

iv.Individual residential wastewater pumping units. Install, maintain, repair and replace all electrical equipment, wires, and accessories from the pump motor up to and including the disconnecting device for systems that serve one-family, two-family, or three-family residential installations.(3-28-23)

h.Refrigeration, Heating, and Air-Conditioning Electrical Installer. A license holder in this category is only authorized to perform the following types of installations, which installations shall be limited to factoryassembled, packaged units:(3-28-23)

i.Heating Units (single phase): install, repair, and maintain all electrical equipment, wires, and accessories from the unit up to the load side, including fuses, of the disconnecting device. Disconnecting device to be installed by others.(3-28-23)

ii.Refrigeration, Air-Conditioning Equipment and Heat Pumps (single phase): install, repair, and maintain all electrical equipment, wires, and accessories from the unit up to the load side, including fuses, of the disconnecting device. Disconnecting device to be installed by others.(3-28-23)

iii.Refrigeration, Air-Conditioning and Heating Systems (three (3) phase): install, maintain, and repair all electrical equipment and accessories up to the load side, including fuses, of the disconnecting device.

Disconnecting device to be installed by others.(3-28-23)

i.Outside Wireman. Applicants for this license category shall provide documentation of having completed an electrical lineman apprenticeship program or similar program approved by the U.S. Department of Labor, Office of Apprenticeship. Any person currently licensed in this category is only authorized to perform the following types of installation(3-28-23)

i.Overhead distribution and transmission lines in excess of six hundred (600) volts(3-28-23)

ii.Underground distribution and transmission lines in excess of six hundred (600) volts.(3-28-23)

iii.Substation and switchyard construction in excess of six hundred (600) volts.(3-28-23)

j.Solar Photovoltaic. Applicants for this license category shall provide proof of photovoltaic installer certification by the North American Board of Certified Energy Practitioners (NABCEP) or equivalent. Any person licensed in this category is only authorized to perform the following types of installations:(3-28-23)

i.Solar Photovoltaic DC Systems: Install, maintain, repair, and replace all electrical equipment, wires, and accessories up to and including the inverter.(3-28-23)

ii.Solar Photovoltaic micro-inverter/AC Systems: Install, maintain, repair, and replace all electrical equipment, wires, and accessories up to and including the AC combiner box.(3-28-23)

06.Certification and Approval of Electrical Products and Materials. All materials, devices, fittings, equipment, apparatus, luminaires, and appliances installed or to be used in installations that are supplied with electric energy must be approved as provided in one (1) of the following methods:(3-28-23)

a.Testing Laboratory. Be tested, examined, and certified (Listed) by a Nationally Recognized Testing Laboratory (NRTL).(3-28-23)

b.Field Evaluation. Non-listed electrical equipment may be approved for use through a field evaluation process performed in accordance with recognized practices and procedures such as those contained in the 2012 edition of NFPA 791 - Recommended Practice and Procedures for Unlabeled Electrical Equipment Evaluation published by the National Fire Protection Association (NFPA). Such evaluations shall be conducted by:(3-28-23)

i.A field evaluation body approved by the authority having jurisdiction. The field evaluation body shall m eet minimum recognized standards for competency, such as NFPA 790 - Standard for Competency of Third- Party Field Evaluation Bodies, 2012 edition, published by the National Fire Protection Association (NFPA); or

ii.In the case of industrial machinery only, as defined by NFPA 79 - Electrical Standard for Industrial Machinery, 2012 edition, a field evaluation may be performed by a professional engineer currently licensed to practice electrical engineering by the state of Idaho and who is not involved in the design of the equipment being evaluated or the facility in which the equipment is to be installed.(3-28-23)

c.Availability of NFPA Standards. The most recent edition of NFPA 790 - Standard for Competency of Third-Party Field Evaluation Bodies and NFPA 791 - Recommended Practice and Procedures for Unlabeled Electrical Equipment Evaluation published by the National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) are available at the Division.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.39.10.201 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.39.10.300 Civil Penalties

The acts described in this section subject the violator to a civil penalty not to exceed one thousand dollars ($1,000) for each separate count or offense.(3-28-23)

01.Statute or Rule. Failure to comply with any provision of Chapter 10, Title 54, Idaho Code or Board Rule.(3-28-23)

02.Licensure or Registration. Except as provided by Section 54-1016, Idaho Code, performance of electrical work without an active license or registration as required by Chapter 10, Title 54, Idaho Code. General contractors registered pursuant to Section 54-1016, Idaho Code who submit a bid on a multi-trade construction project which includes a licensed electrical contractor’s pricing is not considered as acting or attempting to act as an electrical contractor.(3-28-23)

03.Performance Outside Scope. Performance of any electrical installation, alteration, or maintenance by a limited electrical contractor, limited electrical installer, or trainee outside the scope of the limited electrical license or registration.(3-28-23)

04.Employees. Knowing employment of a person who does not hold an active license or registration to perform electrical work.(3-28-23)

5. Supervision. Working as an apprentice or limited electrical installer trainee without the required journeyman, master, or installer supervision or employing an apprentice or trainee without providing the required supervision.(3-28-23)

6. Fees, Permits, and Inspections. Failure to obtain a required permit, pay applicable fees, properly post a permit, or request an inspection of any electrical work.(3-28-23)

07.Corrections. Failure to make corrections in the time allotted in the notice on any electrical work.

08.Misrepresentation of Fees. Misrepresentation of the permit or inspection fees to the customer.

09.Advertising. Advertising to engage in the business, trade, practice, or work of an electrical contractor as defined in Sections 54-1003A and 54-1010, Idaho Code, without holding a current and valid electrical contractor license issued by the Division or advertising without including the contractor license number in the advertisement. Advertising includes, but is not limited to: newspaper, telephone directory, community flier ads or notices; telephone, television, radio, internet, or door-to-door solicitations.(3-28-23)

10.Order. Failure to comply with any lawful order of the Board or Division administrator. (3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.39.10.301 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.39.10.500 Permits and Inspections

01.Permits and Inspections.

a.Permits. All electrical permits shall be purchased before work is commenced. Payment of the total permit fee shall be made prior to a final inspection.(3-28-23)

i.No wiring or equipment may be concealed in any manner from access or sight until the work has been inspected and approved for cover by the electrical inspector except for those installations pursuant to Section 54-1005(3), Idaho Code.(3-28-23)

b.Completion of Installation. Each installation made by a permit holder or his authorized representative shall request an inspection from the Division.(3-28-23)

c.Expiration of Permits. Every permit issued shall expire and become null and void after three hundred sixty-five (365) days from the purchase date. A permit may be renewed for an additional year upon receipt of Division approval and payment of a sixty-five dollar ($65) renewal fee.(3-28-23)

d.Transferring a Permit. A permit may be transferred to another eligible party if such party provides to the Division written authorization signed and notarized by the original permit holder consenting to the transfer itself and assigning all responsibilities and conditions incorporated into the original permit issuance. A permit may be transferred to the owner of the property on which the electrical work is to be performed and for which the permit was issued or such owner’s designated legal agent in cases where such owner has terminated his legal relationship with the electrical contractor who originally obtained the permit. An administrative fee in the amount of forty-five dollars ($45) for the transfer of the permit shall be assessed by the Division.(3-28-23)

02.Fee Schedule.(3-28-23)

a.Residential Permits. Includes associated buildings with wiring being constructed on each property.

i.New residential construction permits:(3-28-23)

ii.Existing Dwelling Unit Permit: sixty-five dollars ($65) per inspection.(3-28-23)

b. Other Installations Including Industrial and Commercial Permits. The following fees shall apply to industrial and commercial installations and installations not specifically mentioned elsewhere in this Fee Schedule.

The electrical cost shall be the cost to the owner of all labor charges and all other costs that are incurred to complete the installation of all wiring and equipment installed as part of the system. Factory assembled industrial machinery to be operated by electrical energy shall not be included in calculating these fees.(3-28-23)

New One- Family Dwelling Unit Up to 1,500 square feet of living space$130 1,501 to 2,500 square feet of living space$195 2,501 to 3,500 square feet of living space$260 3,501 to 4,500 square feet of living space$325 Over 4,500 square feet of living space $325 plus $65 for each additional 1,000 square feet or portion thereof New Two- and Multi- Family Dwelling Unit Two-family dwellings$260 Multi-family dwellings$130 per building plus $65 per unit

i.Wiring cost not exceeding ten thousand dollars ($10,000): sixty dollars ($60) plus two percent (2%) of total wiring cost.(3-28-23)

ii.Wiring cost over ten thousand dollars ($10,000) but not exceeding one hundred thousand dollars ($100,000): two hundred sixty dollars ($260) plus one percent (1%) of wiring cost in excess of ten thousand dollars ($10,000).(3-28-23)

iii.Wiring cost over one hundred thousand dollars ($100,000): one thousand one hundred sixty dollars ($1,160) plus one-half of one percent (.5%) of the portion of wiring costs exceeding one hundred thousand dollars ($100,000).(3-28-23)

iv.Small work not exceeding five hundred dollars ($500) in cost and not involving a change in service connections: ten dollars ($10).(3-28-23)

03.Requested Inspection Permit. A sixty-five dollar ($65) fee per inspection.(3-28-23)

04.Reinspection Fees. A fee of sixty-five dollars ($65) per reinspection will be assessed for work not being ready for inspection, inaccurate description of jobsite locations or directions, or failure to respond to notice of correction.(3-28-23)

05.Virtual Inspection Request. Forty-five dollar ($45) fee for Contractors and Specialty Contractors requesting a virtual inspection of qualified installations.(3-28-23)

06.Plan Check Fee. Sixty-five dollar ($65) minimum for one (1) hour or less. Over one (1) hour: sixty-five dollars ($65) plus sixty-five dollars ($65) for each hour, or portion thereof, in excess of one (1) hour.

IDAPA 24.39.10.501 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.39.10.600 Idaho Electrical Code

01.Documents. Und er the provisions of Section 54-1001, Idaho Code, the National Electrical Code, 2023 Edition, (herein NEC) is amended as follows: (4-4-25)

a.Sections 110.3(A) and 110.3(B). Shall not apply to submersible well pumps installed in swimming and marine areas; provided however, such articles shall apply to all other equipment required in the installation of a submersible well pump in such areas except for the actual submersible well pump itself.(4-4-25)

b.Section 210.8(A). Delete reference to 250-volt receptacles.(4-4-25)

c.Section 210.8(A)(5). Delete section 210.8(A) list item (5) and replace with the following:

Unfinished areas of basements.(4-4-25)

d.Section 210.8(A)(7). Delete section 210.8(A) list item (7). Areas with sinks and permanent provisions for food preparation, beverage preparation, or cooking.(4-4-25)

e.Section 210.8(A)(8). Delete section 210.8(A) list item (8) and replace with the following: Sinks located in areas other than kitchens where receptacles are installed within one and eight tenths (1.8) meters (six (6)

feet) of the inside edge of the sink.(4-4-25)

f.Section 210.8(A)(11). Delete section 210.8(A) list item (11) Laundry Areas.(4-4-25)

g.Article 210.8(B). Delete list items (3) Areas with sinks and permanent provisions for food preparation, beverage preparation, or cooking, (4) serving areas with permanent provisions for food serving, or cooking, and (14) Laundry areas.(4-4-25)

h.Section 210.8(B)(7). Delete section 210.8(B) list item (7) and replace with the following: Sinks located in kitchens and any other area where receptacles are installed within one and eight tenths (1.8) meters (six (6)

feet) of the inside edge of the sink.(4-4-25)

i.Section 210.8(D). In dwelling units only, delete list items (7) Dishwashers, (8) Electric ranges, (9)

Wall-mounted ovens, (10) Counter-mounted cooking units, (11) Clothes dryers, and (12) Microwave ovens. (4-4-25)

j.Section 210.8(F). Delete list items (1) Garages that have floors that are located at or below grade level and (2) Accessory buildings.(4-4-25)

k.Section 210.12(B). Shall apply in full. Exception: In one- and two-family dwelling units, Arc-Fault Circuit-Interrupter Protection shall only apply to all branch circuits and outlets supplying bedrooms. All other locations in such units are exempt from the requirements of section 210.12(B).(4-4-25)

l.Section 210.52 (C) add list item (4) - Island Countertop Spaces and Peninsular Countertop Spaces.

If installed, receptacle outlets shall also be permitted to be mounted not more than 300 mm (12 in.) below the countertop or work surface. Receptacles mounted below a countertop or work surface in accordance with this exception shall not be located where the countertop or work surface extends more than 150 mm (6 in.) beyond its support base.(4-4-25)

m.Section 210.52(E)(3). Delete section 210.52(E) list item (3) and replace with the following:

Balconies, Decks, and Porches. Balconies, decks, and porches having an overall area of twenty (20) square feet or more that are accessible from inside the dwelling unit shall have at least one (1) receptacle outlet installed within the perimeter of the balcony, deck, or porch. The receptacle shall not be located more than two (2.0) meters (six and one half (6½) feet) above the balcony, deck, or porch surface.(4-4-25)

n.Section 215.18 Surge Protection shall apply in full. Exception: for dwelling units, surge protection device shall be permitted when installed in compliance with 215.18(B) through (E). Delete section 215.18(A) list item (1).(4-4-25)

o.Article 225.41 Emergency Disconnects. For one- and two-family dwelling units, an emergency disconnecting means shall be permitted when installed in compliance with sections 225.41(A), (B), and (C). (4-4-25)

p.Section 225.42 Surge Protection shall apply in full. Exception: For dwelling units, a surge protection device shall be permitted when installed in compliance with 225.42 (B) though (E). Delete section 225.42(A) list item (1).(4-4-25)

q.Section 230.67 Surge Protection shall apply in full. Exception: For dwelling units, a surge protection device shall be permitted when installed in compliance with 230.67 (B) through (E). Delete section 230.67(A) list item (1).(4-4-25)

r.Article 230.85 Emergency Disconnects. For one- and two-family dwelling units, an emergency disconnecting means shall be permitted when installed in compliance with sections 230.85(A), (B), (D), and (E).

Delete section 230.85(C).(4-4-25)

s.S ection 314.27(C) Boxes at Ceiling-Suspended (Paddle) Fan Outlets. Delete second paragraph.

t.Section 334.10(3). Delete and replace with the following: Other structures permitted to be of Types III, IV, and V construction. Cables shall be concealed within walls, floors, or ceilings that provide a thermal barrier of material that has at least a fifteen (15) minute finish rating as identified in lists of fire-rates assemblies. For the purpose of this section, cable located in attics and underfloor areas that are not designed to be occupied shall be considered concealed.(4-4-25)

u.Section 334.15(C). Where the height of a crawl space does not exceed one and four tenths (1.4) meters or four and one half (4.5) feet, it shall be permissible to secure NM cables, that run at angles with joist, to the bottom edge of joist. NM cables that run within two and one tenth (2.1) meters or seven (7) feet of crawl space access shall comply with article 320.23.(4-4-25)

v.Pole Lighting. Poles used as lighting standards along roadways only (parking areas are not roadways) that are forty (40) feet or less in nominal height and that support no more than four (4) luminaries operating at a nominal voltage of three hundred (300) volts of less to the ground, shall not be considered a structure as it is defined as equipment by the NEC. The disconnecting means may be mounted to the pole or elsewhere in accordance with NEC, section 225.31(B), exception 3. Special purpose fusible connectors (model SEC 1791-DF or model SEC 1791-SF) or equivalent shall be installed in a listed handhole (underground) enclosure. The enclosure shall be appropriately grounded and bonded per the requirements of the NEC applicable to article 230 – Services.

Overcurrent protection shall be provided by a (fast-acting – minimum 100K RMS Amps 600 VAC) rated fuse. Wiring within the pole for the luminaries shall be protected by supplementary overcurrent device (time -delay – minimum 10K RMS Amps 600 VAC) in break-a-away fuse holder accessible from the handhole. Any poles supporting of incorporating utilization equipment or exceeding the prescribed number of luminaries, or in excess of forty (40) feet, may be considered structures, and an appropriate service disconnecting means shall be required per the NEC. All luminaire – supporting poles shall be appropriately grounded and bonded per the NEC. A service may not need a Watt Hour Meter.(4-4-25)

w.Section 422.5(A)(7). Delete section 422.5(A) list item (7) dishwashers.(4-4-25)

x.Section 675.8(B). Compliance with section 675.8(B) shall include the additional requirement that a disconnecting means always be provided at the point of service then the utility no matter where the disconnecting means for the machine is located.(4-4-25) y,Article 682.10. Shall not apply to submersible well pumps installed in swimming and marine areas; provided however, such articles shall apply to all other equipment required in the installation of a submersible well pump in such areas except for the actual submersible well pump itself.(4-4-25)

z.Article 682.11. Add the following exception: This article shall not apply to service equipment that is located on or at the dwelling unit and which is not susceptible to flooding.(4-4-25)

aa.Article 682.13. Add the following exceptions:(4-4-25)

i.Exception No. 1. Wiring methods such as HDPE schedule eighty (80) conduit or its equivalent or greater and clearly marked at a minimum “Caution Electrical” to indicate that it contains electrical conductors shall be approved. It shall be buried wherever practical, and in accordance with the requirements of the authority having jurisdiction. The use of gray HDPE water pipe rated at two hundred (200) PSI (e.g. SIDR-7 or DR-9) is suitable for use as a chase only when the following conditions are met: when internal conductors are jacketed submersible pump cable; when used in continuous lengths, directly buried, or secured on a shoreline above and below the water line; when submersible pump wiring terminations in the body of water according to section 682.13 Exception No. 2 are

met.(4-4-25)

ii.Exception No. 2. Any listed and approved splices required to be made at the submersible well pump itself, outside of a recognized submersed pump sleeve or housi ng, when wires are too large to be housed inside such sleeve, shall be covered with a non-metallic, impact resistant material, no less than one quarter (.25) inches thick, such as heavy-duty heat shrink or other equivalent method approved by the authority having jurisdiction. (e.g. install a heat shrink over the sleeve or housing that the submersible well pump is installed in, and then recover (apply heat) the heat shrink over both the HDPE and the water line). At least six (6) inches shall be over the sleeve and at least twelve (12) inches over the HDPE and water line.(4-4-25)

iii.Exception No. 3. Pipe, conduit, PVC well casing, or other electrically unlisted tubing may be used as a chase, but not as a raceway, to protect conductors or cables from physical damage. Conductors or cables within a chase shall be rated for the location.(4-4-25)

bb.Article 682.14. Add the following additional exception: For installations of submersible well pumps installed in public swimming and marine areas, submersible well pumps shall be considered directly connected and shall be anchored in place. Ballast is an acceptable form of anchoring.(4-4-25)

cc.Section 682.14(A). Add the following exception: For installations of submersible well pumps installed in public swimming and marine areas, motor controller circuits such as remotely located stop pushbutton/s, disconnect/s, relay/s or switches shall be permitted as a required disconnecting means. Such circuits shall be identified at a minimum as “Emergency Pump Stop”, or “Emergency Stop” with other obvious indications on the visible side of the enclosure, that it controls a submersible pump in the body of water.(4-4-25)

dd.Article 682.15. Add the following exceptions:(4-4-25)

i.Exception No. 1. Submersible pumps, and their motor leads, located in bodies of water, and that are rated sixty (60) amperes maximum, two hundred fifty (250) volts maximum of any phase, shall have GFCI or Ground Fault Equipment Protection designed to trip at a maximum of thirty (30) milliamps or less, protected by means selected by a licensed installer, meeting listing or labeling requirements, and inspected by the AHJ prior to submersion in bodies of water.(4-4-25)

ii.Exception No. 2. Installations or repair and replacement of submersible pumps located in bodies of water, that are rated over sixty (60) amperes, and rated at any voltage, shall be evaluated by a qualified designer or experienced licensed contractor, or involve engineering or be engineered, for each specific application, with the goal of public safety. Whenever possible, GFCI or Ground Fault Equipment Protection designed to trip at a maximum of thirty (30) milliamps or less, meeting listing or labeling requirements, shall be installed, and inspected by the AHJ prior to submersion in bodies of water.(4-4-25)

ee.Article 690.12 Rapid Shut Down. Add following Exemptions:(4-4-25)

i.Detached structures whose sole purpose is to house PV system equipment shall not be subject to the requirements outlined in article 690.12.(4-4-25)

ii.PV system circuits installed on or in buildings without the presence of a utility supplied power source shall not be required to comply with article 690.12 where all of the following apply: the minimum distance to bring electric utility power lines or service conductors to the building is 1,000 feet or greater; the building has a minimum setback distance of 100 feet from any building or structure located on adjacent properties; A lockable service entrance rated AC disconnect is installed outside at a readily accessible location; and the AC disconnect has a permanent placard or label with the following words or equivalent:

WARNING

SOLAR PV SYSTEM IS NOT EQUIPPED WITH RAPID SHUTDOWN

The warning placard or label shall comply with Section 110.21(B).(4-4-25)

ff.Section 690.12(A) Exception. PV system circuits originating within or from arrays not attached to buildings that terminate on the exterior of buildings or inside nearest the point of entrance, and PV system circuits installed in accordance with article 230.6 shall not be considered controlled conductors for the purposes of this section.(4-4-25)

gg.Article 706.5: Listing. Energy storage systems shall be listed. This shall not apply to lead-acid batteries.(4-4-25)

hh.Section 706.15(B) Off Grid Systems. Add the following exception: For one-family and two-family dwellings, a disconnecting means or its remote control shall be located at a readily accessible location.(4-4-25)

02.Availability.

A copy of the 2023 National Electrical Code is available at the offices of the Division of Occupational and Professional Licenses.(4-4-25)

IDAPA 24.39.10.601 (Reserved)

24.29.01 Rules of Procedure of the Idaho Certified Shorthand Reporters Board

IDAPA 24.29.01.000 Legal Authority

These rules are adopted under the authority of Section 54-3107, Idaho Code.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.29.01.001 Scope

These rules govern the practice of shorthand reporting in Idaho.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.29.01.002 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.29.01.100 Licensure

01.Written Statement of Suitability for Licensure or Permit.

An applicant or licensee who has a conviction, finding of guilt, withheld judgement, or suspended sentence for any crime other than a minor traffic offense must submit with their application a written statement and any supplemental information establishing their current suitability for licensure.(7-1-25)

02.Registered Professional Reporter. An endorsement applicant who holds a Registered Professional Reporter certificate from The Association for Court Reporters and Captioners will be deemed to have met the endorsement requirements set forth in Section 54-3109A(1), Idaho Code.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.29.01.101 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.29.01.300 Discipline

01.Costs and Fees.

The Board may order anyone licensed under Title 54, Chapter 31, Idaho Code, who is found by the Board to be in violation of the provisions of Title 54, Chapter 31, Idaho Code, to pay the costs and fees incurred by the Board in the investigation or prosecution of the licensee.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.29.01.301 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.29.01.400 Fees

All fees are non-refundable.

( 7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.29.01.401 (Reserved)

FEE TYPE

AMOUNT

(Not to Exceed)

Application$50 Renewal$75

24.37.01 Rules of the Idaho Real Estate Commission

IDAPA 24.37.01.000 Legal Authority

This chapter is adopted pursuant to Sections 54-2007, 67-250 4, 67-2614, 67-9409, and 67-9406, Idaho Code.

IDAPA 24.37.01.001 Scope

These rules contain the requirements for implementation and enforcement of the Idaho Real Estate License Law , the Idaho Real Estate Brokerage Representation Act, and the Subdivided Lands Disposition Act, contained in Chapter 20, Title 54, or Chapter 18, Title 55, Idaho Code.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.37.01.002 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.37.01.100 Licensure

01.Renewal of Expired License. If an active license expires, the licensee must complete and submit with the application an attestation that during the period the license was expired, the licensee either did or did not do or attempt to do any acts described in the definitions of real estate broker or salesperson in Section 54-2004, Idaho Code.(7-1-25)

02.Mandatory Errors and Omissions Insurance. Every licensee will certify such coverage to the Commission in the form and manner prescribed by statute, these rules, and any policy adopted by the Commission.

03.Insurance Plan. The Commission will make available to all active licensees, subject to terms and availability from a qualified insurance carrier, a policy of Errors and Omissions Insurance under a Group Plan obtained by the Commission. Licensees may obtain errors and omissions insurance independently of the Group Policy available through the Commission, subject, however, to the terms and conditions set forth in these rules.

a.Insurance Carrier. For the purposes of this section:(7-1-25)

i.Shall maintain an A.M. Best Company rating of B+ or better, and an A.M. Best Financial Size Category of Class VI or higher;(7-1-25)

ii.Is and will remain for the policy term duly authorized by the Idaho Department of Insurance to do business in the state of Idaho as an insurance carrier; and(7-1-25)

iii.Is and will remain for the policy term qualified and authorized by the Idaho Department of Insurance to write policies of errors and omissions insurance in Idaho of the type contemplated by these rules.

b.Approved Policy. The policy shall cover all activities contemplated under Chapter 20, Title 54, Idaho Code, be subject to such terms and conditions as are customary in the insurance industry for policies of errors and omissions insurance, which are otherwise permissible under Idaho law and the rules of the Idaho Insurance Department, and which are contained in a policy of insurance which has been approved by the Department of Insurance. That policy shall provide, at a minimum, the following terms and conditions:

i.A deductible amount of not greater than three thousand five hundred dollars ($3,500), which includes costs of investigation and defense;(7-1-25)

Limit Liability Coverage for Each Occurrence Not Less Than Annual Aggregate Limit Not Less Than Individual License Coverage $100,000*$300,000* Firm Coverage$500,000*$1,000,000* *Not including costs of investigation and defense

ii.A policy period equal to each licensee's two (2) year license renewal date or the prorated equivalent, or, if an annually renewable policy, a statement of the policy period, and in either case, the policy shall provide for continuous coverage during the policy period;(7-1-25)

iii.An extended reporting period per insured of at least ninety (90) days following termination of the policy period; and(7-1-25)

iv.Prior acts coverage shall be offered to licensees with continuous past coverage.(7-1-25)

04.Failure To Maintain Insurance. Failure of a licensee to obtain and maintain insurance coverage required by Section 54-2013, Idaho Code, regardless whether coverage is later obtained and made retroactive by the carrier, will result in denial or inactivation of any active license and will be deemed insufficient application for licensure under Section 67-5254, Idaho Code. A late insurance renewal is considered failure to maintain insurance.

Failure to maintain insurance shall be grounds for disciplinary action.(7-1-25)

05.Falsification Of Certificates. Any licensee who, acting alone or in concert with others, willfully or knowingly causes or allows a certificate of coverage to be filed with, or produced to, the commission which is false, fraudulent, or misleading, will be subject to disciplinary action, including but not limited to suspension or revocation of license, in accordance with Chapter 52, Title 67, Idaho Code; provided, however, that nothing herein will entitle such licensee to notice and hearing on the automatic inactivation of license.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.37.01.101 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.37.01.150 Education

01.Education Records Access.

As provided for in Section 74-106, Idaho Code, the Commission may enable a designated broker to access and review the education records of any licensee currently licensed with the broker.(7-1-25)

02.Approved Topics For Continuing Education.(7-1-25)

a.Topics Not Eligible for Continuing Education Credits. Topics which are specifically exam preparation in nature or not directly related to real estate brokerage practice will not be eligible for approval. (7-1-25)

03.Minimum Teaching Standards. All courses offered for credit by a certified provider will be taught in accordance with the standards and written policies adopted by the Real Estate Commission. Course instructors will conduct themselves in a professional manner when performing instructional duties and will not engage in conduct that criticizes, degrades, or disparages the Commission, any student, other instructor, brokerage, agency, or organization.(7-1-25)

a.Certification Requirement. A course required to be taught by a Commission-certified or Commission-approved instructor will be taught only by an instructor that is currently approved or certified for that course.(7-1-25)

b.Outlines and Curriculum. A course must be taught in accordance with the course outline or curriculum approved by the Commission.(7-1-25)

c.Attendance Requirement. The course instructor will adhere to the Commission’s written attendance policy and credit hours will only be submitted for students who have successfully met the attendance requirements for which the course was approved.(7-1-25)

d.Maintaining Exam Security. The instructor will take reasonable steps to protect the security of course examinations and will not allow students to retain copies of final course examinations or the exam answer key.

e.Use of Exam Questions Prohibited. The instructor will not obtain or use, or attempt to obtain or use, in any manner or form, Idaho real estate licensing examination questions.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.37.01.151 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.37.01.200 Practice Standards

01.Electronic Signatures. Electronic signatures are permissible in accordance with the Uniform Electronic T ransactions Act, Title 28, Chapter 50.(7-1-25)

02.Disputes Concerning Commissions and Fees. The Idaho Real Estate Commission will not be involved in the resolution of disputes between licensees or between licensees and buyers and sellers concerning matters of commissions or fees.(7-1-25)

03.Legal Opinions. A broker or sales associate will not discourage any party to a real estate transaction from seeking the advice of an attorney.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.37.01.201 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.37.01.300 Discipline

Any violation of these rules, or of any provision of Chapter 20, Title 54, or Chapter 18, Title 55, Idaho Code, is sufficient cause for disciplinary action as prescribed in Sections 54-2059, 54-2060, or 55-1811, Idaho Code. (7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.37.01.301 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.37.01.400 Fees

License and other fees:

( 7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.37.01.401 (Reserved)

Initial LicenseRenewalLate FeeOther Broker$135$135$25 Salesperson$135$135$25 Business Entity$50$50$25 Branch Office$50$50$25 Cooperative License$100 Education or License History $10 License Certificate$15

24.39.70 Rules Governing Heating, Ventilation, and Air Conditioning Systems

IDAPA 24.39.70.000 Legal Authority

The rules are promulgated pursuant to Sections 54-5001, 54-500 4, 54-5005, 54-5006, 54-5007, 54-5010, 54-5016, 67-2604, 67-2614, 67-9406 and 67-9409, Idaho Code.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.39.70.001 Scope

The rules establish the minimum standards for heating, venti lation, and air conditioning (HVAC) installation practice, certification, registration, and educational programs.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.39.70.002 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.39.70.100 Certificates of Competency and Registration

01.Apprentice and Specialty Apprentice R egistration and Renewal. To register or renew an apprentice or specialty apprentice registration, a person shall comply with Section 54-5012(4), Idaho Code. A specialty apprentice’s scope of work is limited as set forth in Rule 100.04.a.(3-28-23)

02.Journeyman Certificate of Competency. An applicant must pass an examination designated by the Board and either (a) submit evidence of a minimum of eight thousand (8,000) hours of work experience as an apprentice making HVAC installations in accordance with the requirements of the jurisdiction in which the applicant obtained the experience and satisfactory completion of 576 hours of a board-approved course of instruction, or (b) submit proof of sixteen thousand (16,000) hours of HVAC experience in accordance with the requirements of the jurisdiction in which the applicant obtained the experience.(3-28-23)

a.Examination. An applicant may sit for the exam after showing proof of completion of either 576 hours of board-approved course of instruction or 16,000 hours of HVAC experience.(3-28-23)

b.Educational Lab Work. Time spent by an applicant performing lab work in a board-approved course of instruction may be credited toward the eight thousand (8,000) hour work experience requirement.(3-28-23)

03.Contractor and Specialty Contractor Certificate of Competency. An applicant must successfully pass an examination designated by the Board and provide a compliance bond in the amount of two thousand dollars ($2,000) which is effective for the duration of the certificate period. The specialty contractor’s scope of work is limited as set forth in Rule 100.04.a.(3-28-23)

04.Specialty Journeyman Certificate of Competency. An applicant must submit evidence of a minimum of two thousand (2,000) hours of specialty-related experience in accordance with the requirements of the jurisdiction in which the applicant obtained the experience, and either (a) pass an examination designated by the Board, or (b) submit evidence of satisfactory completion of a minimum of sixty (60) hours of education in fuel gas code and piping installation methods.(3-28-23)

a. Permitted Scope of Work. Permitted to install hearth appliances, and non-duct connected oil furnaces, the associated fuel gas piping, and venting dedicated exclusively thereto. Does not include any plumbing, electrical or duct work.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.39.70.101 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.39.70.300 Civil Penalties

The acts described in this section subject the violator to a civil penalty not to exceed one thousand dollars ($1,000) for each separate count or offense.(3-28-23)

01.Statute or Rule. Failure to comply with any provision of Chapter 50, Title 54, Idaho Code or Board Rule. (3-28-23)

02.Certification or Registration. Except as provided by Section 54-5002, Idaho Code, performance of HVAC without an active certificate of competency or registration as required by Idaho Code 54-5008.(3-28-23)

03.Performance Outside Scope. Performance of any HVAC installation, alteration, or maintenance by a specialty contractor or specialty journeyman outside the scope of the specialty certificate of competency.

04.Employees. Knowing employment of a person who does not hold an active certificate of competency or registration as required by Idaho Code 54-5008 and 54-5009 to perform HVAC work.(3-28-23)

5. Supervision. Working as an apprentice or specialty apprentice without the required journeyman supervision or employing an apprentice or specialty apprentice without providing the required journeyman supervision. (3-28-23)

6. Fees, Permits, and Inspections. Failure to obtain a required permit, pay applicable fees, properly post a permit, or request an inspection of any installation, alteration, improvement, or extension of any piping, venting, ductwork, appliances and appurtenances in connection with any HVAC system or subsystem of such.

07.Corrections. Failure to make corrections in the time allotted in the notice on any HVAC installation.(3-28-23)

08.Misrepresentation of Fees. Misrepresentation of the permit or inspection fees to the customer.

09.Advertising. Advertising to engage in the business, trade, practice, or work of a HVAC contractor as defined in Section 54-5009, Idaho Code, without holding a current and valid HVAC contractor certificate of competency issued by the Division or advertising without including the contractor certificate of competency number in the advertisement. Advertising includes, but is not limited to: newspaper, telephone directory, community flier ads or notices; telephone, television, radio, internet, or door-to-door solicitations.(3-28-23)

10. Order. Failure to comply with any lawful order of the Board or Division administrator. (3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.39.70.301 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.39.70.500 Permits and Inspections

01.Permits.(3 -28-23)

a.Permits will be furnished to a HVAC contractor upon submission of a complete application and proper permit fee. For commercial or industrial HVAC work, a verified copy of bid acceptance must be submitted with the application. Permit serial numbers must be registered in the name of the HVAC contractor and are transferable only as provided herein these rules.(3-28-23)

b.Homeowners making HVAC installations on their own premises under the provisions of Section 54-5002(1)(a), Idaho Code, must secure a HVAC permit by making application to the Division as provided by Section 54-5016, Idaho Code.(3-28-23)

c.Expiration. Every permit issued shall expire and become null and void after three hundred sixtyfive (365) days from the purchase date or last inspection. A permit may be renewed for an additional year upon receipt of Division approval and payment of a sixty-five dollar ($65) renewal fee.(3-28-23)

d.Transferring a Permit. A HVAC permit may be transferred to another eligible party if such party provides to the Division written authorization signed and notarized by the original permit holder consenting to the transfer itself and assigning all responsibilities and conditions incorporated into the original permit issuance. A permit may be transferred to the owner of the property on which the HVAC work is to be performed and for which the permit was issued, or such owner’s designated legal agent in cases where the property owner has terminated his legal relationship with the HVAC contractor who originally obtained the permit. An administrative fee in the amount of forty-five dollars ($45) for the transfer of a permit must be paid to the Division.(3-28-23)

02.Permit Fee Schedule.

a. Residential. Includes all buildings with HVAC systems being installed on each property. The following permit fees apply to all residential single and duplex installations:

b. Miscellaneous. The following permit fees apply for the types of permits listed:

c.Other Installations Including Multifamily, Industrial and Commercial. The following fees shall apply to multifamily, industrial, and commercial installations and installations not specifically mentioned elsewhere in this Fee Schedule. The HVAC system cost is the cost to the owner of labor charges and other costs incurred to complete the installation of equipment and materials installed as part of the HVAC system. All permit fees calculated under this Subsection are based on the total HVAC system cost, which must be listed on the permit:

d.Additional Fees. A fee of sixty-five dollars ($65) per hour or portion thereof shall apply to trips to inspect when the permit holder has given notice to Division that the work is ready for inspection and it is not; if the permit holder has not accurately identified the work location; if the inspector cannot gain access to make the inspection; if corrections are required by the inspector as a result of the permit holder improperly responding to a corrective notice; or when corrections have not been made in the prescribed time, unless an extension has been requested and granted.(3-28-23)

03.Required Inspections.(3-28-23)

a.Inspection Tags. Inspectors certify to the permit holder that an inspection was completed by TypeFee Base permit$100 Furnace, furnace-air conditioner combination, heat pump, air conditioner, evaporative cooler, unit heater, space heater, decorative gas-fired appliance, incinerator, boiler, pool heater, mini-split system, free-standing solid-fuel stove, factorybuilt gas fireplace, or similar fixture or appliance, including ducts, vents, and flues attached thereto Plus $30 per first fixture or appliance Plus $15 per additional fixture or appliance Exhaust duct or ventilation duct, including dryer vents, range hood vents, cook stove vents, bath fan vents, and similar exhaust ducts or ventilation ducts Plus $15 per first duct Plus $5 per additional duct Fuel gas piping systemPlus $5 per appliance outlet Hydronic systemsPlus $5 per zone TypeFee Requested inspection$65 per hour or portion thereof plus costs of out-of-state travel Mobile or manufactured home $65 per inspection Modular building Plan check or technical service$65 per hour or portion thereof HVAC System CostFee Up to $10,000$60 plus 2% of HVAC system cost $10,000 to $100,000$260 plus 1% of HVAC system cost exceeding $10,000 Over $100,000$1,160 plus 5% of HVAC system cost exceeding $100,000 securely attaching the inspection tag in a prominent location.(3-28-23)

b.Final Inspection Tags. An inspection tag indicating a final inspection was performed is attached when the HVAC installation as specified on the permit is complete and conforms to the requirements of the code and rules.(3-28-23)

c.Inspection Tags for Unacceptable HVAC Installations. “Notice of Correction” inspection tags are attached to indicate that the HVAC installation is not acceptable and corrections are required. A reinspection and reinspection fee for such installations shall be required.(3-28-23)

d.Work-in-Progress Tag. An inspection tag indicating a work-in-progress inspection was performed is attached following inspection of groundwork, rough-in work, or any portion of the installation that is to be covered or otherwise concealed before completion of the entire HVAC installation as specified on the permit.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.39.70.501 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.39.70.600 Idaho Mechanical Code

Pursuant to Section 54-5001, Idaho Code, the Board adopts, as the Idaho Mechanical Code, the following international codes with identified amendments:(3-28-23)

01.International Mechanical Code. The 2018 Edition, including appendix A, with the following amendments:(3-28-23)

a.Section 109. Delete.(3-28-23)

b.Section 202 Definitions. Amend the definitions provided in the code for the terms identified herein this paragraph by the following:(3-28-23)

i.Add “conveyorized pizza” between the terms “standard” and “bake” in the definition of Light-duty appliances.(3-28-23)

ii.Remove the following definition of “Medium-duty Cooking Appliance”: electric and gas conveyor pizza ovens.(3-28-23)

02.International Fuel Gas Code. The 2018 Edition, including appendices A, B, C, and D, with the following amendments:(3-28-23)

a.Section 109. Delete.(3-28-23)

b.Section 406.4. Change the last sentence to: Mechanical gauges used to measure test pressure must have a range such that the highest end of the scale is not greater than two (2) times the test pressure nor lower than one and one-half (1.5) times the test pressure.(3-28-23)

c.Section 406.4.1. Test Pressure. Not less than twenty (20) psig (140kPa gauge) test pressure is required for systems with a maximum working pressure up to ten (10) inches water column. For systems with a maximum working pressure between ten (10) inches water column and ten (10) psig (70kPa gauge); not less than sixty (60) psig (420kPa gauge) test pressure is required. For systems over ten (10) psig (70kPa gauge) working pressure, minimum test pressure may be no less than six (6) times working pressure.(3-28-23)

d.Section 406.4.2. The test duration may not be less than twenty (20) minutes.(3-28-23)

e.Add new section 503.4.1.2 as follows: Testing. All plastic pipe within a dwelling used for venting flue gases must be tested at five (5) psi for fifteen (15) minutes.(3-28-23)

f.Section 505.1.1. Addition. An interlock between the cooking appliance and the exhaust hood system is not required for appliances that are of the manually operated type and are factory equipped with standing pilot burner ignition systems.(3-28-23)

03.International Residential Code. The 2018 Edition, Part V (Mechanical) and Part VI (Fuel Gas) and appendices A, B, C, and D, for one (1)- and two (2)- family dwellings with the following amendments: (3-28-23)

a.Add new section M1203.1. Carbon monoxide alarms. Where work requiring a permit occurs in existing dwellings, an approved carbon monoxide alarm must be installed outside of each separate sleeping area in the immediate vicinity of the bedrooms in dwelling units where a fuel fired appliance is installed.(3-28-23)

b.Section M1401.3. Add “in new, one- and two-family dwellings” between “appliances” and “shall”.

c.Delete Section M1502.4.2 Duct Installation and replace with the following: Exhaust ducts must be supported at four (4) foot (1,219 mm) intervals and secured in place. The insert end of the duct must extend into the adjoining duct or fitting in the direction of airflow. Ducts must not be joined with screws or similar fasteners that protrude into the inside of the duct.(3-28-23)

d.Section M1601.1. Add “in new, one- and two-family dwellings” between “equipment” and “shall”.

e.Section G2417.4 (406.4). Change the last sentence to: Mechanical gauges used to measure test pressure must have a range such that the highest end of the scale is not greater than two (2) times the test pressure nor lower than one and one-half (1.5) times the test pressure.(3-28-23)

f.Section G2417.4.1 (406.4.1). Test Pressure. Not less than twenty (20) psig (one hundred forty (140) kPa gauge) test pressure is required for systems with a maximum working pressure up to ten (10) inches water column. For systems with a maximum working pressure between ten (10) inches water column and ten (10) psig (seventy (70) kPa gauge), not less than sixty (60) psig (four hundred twenty (420) kPa gauge) test pressure is required. For systems over ten (10) psig (seventy (70) kPa gauge) working pressure, minimum test pressure may be no less than six (6) times working pressure.(3-28-23)

g.Section G2417.4.2 (406.4.2). The test duration may not be less than twenty (20) minutes. (3-28-23)

h.Add new section G2427.4.1.2. Testing. All plastic pipe within a dwelling used for venting flue gases must be tested at five (5) psi for fifteen (15) minutes.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.39.70.601 (Reserved)

24.16.01 Rules of Denturitry

IDAPA 24.16.01.000 Legal Authority

These rules are promulgated pursuant to Chapter 9, Title 54, Idaho Code.(7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.16.01.001 Scope

These rules govern the practice of denturitry in Idaho.(7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.16.01.002 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.16.01.010 Definitions

1. Denture Technician. A person who is limited to making, constructing, altering, reproducing, or repairing of a full or partial, upper, or lower removable prosthetic denture but is not allowed to make an impression or come in direct contact with a patient.(7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.16.01.011 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.16.01.100 Licensure

1. Examination. The Board will accept either the Idaho Denturitry Exam, administered by the Board, or the Universal Testing Services (UTS) Denturitry Exam.(7-1-24)

a.Idaho Denturitry Examination. Applicants must pass both the written and practical examinations with a score of seventy-five percent (75%) or better. Applicants who fail one or both examinations will be required to pay a re-examination fee to the Board prior to retaking the failed examination(s).(7-1-24)

b.UTS Denturitry Examination. Applicants must pass the written and the practical sections of the examination, each with a score of seventy-five percent (75%) or better.(7-1-24)

2. Internship. To be eligible for internship, the applicant must have completed the educational requirements set forth in Section 54-3305(3), Idaho Code. During the internship, the supervising denturist must be present and directly observe any intern interaction with a patient.(7-1-24)

3. Internship Equivalency. A one (1) year internship acquired through a formal training program in an acceptable school will be accepted toward the two (2) year required internship for licensure. A person is considered to have the equivalent of two (2) years internship under a licensed denturist who has met and verifies one (1) of the following within the five (5) years immediately preceding application:(7-1-24)

a.Two (2) years internship as a denture lab technician under a licensed dentist; or(7-1-24)

b.Two (2) years in the military as a denture lab technician; or(7-1-24)

c.Three (3) years experience as a denturist under licensure in another state or Canada. (7-1-24)

4. Continuing Education. Continuing education must be germane to the practice of denturitry.

IDAPA 24.16.01.101 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.16.01.200 Practice Standards

1. Minimum Facility Standards. A Denturist office must be properly equipped to ensure the safe, clean, and sanitary condition necessary and appropriate for proper operation and the safe preparation of dentures.

2. Maintain Adequate Records. Adequate records mean legible records which contain, at minimum, evidence of information deemed appropriate for patient care and copies of statements of charges delivered or provided to the patient or client. All records must comply with HIPPA.(7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.16.01.201 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.16.01.300 Discipline

1. False Advertisements. No denturist may disseminate or cause the dissemination of any advertisement or advertising that is in any way fraudulent, false, deceptive, or misleading.(7-1-24)

2. Civil Penalty. The Board may impose a fine up to the amount of any economic advantage obtained through the violation.(7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.16.01.301 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.16.01.400 Fees

All fees are non-refundable.

IDAPA 24.16.01.401 (Reserved)

FEE TYPEAMOUNT

License Application and Examination$300 Re-examination$300 Intern Application and Permit$300 Initial License$300 Annual Renewal$750

24.06.01 Rules for the Licensure of Occupational Therapists and

IDAPA 24.06.01.000 Legal Authority

These rules are promulgated pursuant to Sections 5 4-3712, 54-3715, 54-3717, and 54-3720 Idaho Code.(7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.06.01.001 Scope

These rules govern the practice of occupat ional therapy in Idaho.(7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.06.01.002 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.06.01.100 Licensure

01.Approved Education.

An educational program in occupational therapy accredited by the American Occupational Therapy Association’s Accreditation Council for Occupational Therapy Education (ACOTE), or by a predecessor or successor organization recognized by the United States Secretary of Education, the Council for Higher Education Accreditation, or both.(7-1-24)

02.Supervised Fieldwork. During the period of supervised fieldwork, students must be under daily in-person contact with an occupational therapist or occupational therapy assistant who is appropriately supervised by an occupational therapist. The occupational therapist is responsible for the overall use and actions of the student.

(7-1-24)

03.Continuing Education. Occupational Therapists and Occupational Therapy Assistants must complete and maintain proof of completion of ten (10) hours of germane continuing education each year during the licensee’s renewal cycle. Proof of completion must be provided to the board upon request and must include licensee’s name, date of activity or when course was completed, provider name, course title, description of course/activity, and number of contact hours.(7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.06.01.101 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.06.01.200 Practice Standards

1. Scope of Practice. Occupational Therapists and Occupational Therapy Assistants must possess the education, training, and experience within their scope of practice to perform occupational therapy tasks.(7-1-24)

02.Supervision Requirements. Supervision is the direction and review of service delivery, treatment plans, and treatment outcomes. Unless otherwise specified in this rule, in-person or synchronous interaction at least once a month is the minimum level of supervision that must be provided. Methods of supervision may include but are not limited to line-of-sight supervision with the supervisor’s physical presence when services are being provided and/ or in-person contact by the supervisor where services are being provided to ensure the safe and effective delivery of occupational therapy.(7-1-24)

a. Limited Permit Holders. Limited permit holders must be supervised by an occupational therapist.

This requires daily in-person contact with the supervisor at the site where service is provided.(7-1-24)

b.Occupational Therapy Assistants. Occupational therapy assistants must be supervised by an occupational therapist at least once per month by no less than telecommunications.(7-1-24)

c.Occupational Therapy Aides. The occupational therapist or occupational therapy assistant must train the aide to perform client-related and non-client-related tasks at least once per month. Client-related tasks are routine tasks during which the aide may interact with the client but does not act as a primary service provider of occupational therapy services. Occupational therapists and occupational therapy assistants must document all training and supervision of an aide.(7-1-24)

i.The following factors must be present when an occupational therapist or occupational therapy assistant assigns a selected client-related task to the aide: The supervisor must be physically present when services are being provided to clients by the aide; the outcome of the assigned task must be predictable; the situation of the client and the environment must be stable and will not require the aide to make judgments, interpretations, or adaptations; and the routine and process of the task must have been clearly established.(7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.06.01.201 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.06.01.300 Discipline

01.Civil Penalty.

The Board may impose a fine up to the amount of any economic advantage obtained through the violation.(7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.06.01.301 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.06.01.400 Fees

All fees are non-refundable.

(7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.06.01.401 (Reserved)

FEE TYPE

AMOUNT

(Not to Exceed)

RENEWAL FEE

(Not to Exceed)

Initial Licensure for  Occupational Therapists $80$40 Initial Licensure for  Occupational Therapy Assistants $60$30 Limited Permit or Temporary License$25 Reinstatement Fee As provided in Section 67-2614, Idaho Code.

24.08.01 Rules of the State Board of Morticians

IDAPA 24.08.01.000 Legal Authority

The following rules are promulgated pursuant to Section 54- 1106 and 54-1107, Idaho Code.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.08.01.001 Scope

These rules govern the practice of morticians, funeral direct ors, and funeral establishments in Idaho.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.08.01.002 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.08.01.100 Licensure

01.Resident Trainee.

To be licensed as a Resident Trainee, as defined in Section 54-1112, Idaho Code, an applicant must meet the following requirements.(7-1-25)

a.To meet the twelve (12) month requirement set forth in Idaho Code 54-1109(2)(b), a Resident Trainee be employed for at least thirty-six (36) hours per week within an Idaho mortuary where the Resident Trainee’s sponsoring mortician is practicing for the entirety of any twelve (12) months within the three-year trainee period set forth in Idaho Code 54-1112(4).(7-1-25)

b.Personal supervision as required in Chapter 11, Title 54, Idaho Code, shall be defined as the sponsoring mortician, or a licensed appointee, being available in person or remotely to consult with the Resident Trainee.(7-1-25)

c.All training must occur within Idaho.(3-28-23)

d.A Resident Trainee shall not sign a death certificate.(3-28-23)

02.Sponsoring Mortician. A sponsoring mortician must:(3-28-23)

a.Be an Idaho-licensed mortician who practices in Idaho.(3-28-23)

b. Not serve as the sponsoring mortician for more than two (2) Resident Trainees at any given time.

c.Supervise and instruct the Resident Trainee, and provide demonstrations for and consultations to the Resident Trainee.(7-1-25)

d.Complete and co-sign, with the Resident Trainee, quarterly and final reports. These reports must be completed on forms approved by the Board. The sponsoring mortician must submit a report within thirty (30) days after the period of time covered by the report.(7-1-25)

e.Promptly notify the Board in writing if a Resident Trainee’s training is terminated and submit a final report documenting training up to the termination date.(7-1-25)

03.Eligibility to Be Licensed. For purposes of accounting for total cumulative training as a Resident Trainee, the sponsoring mortician must notify the Division at the beginning and termination of the training period.

04.Inactive Licenses. Licensees may apply for inactive status by making written application and paying the established fee.(7-1-25)

a.All continuing education requirements will be waived for any year or portion thereof that a licensee maintains an inactive license and is not actively practicing or supervising in Idaho.(7-1-25)

b.An inactive license holder may convert from inactive to active license status by:(7-1-25)

i.Providing documentation to the Board showing successful completion within the previous twelve (12) months of the continuing education requirements for renewal of an active license; and(7-1-25)

ii.Paying a fee equivalent to the difference between the current inactive fee and the active renewal

fee.(7-1-25)

05.Continuing Education. Each Idaho licensed mortician and funeral director must successfully complete a minimum of ten (10) hours of continuing education biennially for license renewal, such hours must be verified by a certificate of attendance which may be audited by the Board. A licensee shall not be required to complete continuing education in their first renewal period after initial licensure. The continuing education must be germane to the profession and approved by the Board. The Board has discretion to exempt a licensee from this requirement for reasons of individual hardship, including health, or other good cause. Applicants seeking reinstatement must provide proof of attendance of ten (10) hours of continuing education for the previous twenty-four (24) months.(7-1-25)

06.Funeral Establishment and Crematory Establishment. Applicants shall submit a Board approved application form. A walk-through inspection of the establishment must be arranged and completed before the board will issue an establishment license.(7-1-25)

a.Change in Ownership or Location. Any change in the ownership or location of a funeral establishment shall constitute a new funeral establishment for the purposes of licensure.(7-1-25)

b.Funeral Establishment. All funeral establishments shall be required to provide each of the following:(7-1-25)

i.An operating room and necessary equipment for embalming;(7-1-25)

ii.A selection room for caskets and merchandise which may include video, catalogs, and electronic depiction of caskets and merchandise;(7-1-25)

iii.A chapel where funeral or other religious ceremonies may be held; and(7-1-25)

iv.A room for viewing and visitation.(7-1-25)

c.Crematory Establishment. All crematory establishments shall be required to provide each of the following:(7-1-25)

i.Detailed information regarding each retort, specifically documenting that each retort and accompanying equipment is listed by an approved testing agency as listed in the Uniform Fire Code or in the case of alkaline hydrolysis, an appropriate purpose-built vessel with documented validation for sterilization; and(7-1-25)

ii.One (1) set of plans approved by the local building department for the proposed new construction or remodeling where the retort is to be located.(7-1-25)

d.Minimum Standards.(7-1-25)

i.Reasonable Sanitation and Safety Required. No license will be issued to operate a funeral establishment or crematory unless it is apparent that the establishment or crematory can and will be operated in a reasonably sanitary and safe manner and that all pertinent federal, state, and local permits have been obtained, including when operating an alkaline hydrolysis retort.(7-1-25)

ii.Delay Before Cremation. No dead human body, regardless of cause of death, is to be cremated, unless the county coroner in the county in which the death occurred gives written authorization to cremate the body.

iii.Embalming. If a dead human body is to be held longer than twenty-four (24) hours prior to burial, cremation, or other disposition, the body must be either embalmed or refrigerated at thirty-six degrees Fahrenheit (3 6F) or less until buried, cremated, or otherwise disposed of.(7-1-25)

iv.Casket Not Necessary. While caskets may be used in cremation, a crematorium may develop internal requirements allowing other containers for aesthetic or sanitary reasons.(7-1-25)

v.Funeral Rule. Licensees are required to comply with Federal Funeral Industry Practices, 16 CFR Part 453, commonly known as the Funeral Rule.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.08.01.101 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.08.01.150 Approved Examination

Applicants for licensure shall successfully pass the examinations set forth below.(3-28-23)

01.Mortician Examination. The Mortician examination shall consist of all sections of the International Conference of Funeral Service Examining Board’s National Board Examination.(7-1-25)

02.Funeral Director. The funeral director examination shall consist of the Arts section conducted by the International Conference of Funeral Service Examination Board.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.08.01.151 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.08.01.200 Practice Standards

01.Maintenance or Pre-Need Trust Account Services.

Pursuant to Section 54-1134(4), Idaho Code, a fee not to exceed ten percent (10%) of the annual earned interest income may be charged for maintenance of preneed trust accounts.(7-1-25)

02.Receipt for Bodies to be Cremated. The following must be performed by the operator of a crematory upon receipt of a human body for cremation.(7-1-25)

a.A receipt must be delivered to the licensed mortician or funeral director, his agent, or another person who delivers such body to the crematory.(7-1-25)

b.The receipt must show:(7-1-25)

i.The name of the decedent whose body was received; and(3-28-23)

ii.The date on which that body was received; and(3-28-23)

iii.The place where that body was received; and(3-28-23)

iv.The name and address of the funeral establishment from whom that body was received; and (3-28-23)

v.The name and address of the person, or the names and addresses of the persons, if more than one (1), who actually delivers the body.(3-28-23)

03.Records of Bodies. Each funeral establishment and crematory must maintain a record of each burial, cremation, or other disposition of human remains, disclosing:(7-1-25)

a.The name of the decedent;(7-1-25)

b.The name and address of the person, or names and addresses of the persons if more than one (1), authorizing the burial, cremation, or other disposition of that body;(7-1-25)

c.An embalming report or refrigeration log which shows the date(s) and time(s) a body was placed into or removed from refrigeration.(7-1-25)

d.The date of the burial, cremation, or other disposition of that body; and(3-28-23)

e.The custodial transfer of any cremated remains, including the name and signature of the recipient and date of transfer.(7-1-25)

04.Responsibility for Record. Records regarding the burial, cremation, and other disposition of human bodies must be made as soon as reasonably possible after the burial, cremation, or other disposition and must be dated and signed by the licensed mortician or funeral director who supervised or was otherwise directly responsible for the burial, cremation, or other disposition.(3-28-23)

05.Inspection of Records. Records regarding the receipt, burial, cremation, and other disposition of human bodies must be maintained at the funeral establishment and crematory and be open for inspection at any reasonable time by the Board or its designated representatives.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.08.01.201 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.08.01.300 Discipline

The Board may impose a civil fine not to exceed one thousand dollars ($1,000) upon a licensee for each violation of Section 54-1116, Idaho Code.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.08.01.301 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.08.01.400 Fees

(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.08.01.401 (Reserved)

FEE TYPE

AMOUNT

(Not to Exceed)

Funeral Director$200 Funeral Establishment$300 Crematory Establishment$480 Mortician$200 Inactive License$90 Resident Trainee$120 Application Fee$120 Certificate of Authority$120

24.39.50 Rules of the Public Works Contractors License Board

IDAPA 24.39.50.000 Legal Authority

This chapter is adopted pursuant to Sections 54-1907, 67-260 4, 67-2614, 67-9409, and 67-9406 Idaho Code, as amended.(7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.39.50.001 Title

These rules govern the practice of public works contractors in Idaho.(7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.39.50.002 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.39.50.010 Definitions

01.Compiled.

A type of financial statement in which the information presented is based solely upon representations by an organization’s management.(7-1-24)

02.Estimated Cost. The total aggregate amount of the value of all the separate or individual jobs, parts, components, or undertakings involved in the construction of a single project when combined and considered as a whole. (7-1-24)

03.Financial Statement. A balance sheet and income statement prepared in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles.(7-1-24)

04.Incidental Work. Work, the nature of which does not require any additional trade licenses and which may be carried out in conjunction with an activity for which the licensee is licensed, but is not intended to produce an amount of income over ten percent (10%) of the total bid amount.(7-1-24)

05.Independent Audit Report. A report prepared by an independent certified public accountant presenting opinion on the fairness of the organization’s financial statements and prepared in accordance with generally accepted auditing standards.(7-1-24)

06.Qualified Individual. The person qualifying by examination as to the experience and knowledge required by Section 54-1910(a), Idaho Code.(7-1-24)

7. Reviewed. A financial statement that is accompanied by the opinion of a certified public accountant stating that, based upon representations by the organization’s management, the reviewer has a reasonable basis for expressing limited assurance that there are no material modifications that should be made to the financial statements in order for the statements to be in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles.(7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.39.50.011 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.39.50.100 Licensure

01.Renewal.( 7-1-24)

a. Filing Deadline. Applications for renewal of a license must be filed by the last working day of the month in which the license expires.(7-1-24)

b.Extension of Time. A petition for an extension of time in which to renew must be filed by the last working day of the month in which the license expires and may be extended once for a period not to exceed sixty (60)

days. Approval of a petition for extension of time authorizes operation as a contractor. (7-1-24)

c. Failure to File. If the licensee fails to file a timely application for renewal or petition for extension, the license lapses and expires on the last day of the license period. Licenses not renewed in a timely manner are considered delinquent for a period of one (1) year from the last day of the license period and may be renewed at any time during that year.(7-1-24)

d.Expedited Licensure. Upon an applicant’s request and payment of a fee of one hundred dollars ($100), the Division will expedite its review and determination of a license application.(7-1-24)

02.Petition to change or add types of construction. A petition to change or add types of construction must be supported by evidence, satisfactory to the administrator, of work history, job performance, experience, equipment, and financial responsibility.(7-1-24)

03.Application. The applicant must submit to the administrator, on such forms and in a format as the administrator prescribes.(7-1-24)

a.For Class A, AA, AAA, and Unlimited license applications, financial statements must be accompanied by an independent auditor’s report, or be reviewed. For Class B and CC license applications, financial statements must be accompanied by an independent audit report or be reviewed or compiled by a certified public accountant. For Class C and Class D license applications, financial statements must be accompanied by an independent audit report or be reviewed, compiled, or on the form provided by the administrator.(7-1-24)

b.Applicants requesting a higher licensing class must provide documentation of having performed projects similar in scope and character to those for which license is requested. Licenses granted under this rule are valid for twelve (12) months from the date of issuance.(7-1-24)

c.Extension of Time to File Financial Statement. The administrator may grant an extension of time to file the annual financial statement if the licensee provides an interim compiled balance sheet and income statement for the applicant’s fiscal year-to-date. A renewal application must be filed prior to the first day of the licensing period, and is valid for a period of twelve (12) months from the date of the issuance.(7-1-24)

d.Type IV Self Declaration. Upon initial licensure for Type IV licensure or anytime thereafter, an applicant or licensee may voluntarily self-declare a specialty trade of craft. Any self-declaration shall not guarantee competency or otherwise construed as an endorsement to practice the scope of work by the Division of Occupational and Professional Licenses.(7-1-24)

04.Examination. The Board approves all subject areas and topics to be included in the public works contractor license examination. Applicants for licensure must pass an examination as approved by the Board.

a.Professional Testing Services. The administrator may contract with a professional testing service to administer the examination.(7-1-24)

b. Individual Qualified By Examination. Written notice that the Qualified Individual of a public works contractor has ceased to be connected with the contractor must be provided to the Administrator.(7-1-24)

05.Limitations.(7-1-24)

a.One License. A licensee will be permitted to hold only one (1) class of license at any given time.

b.Previous License Null and Void. When a licensee of one class has been issued a license of another class, the previous license is null and void.(7-1-24)

c.Total Bid Cost. The total of any single bid on a given public works project, or the aggregate total of any split bids, or the aggregate total of any base bid and any alternate bid items, or the aggregate total of any separate bid by a licensee of any class, except Class Unlimited, may not exceed the estimated cost or bid limit of the class of licens e held by the licensee. The aggregate total of bids must include all bids of the subcontractors. Subcontractor bids are not considered a separate bid for the purposes of computing the bid on a given public works project.

d.Two or More Licensees. Two (2) or more licensees of the same class or of different classes are not permitted to combine the estimated cost or bid limit of their licenses to submit a bid in excess of the license held by either licensee.(7-1-24)

06.Construction Manager Examinations.(7-1-24)

a.If the applicant fails an examination, the applicant may take the examination a second time. If the applicant fails to achieve a passing grade, the applicant must wait for a period set by the Administrator before taking the examination again. The applicant must then take and pass all sections of the examination.(7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.39.50.101 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.39.50.111 Financial Requirements

The financial requirements for obtaining and maintaining a heavy, highway, building, and specialty construction license under this act must be as described in this section for each respective class. An applicant requesting a license for each class identified in this section must have a minimum net worth and possess an amount of working capital as provided in Table 111.01:

(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.39.50.112 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.39.50.200 Practice Standards

01.Business Organization -- Changes In Organization Or Structure -- Members of Joint Ventures - Changes For Reasons Other Than Death. A licensed public works contractor or construction manager who undergoes a change in business organization or structure (such as a change from an individual proprietor to a partnership, corporation, limited liability partnership, limited liability company, joint venture, or other combination thereof), or where there is a change in ownership, must file an application for a new license on behalf of such successor organization or new owners within sixty (60) days after such change occurs. The administrator may authorize the continuous operation of the licensee as a contractor during the interim period until the application of the successor organization is reviewed; provided written notice of such change is filed within thirty (30) days after such change occurs. Each participant in a joint venture must be licensed at the time of bidding. Where there is a change in the surviving members of a licensed partnership, limited liability company, or limited liability partnership, due to a reason other than the death of one (1) of the partners, the remaining or succeeding member or members are required to file an application for an original license.(7-1-24)

02.License Number On Bids. Licensee must place his license number on any and all bids submitted or contracts entered into, for any public works projects in the state of Idaho.(7-1-24)

03.Changes In License Certificate.(7-1-24)

a.When any change in the license certificate has been approved by the Board, a new license certificate will be issued.(7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.39.50.201 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.39.50.400 Fees

TABLE 111.01 – FINANCIAL REQUIREMENTS

LICENSE CLASSNET WORTHWORKING CAPITAL

Unlimited $1,000,000$600,000 AAA$600,000$200,000 AA$450,000$150,000 A$300,000$100,000 B$150,000$50,000 CC$75,000$25,000 C$25,000$7,500 D$10,000$3,000

01.Public Works Contractor.

(4-2-26)

02.Construction Manager:

(4-2-26)

IDAPA 24.39.50.401 (Reserved)

License Class Initial Fee Renewal Fee Unlimited$550$440 AAA$450$360 AA$350$280 A$250$160 B$150$120 CC$125$100 C$100$80 D$50$40 License Activity Fee Initial Licensing$200 License Renewal$200 Inactive License$50 License Reinstatement$200 Certificate of Authority$100

24.39.80 Idaho Minimum Safety Standards and Practices for Logging

IDAPA 24.39.80.000 Legal Authority

The rules are promulgated pursuant to Section 67-2601A, Idaho Code.(3-31-22)

IDAPA 24.39.80.001 Scope

The rules are applicable to the logging indu stry in the state of Idaho.(3-31-22)

IDAPA 24.39.80.002 Definitions

Terms used in these standards shall be interpreted in the most commonly accepted sense, excepting only those specifically defined. (3

01.Arch. A piece of equipment attached to the rear of a vehicle, used for raising one end of logs to facilitate skidding.(3-31-22)

02.Back Cut. The final falling cut.(3-31-22)

03.Barber Chair. Slab portion of tree remaining on the stump above the back cut due to improper falling.(3-31-22)

04.Bell. The component that slides on the cable and connects to the knob or button. When a worker chokes a log or stump, the bell secures the knob or button.(3-31-22)

05.Bight. The loop of a line or the angle formed by a line running through a block.(7-1-25)

06.Binder. A device to tighten chain when securing a load for transport.(7-1-25)

07.Bunk. The cross support for logs on a logging car or truck.(3-31-22)

08.Cable-Assisted Logging Systems. Logging systems, including, but not limited to, winch-assisted, cable-assisted, tethered, and traction-assisted systems that enable ground-based timber harvesting machines, including, but not limited to, feller bunchers, harvesters, loaders and shovels, to be operated on slopes.(3-31-22)

09.Carriage Logging. A type of high lead logging using gravity, haul back, or remote control carriages to yard logs.(7-1-25)

10.Chaser. The member of the yarding crew who unhooks the logs at the landing or fights hang-ups on skid road.(3-31-22)

11.Choker. A wire rope with special attachments put around the log near the end for hauling or lifting.

12.Cold Shut. A link for joining two (2) chains, the link being closed cold with a hammer, not a weld.

13.Competent Person. An individual who is capable of identifying existing and predictable hazards in the work site surroundings or working conditions that are unsanitary, hazardous or dangerous to employees, and who has authorization to take prompt corrective measures to eliminate such.(3-31-22)

14.Cutter. A term used to designate faller or bucker.(3-31-22)

15.Equipment. The term, as used, means and include all machines, machinery, tools, devices, safeguard, and protective facilities used in connection with logging operations, regardless of ownership.(3-31-22)

16.Grapple. A device attached to a hoisting line or boom for mechanically handling logs.(7-1-25)

17.Guarded. Guarded means covered, shielded, or railed so as to remove the possibility of dangerous contact or approach by employees or objects. It further means construction of guards to ensure protection from flying objects where applicable.(3-31-22)

18.Guy Lines. The lines used to stay or support spar trees, booms, etc.(3-31-22)

19.Haul Back. A small wire line traveling between the power skidder and a pulley set near the logs.

Used to return the main cable with tongs, chokers, or hooks to the next log.(3-31-22)

20.Hazard. Hazard, as used in these standards, means any condition or circumstance that may cause accident or injury to an employee.(3-31-22)

21.Hook Tender, Hooker. The worker who supervises the method of moving the logs from the woods to the place of loading.(3-31-22)

22.Jammer. A machine used for skidding logs.(7-1-25)

23.Knob. A metal ferrule arranged to be attached to the end of a line, used in place of a spliced eye.

24.Landing. Any place where logs are placed, after being yarded, awaiting loading or unloading.

25.Leaners. A live or dead leaning tree.(3-31-22)

26.Loading Boom. Any structure projecting from a pivot point to guide a log when lifted.(3-31-22)

27.Log or Logs. When the word log or logs is used, it includes poles, piling, pulpwood, skids, etc.

28.Operation (Show Woods Layout). Any place where logging is being done.(3-31-22)

29.Mainline. A cable which pulls logs or trees to loading.(3-31-22)

30.Qualified Person. An individual who, by possession of a recognized degree, certificate or professional standing, or who by extensive knowledge, training and experience, has successfully demonstrated the ability to solve or resolve problems relating to the subject matter, the work, or the project.(3-31-22)

31.Reach. An adjustable beam between a trailer and a motorized logging vehicle.(3-31-22)

32.Running Line. Any line that moves.(3-31-22)

33.Safety Factor. This term as used is the ratio of the ultimate breaking strength of a member or piece of material to the actual working stress or to the maximum permissible (safe load) stress. For example: When a safety factor of six (6) is required, the structure, lines, hoists, or other equipment referred to shall be such as to provide a strength sufficient to support a load equal to six (6) times the total weight or stress to be imposed on it.(3-31-22)

34.Shall, Will. Is compulsory or mandatory.(3-31-22)

35.Skidding. Movement of logs on the ground.(3-31-22)

36.Skyline. The supporting line on various types of logging systems on which carriage, block, or bullet travels.(3-31-22)

37.Snags. Any dead standing trees.(3-31-22)

38.Strap. Any short piece of line with an eye or “D” in each end.(3-31-22)

39.Strip. A definite location of timber allocated to a cutting crew.(3-31-22)

40.Substantial. Means constructed of such strength, of such material, and of such workmanship, that the object referred to will withstand normal wear, shock and usage.(3-31-22)

41.Tongs. A hooking device used to lift or skid logs.(3-31-22)

42.Undercut. A notch cut in the tree to guide and control the tree in falling.(3-31-22)

43.Yarding. Movement of logs or trees from the place they are felled (bucked) to a central loading or shipping point.(3-31-22)

IDAPA 24.39.80.003 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.39.80.011 Interpretation and Application of These Rules

01.Scope.

These rules are part of the state of Idaho industrial accident prevention program and have the full force and effect of law.(3-31-22)

02.Jurisdiction. In accordance with the laws of the state of Idaho, every employer and every employee working in the state of Idaho shall comply with the rules contained herein.(3-31-22)

03.Enforcement. The enforcement of all rules of this chapter and the right of inspection and examination, at any time, shall rest with the Division.(3-31-22)

04.Issues Not Covered. Where specific standards in these rules fail to provide a rule or standard applicable to the operation in question, and other state of Idaho codes or standards are applicable, those codes or standards shall apply.(3-31-22)

05.Additional Standards. It is recognized that a definite, positive safety standard cannot anticipate all contingencies. The Division, after due notice and opportunity to be heard, may require additional standards and practices to insure adequate safety at any place of any employment, and, on its own motion or upon application of any employer, employee, group, or organization, may modify any provision of this rule.(3-31-22)

06.Exceptions. In exceptional cases where the rigid application or compliance with a requirement can only be accomplished to the detriment and serious disadvantage of an operation, method, or process, exception to the requirement will be considered upon written application to the Division. After thorough investigation, the Division may grant an exception if human life and physical wellbeing will not be endangered by such exception.(3-31-22)

07.Existing Buildings, Structures, and Equipment. Nothing contained in this rule for logging safety shall prevent the use of existing buildings, structures, and equipment during their lifetime when maintained in good safe condition, and properly safeguarded, or require conformance with the applicable safety standards required by Idaho Safety Codes effective prior to the effective date of this rule, provided that replacements and alterations shall conform with all provisions of these rules.(3-31-22)

IDAPA 24.39.80.012 Employer's Responsibility

a.Every employer subject to these rules shall maintain places of employment that are safe according to the standards as set forth herein.(3-31-22)

b.Every employer shall adopt and use practices, means, methods, operations and processes that are adequate to render such employment and place of employment safe.(3-31-22)

i.Employers shall place highly visible “LOGGING AHEAD” or similar-type warning signs at the entrances of active logging jobs. Employers shall also place “TRUCKS AHEAD,” “TRUCKS ENTERING,” “TREE FALLING,” and “CABLES OVERHEAD,” whenever applicable(3-31-22)

ii.Every employer shall furnish to its crew a Company Emergency Rescue Plan.(3-31-22)

c.Every employer should insure that Safety Data Sheets (SDS) are reasonably accessible for every hazardous material.(3-31-22)

d.Every employer shall post and maintain in a conspicuous place or places in and about his place or places of business a written notice stating the fact that he has complied with the worker’s compensation law as to securing the payment of compensation to his employees and their dependents in accordance with the provisions of Idaho law. Such notice shall contain the name and address of the surety, as applicable, with which the employer has secured payment of compensation. Such notice shall also be readily available on the site where logging operations are occurring, and available for inspection by Division officials upon request.(3-31-22)

e.Every employer shall do all other things as required by these rules to protect the life and safety of employees.(3-31-22)

f.No employer shall require any employee to go or be in any place of employment that does not meet the minimum safety requirement of these rules, except for the purpose of meeting such requirements.(3-31-22)

g.No employer shall fail or neglect:(3-31-22)

i.To make available and use safety devices and safeguards as are indicated.(3-31-22)

ii.To adopt and use methods and processes adequate to render the employment and place of employment safe.(3-31-22)

h.No employer, owner or lessee of any real property shall construct or cause to be constructed any place of employment that does not meet the minimum safety requirements of these rules.(3-31-22)

i.No person, employer, employee, other than an authorized person, shall do any of the following:

i.Remove, displace, damage, destroy or carry off any safeguard, first aid material, notice or warning, furnished for use in any employment or place of employment, or interfere in any way with the use thereof by any other person.(3-31-22)

ii.Interfere with the use of any method or process adopted for the protection of any employee, including himself, in such employment or place of employment.(3-31-22)

iii.No person shall fail or neglect to do all other things as required by these rules to protect the life and safety of employees.(3-31-22)

iv.The use of intoxicants or drugs while on duty is prohibited. Persons reporting for duty while under the influence of or impaired by liquor or other legal or illegal drugs or substances shall not work until completely recovered.(3-31-22)

j.A procedure for checking the welfare of all workers during working hours shall be instituted and all workmen so advised. The employer shall assume responsibility of work assignments so that no worker shall be required to work in a position or location so isolated or hazardous that he is not within visual or audible signal contact with another person who can render assistance in case of emergency. In any operation where cutting, yarding, loading, or a combination of these activities are carried on there shall be a minimum crew of two (2) persons who shall work as a team, and shall be in visual or audible signal contact with one another. This does not apply to operators of motorized equipment, watchmen, or certain other j obs which, by their nature are singular workmen assignments. There shall be some method of checking-in crew members at the end of the shift. Each immediate supervisor shall be responsible for his crew being accounted for. This standard also includes operators of movable

k.Every employer shall keep a record of all cases of injuries his employees receive at their work. This record shall be kept in such manner as to enable representatives of the Division to determine by examining the record, the injury rate of the employee force for the period covered by the report.(3-31-22)

l.Every employer shall investigate every accident resulting in a disabling injury that his employees suffer in connection with their employment. Employers shall promptly take any required action to correct the situation. Employees shall assist in the investigation by giving any information and facts they have concerning the accident.(3-31-22)

02.Management Responsibility.(3-31-22)

a.Management shall take an active and interested part in the development and guidance of the operation’s safety program, including fire safety.(3-31-22)

b.Management shall apply a basic workable safety plan on the same priority as it does to any other work facet of the operation where elimination of all injuries is to be achieved in all phases of the operation. It is the duty of management to assume full and definite responsibility. To attain these safety objectives, management shall have the full cooperation of employers and the Division.(3-31-22)

c.Every employer shall furnish employment which shall be safe for the employees therein and shall furnish such devices and safeguards and shall adopt and use such practices, means, methods, operation and processes as are adequate to render such employment and places of employment safe to protect the life and safety of employees.

The employer shall make available necessary personal protective safety equipment.(3-31-22)

d.Regular safety inspection by a qualified person of all places of employment, rigging, logging, machinery, rolling stock, bridges, and other equipment shall be made as often as the character of the equipment requires. Defective equipment or unsafe conditions found shall be replaced, repaired or remedied promptly. (7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.39.80.013 Employee's Responsibility

a.Employees shall not indulge in activities that create or constitutes a hazard while on the employer’s property or at any time when being transported from or to work in facilities furnished by the employer.(3-31-22)

b.Employees who are assigned to, or engaged in the operation of any machinery or equipment, shall ensure that all guards, hoods, safety devices, etc., that are provided by the employer are in proper place and properly adjusted.(3-31-22)

02.Employee Accidents. Each employee shall make it his individual responsibility to keep himself, his coworkers, and his machine or equipment free from accidents to the best of his ability.(3-31-22)

03.Employee Responsibilities. Additional responsibilities of an employee insofar as industrial safety is concerned shall be as follows:(3-31-22)

a.Report immediately, preferably in writing, to his foreman or safety coordinator for the logging operation, all known unsafe conditions and practices.(3-31-22)

b.Ascertain from the foreman where medical help may be obtained if it is needed.(3-31-22)

c.Prompt reporting of every accident regardless of severity to the foreman, first aid attendant, or person in charge. Such reports are required and are necessary in order that there may be a record of his injuries.

c.The employee shall at all times apply the principles of accident prevention in his daily work and shall use proper safety devices and protective equipment. No employee shall remove, displace, damage, destroy, or carry off any safety device or safeguard furnished and provided for use in any employment, or interfere in any way with the use thereof by any other person, or interfere with the use of any method or process adopted for the protection of any employee in such employment, or fail or neglect to do every other thing reasonably necessary to protect the life and safety of himself and fellow employees, and by observing safe practice rules shall set a good example for his fellow workmen.(3-31-22)

d.The employee shall not report to the job impaired by intoxicants or legal or illegal drugs and shall not use intoxicants or such drugs while on the job. The employer shall prohibit any employee from working on or being in the vicinity of any job while under the influence of or impaired by intoxicants or drugs. Employers shall be responsible for the actions of any employee known to be in an intoxicated or impaired condition while on the job.

e.The employee shall wear, use and properly care for personal protective safety equipment issued to

him.(3-31-22)

f.Workers exposed to head hazards shall wear approved head protection.(3-31-22)

g.Proper eye protection shall be worn while performing work where a known eye hazard exists.

h.The employee should anticipate every way in which a person might be injured on the job, and conduct the work to avoid accidents.(3-31-22)

i.The employee should be on the alert constantly for any unsafe condition or practice.(3-31-22)

j.The employee should be certain that all instructions received are understood completely before starting the work.(3-31-22)

k.The employee should actively participate in safety programs.(3-31-22)

l.The employee should study the safety educational material posted on the bulletin boards and distributed by the employer or safety committee.(3-31-22)

m.It is the employer’s responsibility to ensure compliance with the foregoing provisions.(3-31-22)

IDAPA 24.39.80.014 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.39.80.051 First Aid

01.Transportation.

a.Suitable means of transportation shall be established and maintained at the site of all operations to be used in the event any employee is seriously injured.(3-31-22)

b.Each crew bus, or similar vehicle, shall be equipped with at least one (1) first aid kit with the required contents as indicated in Subsection 051.06 of this rule.(3-31-22)

02.Communication.(3-31-22)

a.Every employer shall arrange suitable telephone or radio communication at the nearest reasonable point, and shall establish an emergency action plan to be taken in the event of serious injury to any employee.

b.Instructions covering the emergency action plan shall be made available to all work crews.

c.When practicable, a poster shall be displayed on, or near the cover of each first aid cabinet or phone. The poster shall display the phone numbers of applicable emergency services. The use of the Idaho State EMS Communication Center is recommended. The number is 1-800-632-8000 or 208-846-7610.(3-31-22)

d.Every employer shall obtain their specific job location (longitude and latitude preferred) and furnish such to crew for emergency evacuation.(3-31-22)

03.Attendance for Seriously Injured.(3-31-22)

a.Seriously injured employees shall, at all times, be attended by the most qualified available person to care for the injured employees.(3-31-22)

b.Seriously injured employees shall be carefully handled and removed to a hospital, or given medical attention as soon as possible.(3-31-22)

c.Caution shall be used in removing a helpless or unconscious person from the scene of an accident to prevent further injury.(3-31-22)

04.First Aid Training. Any person performing work associated with a logging operation shall be required to complete an approved course in first-aid and have a current card.(3-31-22)

05.Stretcher or Spine Board. A spine board (designed for or adaptable to the work location and terrain) and two blankets maintained in sanitary and serviceable condition shall be available where such conditions require the use of such to provide for the proper transportation and first aid to an injured workman.(3-31-22)

06.First Aid Kits.(3-31-22)

a.The employer shall provide first aid kits that are readily available and supplied as required at each work site where trees are being felled, at each active landing, and in each employee transport vehicle.(3-31-22)

b.The following list sets forth the requirements for first-aid kits. The contents of the first-aid kits shall be adequate for small work sites, consisting of approximately two (2) to three (3) employees. When larger operations or multiple operations are being conducted at the same location, additional first-aid kits shall be provided at the work site or additional quantities of supplies shall be included in the first-aid kits:

TABLE 051.06 – REQUIRED FIRST-AID KIT CONTENTS 1.Gauze pads (at least 4 x 4 inches) 2.Two (2) large gauze pads (at least 8 x 10 inches) 3.Box adhesive bandages (band-aids) 4.One (1) package gauze roller bandage (at least two (2) inches wide) 5.Two (2) triangular bandages 6.Wound cleaning agent such as sealed moistened towelettes 7.Scissors 8.At least one (1) blanket 9.Tweezers

10.Adhesive tape

11.Latex gloves

12.Resuscitation equipment such as resuscitation bag, airway, or pocket mask

13.Two (2) elastic wraps

14.Splint

15.Directions for requesting emergency assistance

c.Special kits, or the equivalent, shall be provided and approved for special hazards peculiar to any given work location.(3-31-22)

d.First aid kits shall be in sanitary containers. Such containers shall be designed and constructed so as to be impervious to conditions of weather, dust, dirt, or other foreign matter.(3-31-22)

IDAPA 24.39.80.052 Safety Equipment and Personal Protective Equipment

a.Special protective equipment or apparel required for safe employment, other than clothing or equipment customarily supplied by employees, shall be furnished by the employer where necessary for the safety of employees.(3-31-22)

b.Employees are required to utilize all prescribed safety equipment and special protective equipment or apparel, and they shall exercise due care in maintaining it in safe, efficient and sanitary conditions.(3-31-22)

c.Employers are required to provide, at no cost to employees, appropriate eye, face, head, hand, and leg protection.(3-31-22)

d.Defective safety equipment shall not be used. Where the need for their use is indicated, protective covering, ointments, gloves or other effective protection shall be provided for and used by persons exposed to materials that are irritating to the skin.(3-31-22)

02.Inspection, Maintenance and Sanitizing.(3-31-22)

a.Each employer shall maintain a regular system of inspection and maintenance of personal protective equipment furnished to workers.(3-31-22)

b.Airline equipment shall have a necessary regulator and shall be inspected before each use.

c.Workers shall check their equipment at the beginning of each shift.(3-31-22)

03.Eye Protection.(3-31-22)

a.Where workers are subject to eye hazards they shall be furnished with and shall wear eye protection suitable for the hazards involved. Such eye protection shall conform to the American National Standard Institute standards for Head, Eyes and Respiratory protection.(7-1-25)

b.Clean water in ample quantities shall be immediately available where materials are handled that are caustic or corrosive to the eyes.(3-31-22)

04.Foot and Leg Protection.(3-31-22)

a.Employees shall wear footwear suitable for the work conditions.(3-31-22)

b.Anyone working in the woods shall wear footwear that provides adequate traction and ankle support.(7-1-25)

b.Special types or designs of shoes such as sharp caulk-soled boots, or foot guards, shall be required to be worn where conditions exist that make their use necessary for the safety of the workers.(7-1-25)

c.Leggings or high boots of leather, rubber or other suitable material shall be worn by climbers, persons exposed to hot substances, or caustic solutions, etc., or where poisonous snakes may be encountered.

d.Each employee who operates a chain saw shall wear leg protection, which meets the requirements of ASTM F 1897 and covers the full length of the thigh to the top of the boot on each leg, except when working as a climber.(3-31-22)

05.Hand Protection.(3-31-22)

a.Hand protection suitable for the required usage shall be worn wherever the nature of the work requires extra protection for the hands.(3-31-22)

b.Gloves shall not be worn where their use would create a hazard.(3-31-22)

06.Head Protection.(3-31-22)

a.Persons required to work where falling or flying objects, overhead structures, exposed electrical conductors, equipment or material create a hazard shall wear approved safety hard hats or caps at all times while exposed to such hazards.(3-31-22)

b.Employees working in locations which present a catching or fire hazard to hair shall wear caps or other head protection that completely covers the hair.(3-31-22)

07.Life Lines -- Safety Belts.(3-31-22)

a.Each life line and safety belt shall be of sufficient strength to support, without breaking, a weight of five thousand four hundred (5,400) pounds.(7-1-25)

b.All life lines and safety belts shall be periodically inspected by the supervisor in charge. Employees shall inspect their belts and lines daily. Any defective belts or life lines shall be discarded or repaired before use.

c.Life lines shall be safely secured to strong stable supports and maintained with minimum slack.

08.Work Clothing.(3-31-22)

a.Clothing shall be worn which is appropriate to work performed and conditions encountered.

b.Loose sleeves, cuffs or other loose or ragged clothing shall not be worn near moving machinery.

c.Clothing saturated or impregnated with flammable liquids, corrosive substances, irritants or oxidizing agents shall be removed immediately and not worn again until properly cleaned.(3-31-22)

d.When it is necessary for workers to wear aprons or similar clothing near moving machines or hazardous materials, such clothing shall be so arranged that it can be instantly removed.(3-31-22)

e.Clothing with exposed metal buttons, metal visors or other conductive materials shall not be worn around exposed electrical conductors.(3-31-22)

09.Respiratory Equipment.(3-31-22)

a.When filter or cartridge-type respirators are required to be used regularly, each employee shall have one such respirator for his own exclusive use.(3-31-22)

b.Employers and employees shall familiarize themselves with the use, sanitary care and limitations of such respiratory equipment as they may have occasion to use.(3-31-22)

c.Whenever practical, harmful dusts, fumes, mists, vapors and gases shall be suppressed by water, oil or other means which will minimize harmful exposure and permit employees to work without the use of respiratory

d.Whenever compressed air from an oil-lubricated compressor is used to supply respiratory equipment, a filter shall be inserted in the supply line to remove any oil, sediment or condensation that it may contain.

Such filter shall be maintained in efficient working condition.(3-31-22)

e.When self-contained respiratory equipment is used in hazardous locations, a standby unit shall be maintained for rescue purposes.(3-31-22)

10.Hearing Protection. Where workers are subject to hazardous noise levels, they shall be furnished with and shall wear hearing protection suitable for the level of hazard involved.(3-31-22)

11.Additional Information and Requirements. Additional information and requirements for the use of safety equipment and personal protective equipment may be found in the Safety and Health Standards established in IDAPA 07.09.01, “Safety and Health Rules for Places of Public Employment.”(3-31-22)

IDAPA 24.39.80.053 Fire Prevention, Protection and Suppression

a.Additional Standards pertinent to the storage, distribution, and use of liquefied petroleum gases and other flammables or combustibles may be obtained by reference to regulations of the Idaho State Fire Marshal and the National Fire Protective Association pamphlets.(3-31-22)

b.Firefighting equipment, suitable for the hazards involved, shall be provided for the protection of workmen. Such equipment shall be readily accessible, and shall be plainly labeled as to its character and method of operation. Locations of such equipment shall be conspicuously posted.(3-31-22)

c.All equipment and apparatus for fire protection and firefighting shall be regularly inspected and be maintained in good and serviceable condition at all times. A record of the date of the latest inspection shall be kept with each portable fire extinguisher. This includes all automatic sprinkler systems and hose lines.(3-31-22)

d.Fire extinguishers, whether portable or automatic, shall comply with appropriate current standards as published by the National Fire Protection Association. Portable fire extinguishers shall also be subject to an annual maintenance inspection by a qualified person. They must also be visually inspected by the employer each month, and such inspections documented.(7-1-25)

e.Electrical lights, apparatus, and wiring used in locations where flammable or explosive gases, vapors, mists, or dusts are present shall be of the type accepted by the adopted Electrical Code for the State of Idaho.

f.Smoking while refueling equipment is prohibited.(3-31-22)

g.All fuel storage tanks, service tanks, etc., shall be bonded for ground for fueling purposes.

h.When lights are used in enclosed rooms, vaults, manholes, tanks or other containers which may contain flammable or explosive vapors, mists, gases, or dusts, such lights shall be of the approved vapor proof types.

i.No torch, flame, arc, spark, or other source of ignition shall be applied to any tank or container that has contained or does contain flammable or explosive vapors or materials until such container has been made to be inert or otherwise purged of flammable or explosive vapors or materials, except that “hot tapping” on tanks may be done provided that:(3-31-22)

i.There shall be at least four (4) feet of liquid above the point of the “hot tap”; and(3-31-22)

ii.The work shall be carried out under the direction of a supervisor experienced in this type of work.

NOTE: A test for flammability or explosiveness of the interior of such vessels shall be made using a device which will determine the concentration of flammable vapors for this purpose. Unless the percentage of flammable vapors is found to be less than twenty percent (20%) of its lower explosive limit, no source of ignition shall be permitted.(3-31-22)

j.Frequent testing for determining the concentration of flammable and explosive vapors shall be made, and if the concentration is found to exceed twenty percent (20%) of its lower explosive limit, sources of ignition shall be extinguished or removed immediately. Fire extinguishing equipment adequate to cope with possible hazards shall be maintained close at hand.(3-31-22)

k.Smoking, the use of open flames, tools which are not approved for such areas, and other sources of ignition are prohibited in locations where flammable or explosive gases, vapors, mists, or dusts are present. Warning signs shall be conspicuously posted in such areas.(3-31-22)

l.Where salamanders and other fuel-burning heating devices are used, they shall be provided with adequate means for preventing the emission of sparks or other sources of ignition. Such devices shall be insulated or placed a sufficient distance from combustible structures and materials to prevent causing fires. Adequate ventilation shall be provided.(3-31-22)

m.When welding or cutting is done special precautionary measures shall be exercised before, during and after the job is finished to eliminate any possibility of immediate or delayed fires.(3-31-22)

02.Flammable Liquids.(3-31-22)

a.For the purpose of this section, “Flammable Liquids” shall mean any liquid having a flash point below one hundred forty (140) degrees Fahrenheit and having a vapor pressure not exceeding forty (40) pounds per square inch (absolute) at one hundred (100) degrees Fahrenheit.(3-31-22)

b.All flammable liquids shall be stored in approved containers suitable for their particular contents, and such approved containers shall be stored in areas removed from any direct source of ignition.(3-31-22)

c.Flammable liquids shall be kept in approved covered containers when not in actual use. (3-31-22)

d.The name of the flammable liquid contained therein shall be placed on all stock containers, and whenever such liquids are taken from the stock containers and put into other approved containers for use, it shall be the responsibility of the employer to ensure that these containers (except small containers of flammable liquids which are scheduled for immediate use and disposal) also bear the name of the flammable liquid contained therein.

e.Flammable liquids shall not be used indoors to clean or wash floors, walls, any part of a building structure, furniture, equipment, machines or machine parts, unless sufficient ventilation is provided to bring and maintain the concentration of explosive vapors in the atmosphere below twenty percent (20%) of its lower explosive limit.

NOTE: The use of flammable liquids may create toxic contaminants in the atmosphere above permissible threshol d limit values.(3-31-22)

03.Transferring Flammable Liquids and Powdered Materials. In transferring flammable liquids or finely divided flammable or explosive materials from one metal container to another, the containers shall be in firm contact with each other or be continuously bonded throughout the transfer so as to prevent the accumulation of static charges. Where portable tanks, mixers, or processing vessels are used for flammable liquids or flammable or explosive compounds, they shall be bonded and grounded while being filled or emptied.(3-31-22)

04.Transportation of Flammable Liquids.(3-31-22)

a.When transporting gasoline or other flammable liquids, approved containers shall be used.

b.If tank truck service is not available or used, gasoline and other flammable liquids shall be transported in approved containers. Bungs shall be tight and containers shall be secured to prevent movement.

c.It may be permissible to transport gasoline or other flammable liquids on passenger vehicles if in approved, closed safety containers of not more than six and one-half (6 1/2) gallon capacity, provided such containers are carried in a suitable and safe location outside the passenger compartment.(3-31-22)

IDAPA 24.39.80.054 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.39.80.101 Garages and Machine Shops and Related Areas

a.Machine shops and other structures where workers are employed shall be constructed, ventilated, lighted and maintained in a safe working condition.(3-31-22)

b.Engines, pulleys, belts, gears, sprockets, collars and other moving parts of machinery shall be properly guarded.(3-31-22)

c.Grinding wheels shall have proper and adequate eye guards or hoods. Face shields shall be worn by employees while grinding.(3-31-22)

d.Machines shall be in good repair and good housekeeping shall be maintained.(3-31-22)

e.Proper goggles or hoods shall be made available and used in grinding and cutting, acetylene welding, electric arc and other types of welding.(3-31-22)

f.Tools shall be kept in good condition and care shall be taken in the handling and storing of all tools and materials so as to minimize chances for injury.(3-31-22)

g.An approved screen shall be provided, and used, to protect other workers from welding flashes.

IDAPA 24.39.80.102 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.39.80.151 General Requirements

01.Rigging.(3

a.Rigging shall be moved by established signals and procedures only.(3-31-22)

b.Signals shall be thoroughly understood by the crew.(3-31-22)

02.Daily Test Required. Each electric or radio signal system shall be tested daily before operations begin.(3-31-22)

03.Personnel in Clear Before Moving Logs or Turns.(3-31-22)

a.Operators of yarding equipment shall not move logs or turns until all personnel are in the clear and a signal has been given.(3-31-22)

b.Operators of yarding equipment shall be alert to signals at all times.(3-31-22)

IDAPA 24.39.80.152 Signaling

01.One Worker to Give Signals.(3-31-22)

a.The Worker sending drag shall be the only one to give signals.(3-31-22)

b.Any person is authorized to give a stop signal when a worker is in danger or other emergency conditions are apparent.(3-31-22)

02.Signal Must Be Clear and Distinct.(3-31-22)

a.Machine operators shall not move any line unless the signal received is clear and distinct.

b.If in doubt the operator shall repeat the signal as understood and wait for confirmation.(3-31-22)

03.Hand Signal Use Restricted.(3-31-22)

a.Hand signals are permitted only when in plain sight of the operator.(3-31-22)

b.Hand signals may be used at any time as an emergency stop signal.(3-31-22)

04.Persons in Clear Before Signal Given. All persons shall be in the clear before a signal is given to move logs or turns.(3-31-22)

05.Throwing Material Prohibited. Throwing of any type of material as a signal is prohibited.

06.Audible Signaling to Be Installed and Used. A whistle, horn or other audible signaling device, clearly audible to all persons in the affected area, shall be installed and used on all machines operating as yarders.

07.Audible Signaling Device at the Machine to Be Activated. When radio or other means of signal transmission is used, an audible signal must be activated at the machine.(3-31-22)

IDAPA 24.39.80.153 Electric Signal Systems

01.Weatherproof Wire and Att achments to Be Used. Where an electrical signal system is used, all wire and attachments shall be of the weather proof type.(3-31-22)

02.Electric Signal Systems to Be Properly Installed and Adjusted. Electric signal systems shall be properly installed and adjusted as necessary. They shall be protected against accidental signaling, and shall be maintained in good operating condition at all times.(3-31-22)

03.All Connections to Be Weatherproof. All connections in insulated signal wire shall be weatherproof.(3-31-22)

IDAPA 24.39.80.154 Radio Signaling Systems

01.Use of Conventional Space Transmission of Radio Signals.

When conventional space transmission of radio signals is used under and in accordance with an authorization granted by the Federal Communications Commissions to initiate any whistle, horn, bell or other audible signaling device, or such transmission of radio signals is used to activate or control any equipment, the following specific rules contained in this section will apply.

NOTE: This rule shall apply only to devices operating on radio frequencies authorized pursuant to the rules and regulations of the Federal Communications Commission.(3-31-22)

02.Description on Outside of Case.(3-31-22)

a.Each radio transmitter and receiver shall have its tone frequency(s) in hertz (CPS), the manufacturer’s serial number, and the assigned radio frequency clearly and permanently indicated on the outside of the case.(3-31-22)

b.When the duration of a tone frequency performs a function, the pulse-tone duration shall also be permanently indicated on the outside of the case.(3-31-22)

c.On the FCC restricted frequencies one hundred fifty-four point fifty-seven (154.57) MHZ and one hundred fifty-four point sixty (154.60) MHZ, a maximum of two (2) watts of power will be allowed.(3-31-22)

03.Activating Pulse-Tone Limitations. The activating pulse-tone of any multi-tone transmitter shall be of not more than forty (40) milliseconds duration.(3-31-22)

04.Adjustment, Repair or Alteration. All adjustments, repairs or alterations of radio-signaling devices shall be done only by or under the immediate supervision and responsibility of a person holding a first or second class commercial radio operator’s license, either radio-telephone or radio-telegraph, issued by the Federal Communications Commission.(3-31-22)

05.Testing of Tone-Signal Controlled Devices.(3-31-22)

a.Tone-signal controlled devices shall be tested each day before work begins. If any part of the equipment fails to function properly, the system shall not be used until the source of trouble is detected and corrected.

b.Audible signals used for test purposes shall not include signals used for movement of lines or material.

NOTE: Equipment or machines controlled by radio-signaling devices shall be designed and built to “fail safe” or stop, in case of failure of the radio-signaling device.(3-31-22)

06.Interference, Overlap, Fade-Out or Blackout. When interference, overlap, fade-out or blackout of radio signals is encountered, the use of the tone-signal controlled device shall be immediately discontinued. The use of such tone-signal controlled device shall not be resumed until the source of trouble has been detected and corrected.(3-31-22)

07.Number of Transmitters Required.(3-31-22)

a.Two (2) radio transmitters shall be in the vicinity of the rigging crew at all times when transmitters are being used by persons who are around the live rigging.(3-31-22)

b.Only one (1) radio transmitter shall be required, if in possession of a signalman who has no other duties and remains in an area where he is not subjected to hazards created by moving logs or rigging.(3-31-22)

08.Voice Communication.(3-31-22)

a.Voice Communication shall be used for explanation purposes only.(3-31-22)

b.Actual activation of equipment shall be done by audible horn, bell or whistle and not by voice.

c.The signal must be audible throughout the entire yarding and machine area.(3-31-22)

IDAPA 24.39.80.155 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.39.80.201 Truck Road Standards

01.Building Roads.

a.When building roads, all construction shall be carried on in accordance with good logging engineering practices and shall be constructed and maintained in a manner to insure reasonably safe operation.

b.The due consideration shall be given to the following factors:(3-31-22)

i.The type of material used for roadbed and surfacing.(3-31-22)

ii.The type of hauling equipment which will travel road.(3-31-22)

iii.The size of loads to be hauled.(3-31-22)

iv.The pitch and length of grades.(3-31-22)

v.The degree of curvature and visibility on turns.(3-31-22)

vi.The volume of traffic.(3-31-22)

c.Truck roads shall not be too steep for safe operation of logging, or work trucks which operate over them.(7-1-25)

d.Sufficient turnouts shall be provided and a safe side clearance maintained along all truck roads.

e.Brush and other materials that obstruct the view at intersections or on sharp curves shall be eliminated and all possible precautions taken.(3-31-22)

f.Culverts and bridge structures shall be adequate to support the maximum imposed loads without exceeding the maximum safe working unit stresses. Such structures shall be maintained in good condition and shall be inspected annually by a qualified individual.(3-31-22)

g.Dangerous trees, snags and brush, which may create a hazard shall be cleared a safe distance on both sides of the right-of-way.(3-31-22)

02.Main Truck Roads.(3-31-22)

a.Main truck roads shall be of sufficient width and evenness to insure the safe operation of

b.Truck roads with blind curves where visibility is less than three hundred (300) feet shall be of sufficient width for two (2) trucks to pass, controlled by some type of signal system, or speed shall be limited to fifteen (15) miles per hour.(3-31-22)

c.Conditions such as broken planking, deep holes, large rocks, logs, etc., which prevent the safe operation of equipment shall be immediately corrected.(3-31-22)

d.Wheel guard rails on bridges shall be not less than eight (8) inches above deck and shall be substantially fastened to withstand impact of shearing wheels. Such guard rails shall extend the full length of the bridge.(3-31-22)

03.Operation of Equipment. Excavators, tractors, bulldozers, and other equipment shall be operated in a safe and careful manner. All precautions shall be taken to insure the safety of all employees.(3-31-22)

IDAPA 24.39.80.202 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.39.80.251 Transportation of Employees

01.General Requirements.(3-31-22)

a.Anchored seats and seat belts shall be provided for each person riding in any vehicle.(3-31-22)

b.Vehicles used for the transportation of employees shall be constructed or accommodated for that purpose, and shall be equipped with adequate seats with back rests properly secured in place. Vehicles shall be protected on their sides and ends to prevent falling from the vehicle.(3-31-22)

c.Vehicles, as described above, shall be equipped with adequate steps, stirrups, or other similar devices, so placed and arranged that the employees can safely mount or dismount the vehicle.(3-31-22)

d.Vehicles designed to transport nine (9) or more passengers, shall be equipped with an emergency exit not less than six and one-half (6 1/2) feet in area, with the smaller dimension being not less than eighteen (18) inches. Such exit shall be placed at or near the back of the vehicle on the side opposite the regular entrance. The route to and egress from the exit must be unobstructed.(3-31-22)

e.Every emergency exit shall be conspicuously marked “Emergency Exit,” and be so fastened that it can be readily opened by a passenger in the case of emergency.(3-31-22)

f.Emergency doors shall be not less than twenty-four (24) inches in width.(3-31-22)

g.Every vehicle used for the transportation of employees shall be equipped with an Underwriters Laboratories, Inc. approved fire extinguisher, or its equivalent, with at least a four (4) BC rating.(3-31-22)

h.All drivers of vehicles used for the transportation of employees shall have an appropriate operator’s license for the state of Idaho.(3-31-22)

i.Drivers shall inspect vehicles before operating them. If a vehicle is found to be unsafe, it shall be reported to a proper authority and shall not be operated until it has been made safe.(3-31-22)

j.Brakes, steering mechanism and lights shall be tested immediately before starting any trip.

k.No flammable materials, or toxic substances shall be transported in passenger compartments of vehicles while carrying personnel.(3-31-22)

l.Transporting more individuals than the seating capacity of the vehicle is permitted only under emergency conditions. Should it become necessary in an emergency, all employees not having seats must ride within the vehicle.(3-31-22)

m.Under no circumstances shall employees ride on fenders or running boards.(3-31-22)

n.An employee must never ride in, or on, any vehicle with his legs hanging over the end or sides.

o.If tools are transported at the same time that employees are being transported, the tools shall be enclosed in boxes or racks and properly secured to the vehicle.(3-31-22)

p.No one shall board, or leave, moving equipment except in the case of an emergency.(7-1-25)

q.Equipment shall be operated in a safe manner and in compliance with traffic regulations. Safe speeds shall be maintained at all times.(3-31-22)

r.No explosives shall be transported on, or in, vehicles used primarily for carrying personnel while such vehicles are being used for carrying personnel.(3-31-22)

s.The driver shall do everything reasonably possible to keep vehicles under control at all times, and shall not operate vehicles at excessive speeds. The driver shall take into consideration the condition of the roadway, weather factors, curves, grades and grade crossings, the mechanical condition of the vehicle and equipment and other pertinent items. The driver shall clear rocks from between dual tires before driving on multi-lane roads. A daily inspection shall be made of trucks and trailers with particular attention to steering apparatus, brakes, boosters, brake hoses and connections, reaches and couplings. Any defects found shall be corrected before the equipment is used.

IDAPA 24.39.80.252 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.39.80.301 Falling and Bucking

a.There shall be an established method of checking-in workers from the woods. Each supervisor shall be responsible for their crew being accounted for at the end of each shift.(3-31-22)

b.Cutters not in sight of another employee shall have radio communications with crew members on that job site.(3-31-22)

c.Common sense and good judgment must govern the safety of cutters as effected by weather conditions. At no time shall they work if wind is strong enough to prevent the falling of trees in the desired direction, or when vision is impaired by weather conditions or darkness.(3-31-22)

d.Tools of cutters such as axes, sledges, wedges, saws, etc., must be maintained in safe condition.

Battered sledges, and wedges shall not be used. When power saws are used, wedges shall be made of soft material, such as wood or plastic.(3-31-22)

e.Cutters shall not be placed on hillsides immediately below each other or below other operations where there is possible danger.(3-31-22)

f.Trees shall not be felled if a falling tree endangers any worker, line, or any unit in operation. A two (2) tree length distance shall be maintained between cutters and any other person working on the same unit unless they work directly together and only one (1) cutter is sawing at a time.(7-1-25)

g.Before starting to fall or buck any tree or snag, the cutter must survey the area for possible hazards and proceed according to safe practices. Snags, which are unsafe to cut, shall be blown down with explosives, or felled by other methods.(3-31-22)

h.Dangerous or hazardous snags shall be felled prior to or in the course of cutting a strip. No danger tree shall be felled by one (1) cutter where and when the assistance of a fellow employee is necessary to minimize the danger or hazards involved. In the case that any danger tree or snag cannot be safely felled and must remain standing or unattended, such tree or snag shall be clearly identified and suitably marked, including all surrounding impact area, and the employee’s supervisor shall be notified as soon as possible.(3-31-22)

i.In falling timber, adjacent brush and snow shall be cleared away from and around the tree to be felled to provide sufficient room to use saws and axes and provide an adequate escape path.(3-31-22)

j.Cutters shall not fall into another strip; leaners on the line shall be traded. Trees shall be felled into the open whenever conditions permit.(3-31-22)

k.Undercuts and side cuts shall be large enough to safely guide the trees and eliminate the possibility of splitting and barber chairing. Particular care shall be taken to hold enough wood to prevent the tree from prematurely slipping or twisting from the stump. Undercuts shall be cleaned out to the full depth of the saw cut.

Especially large undercuts are necessary in heavy leaners. When required to safely fell a tree, mechanical or other means shall be employed to accomplish this objective. Pre-cutting of trees for the purpose of domino falling is prohibited.

NOTE: Trees with no perceptible lean having an undercut to a depth of one quarter (1/4) of the diameter of the tree with an undercut height equal to one fifth (1/5) of the diameter of the tree will be assumed to be in reasonable compliance with this rule.(7-1-25)

l.Back-cuts shall be above the level of the upper horizontal cut of the undercut.(3-31-22)

m.While wedging, fallers shall watch for limbs or other material which might be jarred loose. Cutting of holding wood in lieu of using wedges is prohibited.(3-31-22)

n.When falling or bucking a tree is completed the power saw motor should be stopped. The power saw motor shall be stopped while the operator is traveling to the next tree.(3-31-22)

o.Cutters shall not work on the downhill side of the log being bucked unless absolutely unavoidable and only when the log is blocked or otherwise secured to prevent rolling when cut is completed.(3-31-22)

p.Cutters must give timely warning to all persons within range of any log which may have a tendency to roll or slide after being cut off.(3-31-22)

q.Logs shall be completely bucked-through whenever possible. If it becomes hazardous to complete a cut, then the log shall be marked and identified by a predetermined method. Rigging crews shall be instructed to recognize such marks and when possible cutters shall warn rigging crew of locations where such unfinished cuts remain.(3-31-22)

r.A competent person properly experienced in this type of work shall be placed in charge of falling and bucking operations. Inexperienced workers shall not be allowed to fall timber or buck logs unless under the direction of experienced workers.(3-31-22)

s.Power saws shall be kept in good repair at all times. All exhaust parts on power chain saws shall be constructed and maintained so the operator is exposed to a minimum amount of fumes and noise.(3-31-22)

t.Combustion engine driven power saws shall be equipped with an automatic throttle which will return the motor to idling speed upon release of the throttle.(3-31-22)

u.Power saw motors shall be stopped while being fueled.(3-31-22)

v.Each employee who operates a chain saw shall wear leg protection, which meets the requirements of ASTM F 1897 and covers the full length of the thigh to the top of the boot on each leg, except when working as a climber.(3-31-22)

IDAPA 24.39.80.302 Illustration of Undercuts

01.Illustration of Undercuts.

FIGURE 302.01.a. – CONVENTIONAL UNDERCUT

a.Conventional Undercut. May be made with parallel saw cut and a diagonal cut. Backcut (D) shall be above undercut.(3-31-22)

FIGURE 302.01.b. – HUMBOLT UNDERCUT

b.Humbolt Undercut. (See Figure 302.01.b.). The cut is the same as a conventional cut (See Figure 302.01.a.) except that waste is on the stump. Backcut (D) shall be above undercut.(7-1-25)

FIGURE 302.01.c. – OPEN FACE UNDERCUT

c.Open Face Undercut. A cut in which two (2) angle cuts are made with the saw (See Figure 302.01.c.) -- It is used when it is necessary that the face does not close until the tree is near the ground.(3-31-22)

IDAPA 24.39.80.303 Mechanical Delimbers and Feller Bunchers

a.Before start-up or moving equipment, check the surrounding area for fellow employees or

b.If any protective device is missing, it is to be replaced as soon as possible. If it affects a safe operation, the machine is to be shut down.(3-31-22)

c.When a machine is working, extreme caution shall be used when approaching. The operator shall be notified by radio or visual contact.(3-31-22)

d.All raised equipment shall be lowered to the ground or to a safe position and the park brake set before leaving the machine.(3-31-22)

IDAPA 24.39.80.304 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.39.80.351 Rigging

01.General. The determining factor in rigging-up shall be the amount of rated stump pull which a machine can deliver on each line.(3-31-22)

02.Equipment Classification.(3-31-22)

a.Equipment shall be classed according to the manufacturer’s rating.(3-31-22)

b.Where lower gear ratios or other devices are installed to increase the power of equipment, the size of the rigging shall be increased proportionately so that it will safely withstand the increased strains to conform to Subsection 010.04 of these rules.(3-31-22)

03.Safe Loading. Rigging, and all parts thereof, shall be of a design and application to safely withstand all expected or potential loading to which it will be subjected.(3-31-22)

04.Allowable Loading or Stress.(3-31-22)

a.In no case shall the allowable loading or stress imposed be over one half (1/2) of the rated breaking strength of any parts of the rigging.(7-1-25)

b.This shall not be construed as applying to chokers.(3-31-22)

05.Chokers. Chokers shall be at least one eighth (1/8) inch smaller than the mainline.(3-31-22)

06.Placing, Condition, and Operation of Rigging. The placing, condition and operation of rigging shall be such as to ensure safety to those who will be working in the vicinity.(3-31-22)

07.Arrangement and Operation. Rigging shall be arranged and operated so that rigging or loads will not pound, rub, or saw against lines, straps, blocks, or other equipment.(3-31-22)

08.Line Hazards.(3-31-22)

a.Running lines and changed settings shall be made in a way to avoid bight of line hazards.

b.Signals to operator shall be made before moving lines.(3-31-22)

09.Inspection of Rigging.(3-31-22)

a.A thorough inspection, by the operator or qualified person, of all blocks, straps, guylines, and other rigging shall be made before the rigging is placed in position for use and subsequently repeated every thirty (30) days for as long as the rigging is in position for use. Each rigging inspection shall be documented and kept onsite for review.(3-31-22)

b.This inspection shall include an examination for damaged, cracked or worn parts, loose nuts and bolts, lubrication, condition of straps and guylines.(3-31-22)

c.The repairs or replacements necessary for safe operation shall be made before rigging is used.

IDAPA 24.39.80.352 Guylines

a.Guylines shall be of plow steel or equivalent, and in good condition.(3-31-22)

b.Guylines shall be provided in sufficient number, condition and location to develop stability and strength equivalent to the breaking strength of any component part of the rigging or equipment.(3-31-22)

c.Guylines shall be fastened by means of shackles or hooks and slides. The use of loops or molles for attaching guylines is prohibited. The use of wedge buttons on guylines is prohibited.(3-31-22)

d.The “U” part of a shackle shall be around the guyline and the pin passed through the eye of the guyline. Pins shall be secured with molles, cotter-keys, or the equivalent.(3-31-22)

e.Guylines shall be kept tightened while equipment or rigging they support is in use.(3-31-22)

02.Anchoring Guylines.(3-31-22)

a.Stumps used for fastening guylines and skylines shall be carefully chosen as to position, height and strength. They shall be tied back if necessary. See Figures 352.02.a. and 352.02.b.

FIGURE 352.02.a.

FIGURE 352.02.b.

b.Properly installed deadman anchors are permitted. Guylines shall not be directly attached to deadman anchors. Suitable straps or equally effective means shall be used.(3-31-22)

c.Stumps, trees and guyline anchors shall be inspected from time to time while an operation is in progress and hazardous conditions immediately corrected.(3-31-22)

d.Standing trees which will reach landing or work areas shall not be used for guyline anchors.

e.Any guyline anchor tree that can reach the landing or work area shall be felled before using as an anchor.(3-31-22)

03.Effectiveness of Guys.(3-31-22)

a.Guys making an angle with the horizontal greater than sixty (60) degrees will be considered less than fifty percent (50%) effective. For the effectiveness of other angles see Table 352.03.a.

Effectiveness of Angles DegreeEffectiveness 60 to 4550% to 75% 45 to 3075% to 85% 30 to 1085% to 95%

b.For the effectiveness of guys according to the number of guys and their spacing, see Table 352.03.b.

IDAPA 24.39.80.353 Lines, Shackles and Blocks

01.General Requirements.(3-31-22)

a.All lines, shackles, blocks, etc., should be maintained in good condition and shall be of sufficient size, diameter and material to withstand one and one half (1 1/2) times the maximum stress imposed.(3-31-22)

b.Wire rope or other rigging equipment which shows a fifteen percent (15%) reduction in strength shall be replaced.(3-31-22)

02.Splices.(3-31-22)

a.Two (2) lines may be connected by a long splice, or by shackles of patent links of the next size larger than the line where practical.(3-31-22)

b.A safe margin of line must be used for making long splices. See Table 353.02.b.

Effectiveness of Guys No. of Guys Equally Guys Most Effective When Pull Is:

Guys Will Support Strain Equal To The Following: 3Opposite 1 guy100% of strength of 1 guy 4Halfway between 2 guys140% of strength of 1 guy 5Opposite 1 guy or halfway between 2 guys160% of strength of 1 guy 6Opposite 1 guy or halfway between 2 guys200% of strength of 1 guy 7Opposite 1 guy or halfway between 2 guys225% of strength of 1 guy 8Halfway between 2 guys260% of strength of 1 guy 9Opposite 1 guy or halfway between 2 guys290% of strength of 1 guy 10Opposite 1 guy or halfway between 2 guys325% of strength of 1 guy Long Splices Rope DiameterUnraveledTotal Length 3/8"8'16' 5/8"13'20' 3/4"15'30' 7/8"18'36'

03.Wire Rope Clips or Clamps.(3-31-22)

a.Clips should be spaced at least six (6) rope diameters apart to achieve maximum holding power.

See Table 353.03.a.

b.Clips should always be attached with the base or saddle of the clip against the longer or “live” end of the rope. See Figure 353.03.b. This is the only approved method.

FIGURE 353.03.b.

c.Do not reverse the clips or stager them. See Figure 353.03.c. Otherwise the “U” bolt will cut into the live rope when the load is applied. 1"20'40'

Wire Rope Clip Spacing Diameter of RopeNumber of Clips Required Space Between Clips 1-1/2-inch810 inches 1-3/8-inch79 inches 1-1/4-inch68 inches 1-1/8-inch57 inches 1- inch56 inches 7/8-inch55-1/4 inches 3/4-inch55-1/2 inches 3/8 to 5/8-inch43 inches Long Splices Rope DiameterUnraveledTotal Length FIGURE 353.03.c.

d.After the rope has been used and is under tension, the clips should again be tightened to take up any looseness caused by the tension reducing the rope diameter. Remember that even when properly applied a clip fastening has only about ninety percent (90%) of the strength of the rope and far less than that when rigged improperly.(3-31-22)

e.U-bolt wire rope clamps must not be used to form eyes on running lines, skylines, machine guylines, or straps.(3-31-22)

04.Blocks. All blocks must be of steel construction or of material of equal or greater strength and so hung that they will not strike or interfere with other blocks or rigging.(3-31-22)

05.Pins. All pins in blocks shall be properly secured by keys of the largest size the pin hole will accommodate(3-31-22)

06.Shackles.(3-31-22)

a.Spread in jaws of shackles shall not exceed by more than one (1) inch the size of yoke or swivel of the block to which it is connected.(3-31-22)

b.All shackles must be made of forged steel or material of equivalent strength and one (1) size larger than the line it connects.(3-31-22)

07.Cable Cutting. Cable cutters, soft hammers, or a cutting torch shall be available and used for cutting cables. Eye protection must be used when cutting cable. (3-31-22)

08.Damaged or Worn Wire Rope. Worn or damaged wire rope creating a safety hazard shall be taken out of service or properly repaired before further use.(3-31-22)

IDAPA 24.39.80.354 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.39.80.401 General Requirements

01.Driver Protection Guard.(3-31-22)

a.A substantial metal guard for the protection of the driver shall be installed on every piece of equipment, where exposed to overhead hazards.(3-31-22)

b.This guard shall be strongly constructed to afford adequate protection for the driver against overhead hazards.(3-31-22)

c.This guard shall be of sufficient width and height so that it will not impair the movements of the driver or prevent his immediate escape from the equipment in emergencies.(3-31-22)

d.This guard shall be of open construction to allow the driver all the visibility possible.(3-31-22)

02.Canopy Framework.(3-31-22)

a.The canopy framework shall be consistent with the Society of Automotive Engineers SAE J1040 April 1988 “Performance Criteria for Rollover Protective Structures (ROPS) for Construction, Earthmoving, Forestry, and Mining Machines.” (7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.39.80.402 Tractors and Similar Logging Equipment

01.Operating Condition.

a.The general operating condition of a tractor or equipment shall be sufficient to ensure the safety of the driver and other workmen.(3-31-22)

b.An operating manual shall be readily available in either print or electronic format for each piece of machinery.(3-31-22)

02.Guards. All guards shall be kept in place and in good repair at all times when the tractor or similar equipment is used.(3-31-22)

03.Repairs or Adjustments. Repairs or adjustments to clutches, frictions, or other parts of equipment which may cause hazardous movement of equipment shall not be done while engines are running.(3-31-22)

04.Blades or Similar Equipment.(3-31-22)

a.Blades or similar equipment shall be blocked or otherwise securely supported when making repairs or performing other work around such equipment when they are elevated from the ground.(3-31-22)

b.Equipment under repair or adjustment should be tagged out.(3-31-22)

05.Brakes and Steering.(3-31-22)

a.All equipment shall be equipped with a braking system capable of stopping and holding the maximum load on all grades at all times.(3-31-22)

b.Any defect found in the braking system or steering devices of any equipment used in skidding or yarding operations shall not be used until repaired or replaced.(3-31-22)

06.Starting of Equipment. Equipment shall be started (cranked) only by the operator or other experienced persons when they are sitting in the operators seat, unless the equipment can be remotely started.

07.Seatbelts.(3-31-22)

a.Seatbelts shall be installed on all tractors and mobile equipment having roll-over protection or in accordance with a design by a professional engineer which offers equivalent employee protection.(3-31-22)

b.Seatbelts shall be used when operating any machine equipped with Roll Over Protection Structure (ROPS), Falling Object Protection Structure (FOPS), or overhead guards.(3-31-22)

08.Sideguards. When practical, sideguards shall be installed to protect the operator from hazards.

IDAPA 24.39.80.403 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.39.80.451 Skidding and Yarding

a.All personnel shall wear approved head protection and proper clothing at all times in skidding and yarding.(3-31-22)

b.Getting on or off moving equipment is strictly prohibited.(3-31-22)

c.Equipment operators shall move rigging only upon the signal of an authorized person.(3-31-22)

d.Workers shall at all times watch for and protect themselves and their fellow workers from sidewinders, rolling logs, up ending logs, snags, and other hazards caused by the movement of equipment, logs and/or lines.(3-31-22)

e.Chokers should be placed near, but not closer than two (2) feet, from the ends of logs if possible.

f.Choker holes shall be dug from the uphill side of a log if there is any danger of its rolling.

g.Knots shall not be used to connect separate lengths of chain or cable.(3-31-22)

h.Chaser (hooker) shall not unhook logs (trees) until rigging has stopped and the equipment operator is aware of his location.(3-31-22)

i.Riding on drag or logs or any part of equipment used in skidding and yarding except in the area of the driver’s seat is prohibited.(3-31-22)

j.A tool handle, stick, iron bar, or similar object shall be used in guiding lines onto drums. Guiding lines with hands is prohibited.(3-31-22)

k.Make sure all personnel are in the clear before skidding turn, drag, log, or tree into landing.

l.All personnel shall keep out of the bight of line and clear of running lines.(3-31-22)

m.Logs shall not be swung over personnel.(3-31-22)

n.Knot bumping should be done before a log is loaded.(3-31-22)

IDAPA 24.39.80.452 Cable Yarding

01.Safety A. Perso nnel shall not ride hooks, lines, rigging, or logs suspended in the air or being moved.(3-31-22)

02.Safety B, Personnel shall not hold on to haywire, running lines, drop lines, or chokers as an assist when walking uphill.(3-31-22)

03.Safety C. Personnel shall not work in the bight of lines under tension.(3-31-22)

04.Safety D. Personnel shall be “in the clear” before any signal to move any lines is given. (3-31-22)

05.Safety E. All swing yarders shall have the outer swing radius marked with hi-vis tape or cones while skidding is in progress. No tools or supplies may be kept inside that radius below the counterweight level of the machine unless in a locked box. No employee may get inside that radius without first notifying the operator. (7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.39.80.453 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.39.80.454 Wire Rope

01.General Characteristics.

Wire rope comes in many grades and dimensions, and every rope has its own characteristics with regard to strength and resistance to crushing and fatigue. A larger rope will outlast a smaller rope of the same materials and construction, used in the same conditions, because wear occurs over a larger surface.

Similarly, a stronger rope will outlast a weaker rope, because it performs at a lower percentage of its breaking strength, with reduced stress.(3-31-22)

02.Wire Rope Terms. Common grades of wire rope include extra improved plow steel (EIPS) and swaged Powerflex, among others. The following terms are commonly used for wire rope:(3-31-22)

a.Abrasion Resistance. Ability of outer wires to resist wear. Abrasion resistance is greater with larger wires.(3-31-22)

b.Core. The foundation of a wire rope which is made of materials that will provide support for the strands under normal bending and loading conditions. A fiber core (FC) can be natural or synthetic. If the core is steel, it can be a wire strand core (WSC) or an independent wire rope core (IWRC).(3-31-22)

c.Crushing Resistance. Ability of the rope to resist being deformed. A rope with an independent wire core is more resistant to crushing than one with a fiber core.(3-31-22)

d.Die-form Line. Made from strands that are first compacted by drawing them through a drawing die to reduce their diameter. The finished rope is then swaged or further compressed.(3-31-22)

e.Fatigue Resistance. Ability of the rope to withstand repeated bending without failure (the ease of bending a rope in an arc is called its “bendability”). Fatigue resistance is greater with more wires.(3-31-22)

f.Strength. Referred to as breaking strength, usually measured as a force in pounds or tons. The breaking strength is not the same as the load limit, which is calculated as a fraction of the breaking strength to ensure safety.(3-31-22)

g.Swaged Line. Manufactured by running a nominal-sized line through a drawing die to flatten the outer crown and thus reduce the rope diameter. This compacted rope allows for increased drum capacity and increased line strength.(3-31-22)

03.Typical Wire Rope Specifications. The table below lists a few examples of wire-rope breaking strengths.

Source: Cable Yarding Systems Handbook. 2006. Worksafe BC. Table lists typical breaking strengths. See manufacturer’s specifications for specific lines.(3-31-22)

04.Synthetic Rope. High-tensile strength synthetic lines are considerably lighter than standard wire rope; however, some lines are dimensionally as strong as standard wire rope. Accordingly, high-tensile strength synthetic lines are permitted to be used in appropriate logging applications, including as substitutes for brush straps, tree straps, tail and intermediate support guylines, guyline extensions, skyline extensions, and haywire.

Manufacturers’ standards and recommendations for determining usable life or criteria for retirement of such lines shall be followed. Personnel shall examine the lines for broken or abraded strands, discoloration, inconsistent diameter, glossy or glazed areas caused by compression and heat, and other inconsistencies. Rope life is affected by load history, bending, abrasion, and chemical exposure. Most petroleum products do not affect synthetic ropes.

05.Inspection and Care.(3-31-22)

a.Wire rope shall be inspected daily by a qualified individual and repaired or taken out of service when there is evidence of any of the following conditions:(3-31-22)

i.Twelve and five tenths percent (12.5%) of the wires are broken within a distance of one (1) lay.

Typical Wire Rope Specifications 6x26 Improved Plow Steel6x26 Swaged Swaged Compact-Strand Diameter (inches) 1/20.4611.50.615.20.6318.6 9/160.5914.50.75190.7823.7 5/80.7217.90.9323.61.0128.5 11/161.1028.81.1835.3 3/41.0425.61.3734.61.4142.2 13/161.5639.61.6349.3 7/81.4234.61.8346.51.9156.0 15/161.9553.32.2066.1 11.8544.92.4260.62.5373.7 1-1/82.3456.52.9375.12.9792.9 1-1/42.8969.33.5292.83.83112.1 1-3/83.583.54.28108.24.62128.6

ii.Evidence of chafing, sawing, crushing, kinking, crystallization, bird-caging, corrosion, heat damage, or other damage that has weakened the rope structure.(3-31-22)

b.Qualified personnel shall closely inspect those points subject to the most wear, including the knob ends of lines, eye splices, and those sections of line that most often run through blocks or carriages. If there is doubt about the integrity of the line, it is far safer to replace a suspect line, or cut out and resplice a defective area, than risk a failure during operation. Evaluation of the load-bearing yarder lines shall be stringent. A qualified person shall also inspect all other lines used on site and remove any that are unsafe.(3-31-22)

06.Additional Precautions. The following precautions shall also be observed:(3-31-22)

a.Ensure the working load limit for any line is adequate for the intended use.(3-31-22)

b.The manufacturer’s specifications with regard to assigned breaking strength shall be followed.

Such specifications as determined by engineering test results should factor the grade of the wire, number of strands, number of wires per strand, filler wire construction, lay pattern of the wires, and the diameter of the line.(3-31-22)

07.Safety Factor. Operators shall follow the manufacturer’s specifications in determining load limits.

The working load limit is a fraction of a line’s breaking strength – a factor of three (3), or one-third (1/3) the breaking strength, is commonly used as a safety factor for running and standing lines, when workers are not exposed to breaking lines or loads passing overhead. A safety factor of three (3) is commonly used to determine the working load limit for a standing or running line. A standard six (6) x twenty-six (26) IWRC wire rope with a diameter of one (1) inch has a breaking strength of approximately forty-five (45) tons – divide by three (3) – equals fifteen (15) tons working load limit.(3-31-22)

08.Wire Labeling.(3-31-22)

a.The elements of a typical wire rope are labeled, for example, six (6) x twenty-five (25) FW PRF RL EIPS IWRC. The label indicates a six (6)-strand rope with twenty-five (25) wires per strand (six (6) x twenty-five (25)), filler-wire construction (FW), strands pre-formed in a helical pattern (PRF), laid in a right-hand lay pattern (RL), using an extra-improved plow steel (EIPS) grade of wire, and strands laid around an independent wire rope core (IWRC).(7-1-25)

FIGURE 454.08.a.

b.Out of Service Standard Example. A six (6) x twenty-five (25) IWRC wire rope = six (6) strands in one (1) lay with twenty-five (25) wires per strand = one hundred fifty (150) wires. The rope must be taken out of service when twelve and five tenths percent (12.5%), or one-eighth (1/8), of the wires are broken within the distance of one (1) lay = one hundred fifty (150) divided by eight (8) = eighteen and seventy-five one hundredths (18.75), or nineteen (19) broken wires.(3-31-22)

09.Wire Line Life. Figure 454.09.a. illustrates both the correct and incorrect manner in which to measure line size (diameter).

STRAND

WIRE

CORE

1 LAY

FIGURE 454.09.a.

Correct way to measure line diameter Incorrect way to measure line diameter

10.Dynamic Loads. Operators shall consider high dynamic loads when calculating safe working limits of wire ropes. Wire ropes are often subjected to high dynamic loads, which greatly multiply the force on a line and may exceed the safe working limit. Even a split second of time over the limit can lead to premature failure of a line. Typical dynamic loads occur when a turn hits a stump, a turn comes down off of the back hillside to full suspension, or when excessive force is applied to pulling a turnout of its bed. A high dynamic load or a sudden shock load that exceeds the working limit may not result in immediate failure, but rope strands may stretch and weaken, and may fail at a later time.(3-31-22)

11.Other Common Wire Rope Considerations.(3-31-22)

a.Wire Rope Stretching and Line Diameter. A stretched wire rope has a reduced diameter. Operators shall check for stretched lines by measuring the diameter, particularly on older lines and any line used in stressful situations.(3-31-22)

b.Older Wire Rope. Standing lines and guylines are often kept in service for multiple years (four (4) to five (5), and as long as ten (10) years in some instances) without exhibiting any obvious signs of excessive wear other than rust. Operators shall check date stamps of wire rope and evaluate line life. Operators shall also inspect the core of older lines periodically for a fractured or dry core, which could indicate other deficiencies such as broken wires, excessive wear, or line deformation.(3-31-22)

c.Hard Use. The life of a wire rope is also affected by hard use. Line life is reduced when a line exceeds its elastic limits, is heavily shocked, or rubbed against rocks or other lines. As a line wears, the safe working load limit shall be lower and the payload adjusted appropriately.(7-1-25)

d.Wire Rope endurance and elastic limits. Working within the endurance and elastic limits of lines can help preserve line life. The following principles shall be observed when evaluating the integrity and safe use of wire rope:(3-31-22)

i.The “endurance limit” for all lines is fifty percent (50%) of the breaking strength. If wire rope tensioning regularly exceeds the endurance limit, the life of the line is reduced through fatigue.(3-31-22)

ii.The “elastic limit” for all lines is sixty to sixty-five percent (60-65%) of the breaking strength.

When a wire rope is loaded to its normal safe working limit, the line stretches, but then returns to its original size when the load is released. If a load increases past the elastic limit through prolonged exertion or repeated stress, the line will stretch and stay stretched, resulting in a permanent reduction in the breaking strength.(3-31-22)

e.Lubrication and Abrasion. Wire rope is lubricated in the factory to reduce internal friction and corrosion, and prolong the life of the rope. Heat from friction causes the internal lubricant to deteriorate. Friction occurs when the rope stretches under load, particularly in places where it bends around sheaves or other objects. An improperly lubricated line can pick up particles of dirt and sand that will increase abrasion. Accordingly, operators shall:(3-31-22)

i.Check for and ensure the proper lubrication of all lines and wire rope, following the manufacturer’s instructions. Commercial wire rope lubricants are available.(3-31-22)

ii.Carefully inspect lines for faults in areas where dust and sand may collect.(3-31-22)

iii.Store all wire rope and lines off the ground.(3-31-22)

12.Line Connections.(3-31-22)

a.Inspection. Operators shall regularly inspect shackles, hooks, splices, and other connecting equipment for damage and wear, as well as ensure the connectors are the correct type and size for the line and intended use.(3-31-22)

b.Wire Splicing. Splices are used to form an eye at the end of a line, extend the length of a line, or repair a broken or damaged line. The splicing of wire rope requires special skill and shall only be performed under the supervision of a competent person with using the proper tools. Reference materials are available with detailed instructions for numerous types of splices. Individuals splicing wire shall always wear appropriate eye protection while splicing or assisting with a splicing procedure.(3-31-22)

c.The logger’s eye splice and three (3)-pressed eye are the most common methods to form an eye for use as a skyline terminal. See Figure 454.12.c. The spliced eye is approximately eighty percent (80%) efficient. A three (3)-pressed eye can reach ninety percent (90%) line strength. The pressed eye is typically performed at the rigging shop. Spliced eyes may be placed in the field, but may require additional time to install.(3-31-22)

FIGURE 454.12.c.

THE LOGGER’S EYE SPLICETHREE-PRESSED EYE

d.When Flemish (Farmers, Rolled) eye splices are used on load-bearing lines, the strand ends must be secured by:(3-31-22)

i.Hand tucking each strand three (3) times; or(3-31-22)

ii.Applying a compression (pressed-eye) fitting.(3-31-22)

e.Guyline Care. Guylines are a vital link in holding up a tower. Guyline extensions shall not be excessively moved around by dragging on the ground, or left on the ground for long periods of time as they will deteriorate faster.(3-31-22)

f.Guyline extensions must be connected by:(3-31-22)

i.A bell shackle using a safety pin to connect spliced eyes or pressed eyes; or(3-31-22)

ii.Poured nubbins (buttons) and a double-ended hook.(3-31-22)

g.Line Deformity. A line may deform where it loops around a shackle or pin, producing weakness that may result in line failure. A thimble in the loop protects the line. Thimbles may be used on standing lines, but not on running lines. Examples of the appearance of deformed lines and the use of thimbles in shackles are illustrated in Figure 454.12.g.(3-31-22)

FIGURE 454.12.g.

DEFORMED EYE EYE WITH THIMBLE

13.Shackles and Hooks.(3-31-22)

a.Hooks. Hooks shall be inspected to ensure that they have not sprung open. Ensure that shackles are positioned correctly to bear the load. Haywire swivels shall be inspected frequently, due to their susceptibility to wear rapidly.(3-31-22)

b.Shackle Safety. Proper bells or shackles shall be used to connect the guylines to the stumps, and the guyline lead blocks to the ring at the top of the tower. Connections shall have at least one and a half (1-1/2) times the strength of the guyline. The pins of the shackles must be secured to protect against dislodgement, and a nut and cotter key, or a nut and molly may be used for that purpose. The use of loops or mollies to attach guylines is prohibited.

Examples of the appearance of some shackle equipment is illustrated in Figure 454.13.b.

FIGURE 454.13.b.

SHACKLE WITH HAYWIRE SWIVEL HAYWIRE HOOKS

SAFETY PIN

c.The following practices shall be observed in order to ensure the safe use of shackles:(3-31-22)

i.A shackle must have a rated breaking strength greater than the rated breaking strength of the lines attached to it, and the manufacturer’s rated strengths to determine oversized requirements shall be used. Accepted industry standards shall be utilized and adhered to when determining the correct shackle size based on the type and nature of the logging operation being performed. Examples of the appearance of some shackle equipment for the purposes of proper selection is illustrated in Figure 454.13.c.i(3-31-22)

ii.Shackles with pins, and securing nuts with mollies or a cotter key shall be used on standing or overhead rigging.(3-31-22)

iii.Screw shackle pins shall not be used in any standing or overhead rigging.(3-31-22)

iv.Screw shackle pins, where allowed to be used, shall be tightened securely.(3-31-22)

v.Shackle pin mollies shall be rolled sufficiently and fit the pin hole fully. Mollies shall be tucked a minimum of three (3) times.(3-31-22)

vi.The shackle shall always be placed with the pin nearest to the yarder, so that in the event the shackle fails the least amount of hardware may be thrown at the yarder.(3-31-22)

vii.Replace shackles that are bent, broken, or show excess wear on the inner surfaces. Examples of the appearance of some damaged or non-conforming shackles are illustrated in Figure 454.13.c.vii.(3-31-22)

FIGURE 454.13.c.vii.

REPLACE SHACKLES THAT ARE BENT, BROKEN, OR SHOW

EXCESS WEAR ON THE INNER SURFACES. viii.Sleeve shackles or choker bells must be used when choked lines are permitted.(3-31-22)

FIGURE 454.13.c.i.

SLEEVE WITH BELL WITH

KNOCKOUT PIN KNOCKOUT PIN

SLEEVE WITH FLUSH PIN

SAFETY PIN STRAIGHT SIDE

14.Knobs, Ferrules, and Eyes.(3-31-22)

a.Poured nubbins and a double-end hook are acceptable connectors in place of shackles in some instances. The use of quick nubbins (wedge buttons) as guylines and skyline end fittings is prohibited unless attaching guylines to guyline drums. Operators shall follow the manufacturer’s recommendations when attaching sockets and similar end fastenings.(3-31-22)

b.Poured nubbins achieve ninety-nine percent (99%) of line strength and may be used. Quick nubbins only achieve a maximum of sixty-five percent (65%) under ideal conditions, and accordingly operators shall consider whether they are appropriate for safe use in any given application. Pressed ferrule are not certifiable for strength, and shall not be used. Examples of the appearance of some knob, ferrule, and nubbin equipment are illustrated in Figure

IDAPA 24.39.80.454 14.(3-31-22)

c.Operators shall inspect knobs, ferrules, and eyes at cable ends for loose or broken wires, and corroded, damaged, or improperly applied end connections. Poured nubbins shall be date stamped.

FIGURE 454.14

BABBITED KNOB & PRESSED FERRULEQUICK NUBBIN (WEDGE BUTTON)

15.Brush Blocks. Brush blocks shall be thoroughly inspected for cracks, wear, or deterioration.

Operators shall closely examine the areas subject to the most wear, including bearings, sheave, frame, yoke, and pins.

Defective parts shall be replaced immediately. Blocks shall be greased every time before each use.

FIGURE 454.15

16.Chains and Straps. Chains or straps shall always be sized and used correctly for the intended purpose. Determining which size to use may depend on various factors. Oversized trailer lift straps, for example, shall have a breaking strength equal to five (5) times the load to be lifted. Towing chains shall have a tensile strength equivalent to the gross weight of the towed vehicle. The manufacturer’s specifications or other appropriate reference materials shall always be consulted to ensure the right chain or strap is used for a task.(3-31-22)

a.Operators shall periodically inspect chains for damaged, worn, or stretched links. Chains with more than ten percent (10%) wear at the bearing surface shall be replaced. Operators shall periodically inspect straps, and examine them for broken wires or wear. Examples of the appearance of damaged and safe chains are illustrated in Figure 454.16.a.

SHELL

SHEAVE

PIN YOKE

LINE GUARD

HAULBACK BLOCK

SHEAVE SIZES VARY

(10”-22”). LARGER

FIGURE 454.16.a.

GOOD CHAIN

STRETCHED CHAIN

WORN CHAIN (INSIDE LINKS)

IDAPA 24.39.80.455 Tree Climbing

Loggers are often required to climb considerable heights to top trees or hang rigging on lift trees. All workers who may be exposed to fall hazards shall be specifically trained and equipped with fall protection.(3-31-22)

01.Rescue Plan. Before rigging any tree, the employer must develop rescue procedures, which includes identifying appropriate equipment, personnel, and training to perform a rescue in case a climber is injured or incapacitated in the tree. A second set of climbing gear and a person with climbing experience shall be readily available. Equipment and procedures that will support an injured climber’s chest and pelvis in an upright position during a rescue shall be used. When an injured climber is wearing only a climbing belt, provisions must be made to prevent the climber from slipping through it; this may include using a rope to create an upper-body support system.

Consideration should be made to replacing climbing belts with a climbing harness.(3-31-22)

02.Before Leaving the Ground. Employers shall check climbing equipment and immediately remove defective equipment from service. Personnel shall ensure that hardware and safety equipment is securely fastened before placing weight on the lanyard or life-support rope. All climbing knots shall be tied, dressed, and set prior to ascending. All personnel shall follow the recommendations of the manufacturer of the cordage with respect to the use of splices.(3-31-22)

03.Climbing Equipment.(3-31-22)

a.A climbing harness provides both pelvic and upper-body support, and may be a one (1)-piece, fullbody harness, or any two (2)-piece design that meets industry standards.(3-31-22)

b.Climbing and life-support lines shall be conspicuous and easily identifiable.(3-31-22)

c.All lines and webbing used for life support shall have a minimum breaking strength of five thousand four hundred (5,400) pounds and may only be used for climbing.(3-31-22)

d.When a cutting tool is used in a tree, the climbing rope (lanyard) shall be a high-quality steel safety chain of three-sixteenths (3/16) inch size or larger, or a wire-core rope.(3-31-22)

e.A life-support rope evidencing excessive wear or damage or that has been subjected to a shock load shall be removed from climbing service.(3-31-22)

04.Climbing Operations.(3-31-22)

a.Ensure climbers are appropriately well-trained in climbing and in the use of all equipment to carry out assigned tasks.(3-31-22)

b.While climbing operations are underway, co-workers and others on the ground shall stay clear of potential falling objects. If co-workers must work directly below a climber, the climber shall stop any activity in which objects could be dropped or dislodged until the area below is cleared. Climbers shall provide warning whenever any material may be likely to fall or is dropped deliberately. Unsecured equipment, rigging, or material shall not be left in the tree.(3-31-22)

c.Yarding activity must cease within reach of a tree or guylines of a tree where a climber is working.

Machinery may operate in reach of the climber to hoist rigging into the tree. In such circumstance the following shall apply:(3-31-22)

i.A spotter shall be utilized and yarding operations shall be performed with extra caution; (3-31-22)

ii.The machine operator and the spotter shall give the task their undivided attention;(3-31-22)

iii.Equipment that is nearby and which may be noisy, such as power saws, tractors, or logging machines shall be shut down if the noise interferes with signal communications with the climber; and(3-31-22)

iv.Lines attached to a tree in which a climber is working shall not be moved except on a signal from the climber.(3-31-22)

d.Tree climbers shall use a three (3)-point climbing system whereby three (3) points of contact must be firmly in place on a secure surface before moving to another point. Along with hands and feet, other points on the body, such as a hooked knee, can be considered a point of contact if it can support the full body weight. Additionally, the places of support must be secure, and climbers should use care to void unsound branches or stubs as a contact point. A lanyard around the tree secured to the safety harness or climbing belt on both ends constitute two (2) points of contact.(3-31-22)

e.Climbing without being secured to the tree is prohibited, except in conifers, when in the judgment of a qualified climber, the density of branches growing from the stem make attaching the lanyard more hazardous than simply climbing the tree. In such instances, the climber shall evaluate the tree farther up, and use attachments when it is safe to do so.(3-31-22)

05.Topping Trees. Only an experienced climber with experience felling trees shall top a tree. Cutters shall not cut when wind or other conditions make doing so hazardous. Standard safe felling procedures shall apply, with the additional following requirements:(3-31-22)

a.Cutters shall determine the felling direction and ensure there are no obstructions. Consideration shall be given to the fact that an impact could cause violent movement in the tree being topped where the climber is perched.(3-31-22)

b.A safety chain shall be wrapped around the tree just below the cut to prevent the tree from splitting or slabbing down inside the climbing rope.(3-31-22)

c.The cutter shall ensure he is comfortable, and avoid any awkward cutting position.(3-31-22)

d.Exact cuts should be made. There is no escape route for the climber to get away from the stem to avoi d kickback or a splintered hinge. When making horizontal side cuts, extra care shall be used to stay on the line of the backcut to avoid wood breaking away with the saw as the top falls.(3-31-22)

IDAPA 24.39.80.456 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.39.80.501 Log Truck Transportation

01.General.

The following requirements are supplemental to any Idaho law governing automobiles, trucks, tractors, trailers, and any combination of these units. If there are any discrepancies in the codes between this section and any federal or Idaho motor vehicle regulations pursuant to title 49, Idaho Code, applicable in the state of Idaho, such federal or other governmental regulations will govern.(3-31-22)

02.Stopping and Holding Devices for Log Trucks.(3-31-22)

a.Motor logging trucks and trailers must be equipped with brakes or other control methods which will safely stop and hold the maximum load on the maximum grade. Air or vacuum brake lines shall be of the type intended for such use and shall have fittings which will not be interchangeable with water or other lines.(3-31-22)

b.Brake Test - A brake test shall be made before and immediately after moving a vehicle. Any defects shall be eliminated before proceeding.(3-31-22)

03.Lighting Equipment Required.(3-31-22)

a.Motor vehicles used on roads not under the control of the Idaho Transportation Board, counties or cities, shall have equipment necessary for safe operation, such as head, tail, and stop lights.(3-31-22)

b.Such lights shall be used during periods of reduced visibility.(7-1-25)

04.Safe Operating Requirements.(3-31-22)

a.The driver shall do everything reasonably possible to keep his truck under control at all times and shall not operate in excess of a speed at which he can stop the truck in one-half (1/2) the distance between him and the range of unobstructed vision.(3-31-22)

b.The driver shall take into consideration the condition of the roadway, weather factors, curves, grades and grade crossings, the mechanical condition of his equipment, and other relevant factors.(3-31-22)

c.The driver shall clear rocks from between dual tires before driving on multi-lane roads. (3-31-22)

d.A daily inspection shall be made of trucks and trailers with particular attention to steering apparatus, brakes, boosters, brake hoses and connections, reaches, and couplings. Any defects found shall be corrected before equipment is used.(3-31-22)

05.Stakes, Bunks, or Chock Blocks. All stakes and bunks, installed on log trucks and trailers, together with the means provided for securing and locking the stakes in a hauling position, shall be designed and constructed of materials of such size and dimensions that will withstand a pressure of fifteen thousand (15,000) pounds applied outward against the tops of the stakes, and, or extensions when used, without yield or permanent set resulting in the stakes, bunks or the means provided for securing and locking the stakes.

NOTE: Test Procedure - A test pressure of fifteen thousand (15,000) pounds is applied to the top of one (1) stake, using the top of the stake opposite as a base for applying pressure. Bunk is not to be secured to floor or other base except in a manner similar to that used to mount it to truck or trailer. Stakes must return to normal upright position at end of test and stakes and all component parts examined and checked with original specifications. If no yield results in any part, the design and construction may be considered as meeting code requirements.(3-31-22)

06.Stake Extensions. Stake extensions shall not be used unless all component parts of the bunking system are of sufficient size and strength to support the added stresses involved.(3-31-22)

07.Notify Engineer When Around Truck.(3-31-22)

a.Persons shall not walk along side of or be underneath any truck being loaded.(3-31-22)

b.Prior to performing any duties, such as releasing bunk locks, placing or removing compensating pin , scaling logs, reading scale, chopping limbs or making connections, persons shall notify the loading engineer of their intentions and be acknowledged.(3-31-22)

08.Number of Wrappers Required.(3-31-22)

a.Each unit used for hauling logs longer than twenty six (26) feet, shall have the load secured by a minimum of three (3) wrappers. Wrappers shall be placed in positions that effectively secure the load. One (1) wrapper shall be placed within ten (10) feet of each bunk. See Figure 501.08.a.

FIGURE 501.08.a.

b.All exposed outside logs shall be secured by a minimum of two rappers. See Figure 501.08.b.

FIGURE 501.08.b.

09.Construction of Wrappers and Binders.(3-31-22)

a.Cables shall have a spliced eye or swaged fittings.(3-31-22) b.“Molly Hogans” or cold shuts are prohibited to make splices or connections.(3-31-22)

c.Each wrapper shall have a minimum breaking strength of not less than fifteen thousand (15,000) pounds.(3-31-22)

d.Binders must be stamped with a working load limit of four thousand (4,000) pounds or greater.

10.Binder Placement Requirements.(3-31-22)

a.Binders shall be placed in a manner whereby they will be released on the side opposite the brow log, or on the side where the unloading equipment operator can see the binders.(3-31-22)

b.Truck drivers shall be required to stop vehicles, dismount, check and tighten loose load binders, either just before or immediately after leaving a private road to enter the first public road they encounter.(3-31-22)

11.Precautions When Placing or Removing Binders and Wrappers.(3-31-22)

a.Binders and wrappers shall remain on the load until an approved safeguard has been provided to prevent logs from rolling off the side of truck where binders are being released.(3-31-22)

b.At least one (1) wrapper shall remain secured while relocating or tightening other binders.

12.Binders and Wrappers to Be Placed Before Leaving Landing Area. Binders and wrappers shall be placed and tightened around the completed load. Each load must have all required wrappers placed and secured at the loader before the truck is moved. If it is unsafe to do so, the truck may be moved to the nearest safe place in sight of the loader.(7-1-25)

13.Adequate Reaches Required.(3-31-22)

a.Log trailers must be connected to tractors by reaches of a size and strength to withstand all imposed stresses.(3-31-22)

b.Spliced reaches shall not be used.(3-31-22)

c.Documented reach inspections shall be performed annually.(3-31-22)

14.Proper Lay of Logs in Stakes or Bunks.(3-31-22)

a.The method of loading shall be such that the logs in any tier or layer unsecured by stakes or cheese blocks shall have their centers inside of the centers of the outer logs of the next lower tier or layer so that the load is stable without the aid of binders.(3-31-22)

b.Logs shall be well saddled without crowding so that there will be no excessive strain on the wrappers or stakes.(3-31-22)

c.No more than one half (1/2) of the diameter of any face log shall extend above the stakes or extensions, if used.(7-1-25)

d.Bunk logs shall extend not less than twelve (12) inches beyond the bunk, with the exception of nonoscillating bunks.(3-31-22)

15.Traffic Travel on Right Side of Road Except Where Posted. All trucks shall keep to the right side of the road, except where road is plainly and adequately posted for left side traveling.(3-31-22)

16.Towing of Trucks . When trucks must be towed on any road, the person guiding the vehicle being towed shall, by prearranged signals, govern the speed of travel.(3-31-22)

17.Scaling and Branding. When at the dump or reload and where logs are scaled or branded on the truck, the logs shall be scaled or branded before the wrappers are released.(3-31-22)

18.Metal Parts Between Bunk and Cab to Be Covered. Suitable material shall be used on treading surfaces between the bunk and cab to prevent persons from slipping on the metal parts.(3-31-22)

19.Bunks to Be Kept in Good Condition and Repair.(3-31-22)

a.Log bunks or any part of bunk assembly bent enough to cause bunks to bind shall be straightened.

b.Bunks shall be sufficiently sharp to prevent logs from slipping.(3-31-22)

20.Following Other Vehicles.(3-31-22)

a.A vehicle not intending to pass shall not follow another vehicle closer than one hundred fifty (150) feet.(3-31-22)

b.Passing shall be done only when it can be done safely. The passing vehicle shall consider all factors which may be essential, such as condition of the roadway, width of the road, and distance of clear visibility ahead.

21.Reaches to Be Clamped When Towing Unloaded Trailer. A positive means, in addition to the clamp, shall be installed on the reach of log truck trailers when the trailers are being towed without a load. (3-31-22)

22.Inserting of Compensating Pin.(3-31-22)

a.Persons shall never enter the area below suspended logs or trailers.(3-31-22)

b.At dumps where the load must remain suspended above the bunks until the truck is moved away and when the trailer is the type with a compensating pin in the reach, a device shall be installed that will allow the trailer to be towed away from the danger area.(3-31-22)

23.Safety Chains.(3-31-22)

a.All trailers shall be secured with a safety chain, or chains, which connect the frame of the truck assembly to the trailer unit.(3-31-22)

b.The chains shall be capable of holding the trailer in line in case of failure of the hitch assembly.

IDAPA 24.39.80.502 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.39.80.503 Common Carriers

01.Responsibility.

It shall be the responsibility of the common carrier, and particularly the operator of the common carrier, upon entering the premises of any sawmill, woodworking or allied industry, to exercise all possible caution and to use all necessary safety devices and precautions to their fullest extent.(3-31-22)

02.Audible and Visual Warning Devices.(3-31-22)

a.All common carriers equipped with audible and visual warning devices shall activate such warning devices before entering a danger zone, and they shall remain activated as long as the carrier is moving in that zone.

b.A danger zone shall be defined as an area where men or vehicles are working or normally work.

IDAPA 24.39.80.504 Self-Loading Log Trucks

01.Self-Loading Log Trucks.

Self-loading log trucks manufactured after January 1, 1981, shall be equipped with:(3-31-22)

a.A load check valve or similar device installed on the main boom.(7-1-25)

b.A seat that is offset from the point of attachment of the boom. The seat and boom structure shall rotate concurrently.(3-31-22)

02.Operator. The operator of a self-loading log truck shall not:(3-31-22)

a.Heel the log over his head; or(3-31-22)

b.Heel the log on the operator side of the boom of the seat if offset from the point of attachment of the boom.(3-31-22)

03.Safe and Adequate Access. A safe and adequate means of access to and from the loading work station on self-loading log trucks shall be provided.(3-31-22)

04.Trailers Secured. Self-loading truck trailers shall be secured to the truck when the trailer is being hauled on the truck.(3-31-22)

IDAPA 24.39.80.505 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.39.80.551 Specific Requirements

01.Log Dumps, Landings, Log Handling Equipment, Loading, and Unloading.(3-31-22)

a.Only authorized persons shall operate log handling equipment. Machine operators shall be capable and experienced personnel. No persons other than the operator may be in the operator’s compartment while machinery is operating, except for purposes of operating instructions. Unnecessary talking to the operator of log handling equipment while the machine is in operation is prohibited.(3-31-22)

b.Machine operators shall make necessary inspection of machines each day before starting work. All repairs or adjustments shall be made before any strain or load is placed upon the equipment.(3-31-22)

c.Substantial barriers or bulkheads protecting the operator shall be provided for all log handling machines where the design, location, or use of such machines exposes the operator to material or loads being handled.

Such barriers or bulkheads shall be of adequate area and capable of withstanding impact of materials handled.

d.A safe and adequate means of access to, and egress from, the operator’s station shall be provided.

Necessary ladders, steps, step plates, foot plates, running boards, walkways, grab irons, handrails, etc., shall be provided and maintained.(3-31-22)

e.All moving parts shall be guarded in an approved manner to afford complete protection to the operator and other workers.(3-31-22)

f.Throttles and all power controls shall be maintained in good operating condition.(3-31-22)

g.Landings shall be prepared and arranged to provide maximum safety for all employees and shall provide ample space for the safe movement of equipment and storage and handling of logs.(3-31-22)

h.Adequate means shall be used to prevent logs from rolling into the road or against trucks. Workers shall be sure that logs are securely landed before approaching them. While unhooking chokers, workers shall choose the safest approach. This is usually from the upper side of the log.(3-31-22)

i.Logs shall not be landed at loading areas until all workers, tractors, trucks, or equipment are in the clear. All persons shall stay in the clear of running lines, moving rigging, and loads until rigging or loads have stopped.(3-31-22)

j.Mufflers shall be installed on all internal combustion engines of log handling equipment and located or guarded in such a manner as to prevent accidental contact with the muffler or exhaust pipes and afford protection from fumes.(3-31-22)

k.Fork lifts or arms, tongs, clams or grapples shall be lowered to their lowest position and all equipment brakes set before the operator leaves the machine.(3-31-22)

l.All log handling machines which have lift arms that create a shear point with the driver’s cab or position shall be provided sheer guards that will eliminate the operator’s exposure to such hazard. Grapple arms or other positive means of keeping logs on the forks shall be required on fork lift-type loading machines.(3-31-22)

m.All workers shall be in the clear and in view of the machine operator before a lift is made.

n.All mobile log handling machines shall be equipped with rearview mirrors, a horn or other audible warning device, and lights front and rear so as to illuminate the entire length of the load being lifted or carried. An automatic warning device that will activate when the vehicle is moved is preferable in areas where other workers are employed.(3-31-22)

o.Logs or loads shall not be swung over occupied equipment or workers and no person shall ride the load or rigging.(3-31-22)

p.While logs are being loaded, no person shall remain on the chain deck or behind the truck cab protector where they could be pinned between the end of a log and cab, tank, or cab protector. Cab protectors shall be cleaned of all loose gear before trucks are moved from the landing.(3-31-22)

q.An unimpaired clearance of not less than three (3) feet shall be maintained from swinging or moving parts of machines, where such swinging or moving parts create a hazard to personnel. If this clearance cannot be maintained, suitable barricades or safeguards shall be installed to isolate the hazardous area.(3-31-22)

r.All log handling equipment shall be equipped with brakes capable of holding and controlling the vehicle with capacity load.(3-31-22)

s.Gas powered vehicles shall not be refueled while motor is running nor in the vicinity of smoking or open flames.(3-31-22)

t.All log handling equipment shall be equipped with approved fire extinguisher of at least five (5)

B.C. rating easily accessible to operator.(3-31-22)

u.Meth ods of unloading logs shall be properly arranged and used in a manner to provide protection to all employees.(3-31-22)

v.All equipment should be so positioned, equipped, or protected so that no part shall be capable of coming within ten (10) feet of any power line.(3-31-22)

w.Bunk logs shall extend not less than twelve (12) inches beyond the bunks, with the exception of non-oscillating bunks.(3-31-22)

x.The method of loading shall be such that the logs in any tier or layer unsecured by stakes or cheese blocks shall have their centers inside of the centers of the outer logs of the next lower tier or layer so that the load is stable without the aid of binders. Logs shall be well saddled without crowding so that there will be no excessive strain on the binders, bunk chains, or stakes. No more than one half (1/2) of the diameter of any face log shall extend above the stakes or extensions, if used.(7-1-25)

y.Binders shall be placed so that they will not be fouled by the unloading machine and that they may be released from the side on which the unloader operates. Proper protection shall be provided for workers while removing wrappers.(7-1-25)

z.Truck drivers shall be in the clear and in view of the log unloader operator before forks are moved into the load or against it, before a lift is made. All persons are prohibited from standing under, or near, the ends of logs being lifted or moved.(3-31-22)

aa.Loads or logs shall not be moved or shifted while binders are being applied or adjusted.

NOTE: For logs in transit see Section 501 of these rules “Log Truck Transportation.”(3-31-22)

bb.All log dumps, trailer loading areas, and landings shall be kept reasonably free from bark and other debris.(3-31-22)

cc.Logs in storage decks shall be arranged so as to prevent logs from rolling off the face of the deck.

dd.All log load wrappers shall be arranged so that they must be released in view of the unloader operator or signal person. When binders are released by remote control devices and when the person releasing the binders is in a safe location, and when in view of the unloading operators, or signal person, the binders may be released from either side. After the unloading machine is in position to hold the load, the binders shall be removed and the person removing them shall be in a safe location in view of the operator. The operator will be given a signal by the person releasing the binders before the machine or load is moved.(3-31-22)

02.Trailer Loading Hoist/Sawmill Log Dump.(3-31-22)

a.The hoist shall be designed and constructed in accordance with the National Electrical Code, so as to provide safe loading or unloading of the trailer.(3-31-22)

b.The hoist shall be equipped with a limiting device to maintain safe take-up limits of line on the hoisting drum.(3-31-22)

c.Regular service and inspection of the hoist and hoisting equipment shall be made to assure reliable serviceability of the facility.(3-31-22)

IDAPA 24.39.80.552 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.39.80.601 General Requirements

Safety requirements are as follows:(3-31-22)

01.Briefings. Prior to each day’s operation, a briefing shall be conducted. This briefing shall set forth the daily plan of operation for the pilot and ground personnel.(3-31-22)

02.Personal Protective Equipment. Personal protective equipment for employees receiving the load shall, as a minimum, consist of complete eye protection and hard hats secured by chinstraps.(3-31-22)

03.Loose-Fitting Clothing. Loose-fitting clothing likely to flap in the downwash, and perhaps be snagged on the hoist line, shall not be worn.(3-31-22)

04.Reduced Visibility. When visibility is reduced by dust or other conditions, ground personnel shall keep clear of main and stabilizing rotors.(3-31-22)

05.Unauthorized Personnel. No unauthorized person shall be allowed to approach within fifty (50) feet of the helicopter when the rotor blades are turning.(3-31-22)

06.Approaching or Leaving Helicopter. All employees approaching or leaving a helicopter with blades rotating shall remain in full view of the pilot and remain in a crouched position.(3-31-22) 07Areas to Avoid in Helicopter. Employees shall avoid the area from the cockpit or cabin rearward unless authorized to be there by the helicopter operator.(3-31-22)

08.Approach and Departure Zones. Helicopter approach and departure zones shall be designated and no equipment or personnel will occupy these areas during helicopter arrival or departure.(3-31-22)

09.External Loads. Helicopters with an external load shall not pass over areas where fallers are working.(3-31-22)

10.Open Fires. Open fires shall not be permitted in an area that could result in such fires being spread by rotor downwash.(3-31-22)

11.Compliance with FAA Regulations. Helicopter operations shall comply with any applicable regulation of the Federal Aviation Administration.(3-31-22)

IDAPA 24.39.80.602 Specific Requirements

01.Signal Systems.

a.Signal systems between air crew and ground personnel shall be understood and checked before hoisting the load. This applies to either radio or hand signal systems.(3-31-22)

b.There shall be constant reliable communication between the pilot and a designated signalman during the period of loading and unloading.(3-31-22)

c.The helicopter shall be equipped with a siren to warn workers of hazardous situations.(3-31-22)

02.Loading Logs.(3-31-22)

a.It shall be the responsibility of the firm, supervisor, or person who is in charge of the actual loading operation to comply with the provisions of these rules applicable to log loading.(3-31-22)

b.The helicopter operator shall be responsible for the size, weight and manner in which loads are attached to the helicopter. If, for any reason, the helicopter operator believes the lift cannot be made safely, the lift shall not be made.(3-31-22)

c.When employees are required to perform work under hovering aircraft, a safe means of access shall be provided for employees to reach the hoist line hook and engage or disengage cargo slings.(3-31-22)

d.Employees shall not work under hovering aircraft except while hooking or unhooking loads.

e.The weight of an external load shall not exceed the manufacturer’s rating.(3-31-22)

f.The hook-up crew shall not work on slopes below felled and bucked timber when an unsafe situation exists. Culls left, which have a potential of rolling, should be moved to a safe position.(3-31-22)

03.Loading and Landing Areas.(3-31-22)

a.The minimum dimensions of a drop zone shall be determined by the length of the logs being hauled. All zones shall be at least one and one-half (1 1/2) times as long, and as wide as the length of the average log being harvested.(3-31-22)

b.Landing or loading machinery shall be a reasonable distance away from where logs are to be landed.(3-31-22)

c.Landing crew shall be in the clear before logs are landed.(3-31-22)

d.The approach to the landing shall be clear and long enough to prevent tree tops from being pulled onto the landing.(3-31-22)

e.Separate areas shall be designated for landing logs and fueling helicopters.(3-31-22)

f.Sufficient ground personnel shall be provided for safe helicopter loading and unloading operations.

g.A clear area shall be maintained in all helicopter loading and unloading areas.(3-31-22)

h.Emergency landing areas for injured workers shall be located within a reasonable distance from all working areas.(3-31-22)

04.Hooks and Chokers.(3-31-22)

a.The electrical activating device of all electrically operated cargo hooks shall be designed and installed to prevent inadvertent operation. In addition, these cargo hooks shall be equipped with an emergency mechanical control for releasing the load.(3-31-22)

b.Logs will be laid on the ground and the helicopter completely free of the chokers before workers approach the logs.(3-31-22)

c.One (1) end of all the logs in the turn shall be touching the ground and at an angle no greater than forty-five degrees (45°) before the chokers are released.(3-31-22)

d.If the load must be lightened, the hook shall be placed on the ground on the uphill side of the turn before the hooker approaches to release the excess logs.(3-31-22)

IDAPA 24.39.80.603 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.39.80.651 Introduction

01.Scope.(3

a.These rules are part of the accident prevention program of the state of Idaho. This program is dedicated to the safety and well-being of all workers in Idaho’s logging industry. It has been established according to the processes prescribed by law.(3-31-22)

b.These rules contain the primary safety rules for the logging industry. However, other Idaho Safety Standards promulgated and adopted by the Industrial Commission shall be applicable to this industry where not inconsistent with the provisions herein, or where any particular activity which is being carried on is not specifically covered or regulated herein.(3-31-22)

02.Enforcement. The enforcement of these rules is the responsibility of the Division of Occupational and Professional Licenses Logging Safety Program. These rules will not serve their purpose if their requirements are considered anything but a minimum for safe operation. So much variation exists in the logging industry that each operation should be judged, not by its compliance to the letter of this Standard, but according to a higher standard -that of absolute safety under all conditions.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.39.80.652 Fire and Safety Policy

01.Elements. The basic elements or management responsibility for fire and safety policy are enumerated in this section.(3-31-22)

02.Management Leadership. The establishment of the safety policy should be made clear to all employees that top management has approved the operation’s safety program.(7-1-25)

03.Planning. The program should be based on the following: accounting record of safety cost, accident recording system, accident investigation recommendations, operation inspection recommended corrections, employee suggestions, and job analysis to determine the work hazards. The hazard appraisal can be summarized as follows: mechanical and physical hazards; environmental hazards; and work procedure and practices.(3-31-22)

04.Management Discharge of Duty.(3-31-22)

a.If management is to discharge its duty in proper directing of the fire and safety program, it must organized a definite planned program of continuous supervision and leadership by all facets of the management organization. The very fact that safety must be woven into all operations and activities should not require extra managerial time beyond the ordinary to operate a business successfully, i.e., if the entire management team will assume their safety responsibility.(3-31-22)

b.The first task of management is to determine the operational hazards. Once these are ascertained and appraised, suitable corrective action can be initiated. If the working unit is operating, the following specific activities should be carried out to find the hazards. These are: job inspection; job analysis; accident investigation (near accident, non-disabling injuries) to determine necessary remedial action to prevent reoccurrence of the accident.

05.Hazard Appraisal. The partial list of terms covered by appraisals are summarized briefly as follows: mechanical and physical hazards; adequacy of mechanical guarding of machines and equipment; preventing the use of inferior manufactured and unsafe supplies, equipment, chain, cables, sheaves, tires, power saws, tractor canopy guards, approved head protection, fire extinguishers, solvents, mill saws, etc.; and physical exhaustion such as may be caused by excessive work hours by truck drivers and mill maintenance employees.(3-31-22)

06.Environmental Hazards Inherent to the Operation.(3-31-22)

a.Personal protection devices (approved head protection, ear plugs, knee pads, proper eye protection, respirators, etc.)(3-31-22)

b.Storage and use of flammable liquids and gases (gasoline, diesel, acetone, acetylene, acids, etc.)

c.All employees should be familiar with proper work signals (falling, blasting, high lead signals, loading, mill signals, operation fire signal, etc.)(3-31-22)

d.Noise and fatigue hazards that are inherent to the industry (planers, cutoff saws, jack hammers, etc.).(3

07.Work Procedures and Practices.(3-31-22)

a.Hazards directly related to work practices should be carefully observed and evaluated.(3-31-22)

b.Work practices that should be investigated include, but are not necessarily limited to: use, care and maintenance of hand and portable power tools; degree of supervision given the worker; the extent of job training provided; the safety indoctrination and training of new or transferred employees; the proper use of fire extinguishers; the use of personal protective devices (approved head protection, shoes, etc.); and the repair and maintenance of equipment with respect to machines, mechanical handling equipment, log loaders, yarding equipment, tractors, fork lifts, overhead cranes, headrigs, etc.;(3-31-22)

08.Reporting of Injuries.(3-31-22)

a.The employer shall instruct all employees to report all job injuries to the supervisor at the time injuries occur. The employer shall check specifications for new machines, processes and equipment for compliance with existing safety standards, laws and safety requirements, and shall have such equipment fully inspected before it is placed in use.(3-31-22)

b.The employer is required to report all industrial injuries to their surety (work comp carrier) within ten (10) days.(3-31-22)

c.The employer is responsible for reporting all in-patient hospitalization, amputation, or the loss of an eye for any employee to the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) and the Division of Occupational and Professional Licenses Logging Safety Program within twenty-four (24) hours.(7-1-25)

09.Fatalities. All work fatalities should be immediately reported to the County Sheriff or Coroner, the Division of Occupational and Professional Licenses Logging Safety Program, and OSHA in accordance with the Code of Federal Regulations, 29 CFR 1904.39.(7-1-25)

10.Management of Personnel.(3-31-22)

a.The recruiting and placing of a new worker on the job is a major responsibility of the management organization. Every effort should be made to match the qualifications of the worker with the demands of the job.

b.The furnishing of first aid services, treatment of injuries, and inspection of working conditions is the employer’s responsibility.(3-31-22)

11.Assignment of Responsibilities.(3-31-22)

a.Supervisors and employees have responsibilities to ensure conformance with the organization’s fire and safety objectives in every operation.(7-1-25)

b.Management must accept the normal obligation for preventing accidents.(7-1-25)

c.Safety is an integral and important part of production, just as is quality and quantity, or meeting production schedules.(3-31-22)

12.First Aid Training. It shall be the responsibility of management to ensure all supervisors and employees have a current first-aid card.(7-1-25)

13.Injury Record and Reporting System.(3-31-22)

a.If an employer had ten (10) or fewer employees at all times during the last calendar year, it does not need to keep OSHA injury and illness records unless OSHA or the Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS) informs the employer in writing that it must keep records under OSHA regulations. However, as required by such regulations, all employers covered by the OSH Act must report to OSHA and the Division of Occupational and Professional Licenses Logging Safety Program any workplace incident that results in a fatality or the hospitalization, the amputation of a limb, or the loss of an eye for any employee.(7-1-25)

b.For those employers subject to the injury and illness recording requirements under OSHA, the employer shall establish in its main Idaho of fice an injury record and reporting system which is consistent with reporting, record, and statistical requirements of the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA).

c.Injury frequency rates shall be calculated annually commencing the first of January each year.

These rates shall be kept on file in the office of the employer for at least four (4) years after the date of entry thereof, and shall be made available to the Division, upon request.(7-1-25)

d.A lost time injury shall be the term applied to any injury, arising out of, and in the course of employment which makes it impossible for the injured person to return to an established regular job at the beginning of the next regular shift following the shift during which the injury occurred, or some future shift.(3-31-22)

e.Man hours of exposure shall be the total number of man hours actually worked by all personnel in the industrial unit during the period for which the rate is being computed.(3-31-22)

14.Training and Education.(3-31-22)

a.Training and education includes:(3-31-22)

i.Establishment of effective job training methods and safety education.(3-31-22)

ii.First aid courses, proper work signals and job hazard warnings.(3-31-22)

iii.Pamphlets, bulletin boards, safety meetings, posters, etc.(3-31-22)

b.The employer shall establish an adequate job training and safety education program. The relationship of safety to job quality and modern quantity production methods should be clearly understood. Good work production is governed by careful planning and accurate control of all phases of the operation. Accidents are the result of inadequate planning of faulty operation.(3-31-22)

c.Safety must be made an essential and integral part of every operation and integrated into the activity if the most successful quantity production is to be attained.(7-1-25)

d.It is the responsibility of management to train employees in all phases of the work they are assigned. The worker training should begin at the time of employment with a careful presentation of the general safety information the employee must have to work on and in logging and woods operations. When the worker is placed on the job, the worker must be given detailed training on proper work methods for accomplishment of the job.

e.Education and promotion are a supplemental means of reducing injuries. It is management’s responsibility to integrate education and training program and balance its effectiveness to employee training. Unsafe acts or unsafe work practices are the result of failure to train workers in safe work procedures. In establishing or operating a safe and quality work program, an appraisal of unsafe work procedures and poor quality of work is called for, and job training methods initiated to correct these practices.(7-1-25)

15.Employer and Employee Cooperation. The workers have a responsibility to obey the units safety rules, smoking rules, report unsafe conditions, to serve on the different safety committees, perform their work in a safe way, and to help fellow workers by showing them how to do their job safely.(7-1-25)

16.Maintenance of Safe Working Conditions.(3-31-22)

a.The employer shall provide a safe and healthy work area in which to work, including purchasing of safe equipment and tools and provide proper maintenance of such equipment.(3-31-22)

b.Since a safe and healthy place to work is the very foundation of the safety program, the mechanical, physical, and environmental conditions should be given first consideration.(3-31-22)

17.Remedial Measures of Corrective Action.(3-31-22)

a.The employees shall support and correct the findings of job analysis, inspections, accident investigations, employee suggestions, etc.(3-31-22) b.

The assumption of responsibility for fire and accident prevention by management carries with it the continuing responsibility to assess the progress being made on the program, and where progress is unsatisfactory to take necessary steps to bring about improvement. Inspection alone is primarily a means of finding and eliminating fire and physical hazards, particularly in connection with enforcement. All educational activities should be integrated with inspection activities, and should be based on the specific needs of the establishment or operation. Inspection and educational programs are sometimes looked upon as entirely unrelated activities rather than a single integrated program.(7-1-25)

c.None of the foregoing activities are of value unless followed by effective corrective action. The responsible executive within top management must establish specific procedures to effect proper and complete corrective action in each area for problems that occur. In well-managed organizations the areas of responsibility are clearly defined.(7-1-25)

18.Safety Order By the Administrator. In accordance with the provisions of section 67-2601A (3), Idaho Code, the administrator may issue a safety order requiring an owner, operator or other party responsible for ensuring safe logging operations to immediately stop work or close any work site, or portion thereof where an inspection has revealed evidence of a condition that poses an immediate threat of bodily harm or loss of life to any person. The process governing the issuance of a safety order is contained herein this section.(3-31-22)

a.Upon receiving information evidencing an unsafe condition or unsafe practices at any logging workplace or place of employment, the administrator shall inspect or cause to be inspected such place of employment unless such information was obtained by previous inspection of the Division. If upon such inspection the administrator determines that an unsafe condition or unsafe practice exists which may pose an immediate threat of bodily harm or loss of life, the administrator may issue a safety order requiring the employer to immediately stop work or close any work site, or portion thereof. Any safety order issued by the administrator shall specifically identify the unsafe condition or practice, as well as the safety risks associated therewith. Written notice of such order shall immediately be provided by the administrator to the owner or operator of the business, or any other appropriate party responsible for abating the unsafe condition or practice.(3-31-22)

b.Upon receiving such notice from the administrator, such owner, operator or responsible party shall immediately comply with such, and may notify the administrator in writing of their objection to the notice and request to contest such at a hearing. The owner, operator or responsible party shall provide the administrator with information, documentation, or other evidence supporting their objection.(3-31-22)

c.Upon receipt and review of such information from the owner, operator, or responsible party, the administrator may reconsider the matter and issue appropriate findings to the owner, operator, or party responsible for abating the unsafe condition or practice, including rescission of the order.(3-31-22)

d.If after review it is the determination of the administrator to keep the safety order in place, he shall so notify the owner, operator or responsible party and designate a time and place for hearing, and may assign the matter for hearing by a hearing officer. The hearing shall be afforded at such time not to exceed five (5) business days from the date the administrator received the notice of objection unless additional time is requested by the owner, operator, or responsible party. The hearing proceedings shall be governed by the provisions of Title 67, Chapter 52, Idaho Code. The hearing officer shall issue an order in accordance with Section 67-5243, Idaho Code. The hearing may be held at such location or by such means as the administrator determines most convenient for the parties.

e.The safety order shall remain in effect, and shall not be rescinded until the administrator has determined that the safety threat has been corrected or removed from the workplace. Upon verification by the administrator that the safety threat has been corrected or otherwise removed from the worksite, the administrator shall immediately notify the owner, operator or responsible party of the rescission of the safety order. Any party aggrieved by the final order of the administrator shall be entitled to judicial review thereof in accordance with the provisions of Title 67, Chapter 52, Idaho Code.(3-31-22)

f.Any person who knowingly fails or refuses to comply with the provisions of a safety order issued by the administrator shall be guilty of a misdemeanor, and the administrator may seek criminal prosecution of any such violations.(3-31-22)

IDAPA 24.39.80.653 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.39.80.701 Machine Safety Requirements

01.Harvesting Machines. Harvesting machines for cable-assisted logging operations shall comply with each of the following:(3-31-22)

a.Be equipped with a certified roll-over protective structure (ROPS); and(3-31-22)

b.Be equipped with at least a four (4)-point restraint system approved by the machine’s manufacturer or a qualified person.(3-31-22)

02.System Approval. The cable-assisted logging system shall be designed and constructed for cableassisted logging applications by the original equipment manufacturer, or approved for cable-assisted logging applications in writing by the original equipment manufacturer or a registered professional engineer.(3-31-22)

03.Operation of System. The cable-assisted logging system shall be operated, inspected and maintained in accordance with the manufacturer’s recommendations, specifications and limitations, or if no manufacturer’s recommendations exist, then by the recommendations of a registered professional engineer. Cableassisted logging systems not in safe operating condition shall be removed from service until repaired by a qualified person.(3-31-22)

IDAPA 24.39.80.702 Tethered Line Safety Requirements

01.Inspection of Tethered Lines.

Tether lines shall be new wire rope and have a rated breaking load according to the cable-assisted logging system manufacturer’s recommendations and specifications. At a minimum, a competent person shall inspect the entire length of each tether line and drum connection prior to the startup of each cable-assisted logging operation. A competent person shall also inspect the first fifty (50) feet of each tether line daily prior to use. These inspections shall be documented in writing. Tether lines must not be spliced and shall be replaced if there is evidence of chafing, sawing, crushing, kinking, crystallization, bird-caging, significant corrosion, heat damage, other damage that has weakened the tether line.(7-1-25)

02.Line Tension. The tether line tension and machine travel shall be synchronized or automatically held constant to ensure tether line tension is continuously provided and does not exceed thirty-three percent (33%) of the rope’s rated breaking load. The operator shall have an immediate and self-reliant or automated method to identify tether line tension, winch rotation and speed, amount of line on and off the drum, and anchor movement.(3-31-22)

03.Tether Line Components. All tether line assembly components shall be rated with a greater safe working load than the wire rope. Tether line attachment points and hitches shall be engineered and certified to maintain a safety factor equal to or greater than the recommendations and specifications of the cable-assisted logging system manufacturer. Inspections of tether line assembly components (except drum connection as specified in Subsection 011.01 of these rules), hitches, winches, machines, and anchors shall be performed daily by a competent person prior to use.(3-31-22)

IDAPA 24.39.80.703 Operation and Safety

REQUIREMENTS.

1. General. Cabl e-assisted logging systems shall be operated, inspected and maintained in accordance with the manufacturer’s recommendations and specifications. Inspections shall be documented in writing.

2. Planning. All cable-assisted logging operations shall be planned by the operator and a competent person who has the knowledge, training or experience to identify existing and predictable hazards in the work site surroundings or working conditions, which could be hazardous to employees, and has been authorized by the employer or employer representative to eliminate the hazard or take corrective action therefrom. Items to consider during site-specific planning must include, but are not limited to, the following:(3-31-22)

a.Experience of the operator;(3-31-22)

b.Limitations of the equipment;(3-31-22)

c.Soil and terrain conditions;(3-31-22)

d.Environmental conditions;(3-31-22)

e.Poor visibility and lighting conditions;(3-31-22)

f.Weather conditions;(3-31-22)

g.Direction of travel;(3-31-22)

h.Requirements for turning the machine on slopes;(3-31-22)

i.Load sizes;(3-31-22)

j.Method and adequacy of anchorage; and(3-31-22)

k.Any other condition that may adversely affect operations.(3-31-22)

3. Operator Qualifications. Cable-assisted logging operators shall have documented training or adequate experience to safely operate the equipment on slopes.(3-31-22)

4. Unsafe Conditions. The employer shall establish and use procedures for operators to report unsafe conditions to a supervisor or qualified person. Such conditions must be corrected prior to resuming cable-assisted logging operations. Procedures shall also include steps to take in the event of equipment breakdown and for upset conditions.(3-31-22)

5. Warning Signs. Effective signage shall be affixed to all remotely operated equipment warning employees and others that lines and machines may start, stop, or move without warning. All employees working in close proximity of cable-assisted logging operations must receive training that enables them to recognize the potential hazards involved and to maintain safe distances.(3-31-22)

IDAPA 24.39.80.704 (Reserved)

24.33.01 Rules of the Board of Medicine for the Practice of Medicine and Osteopathic Medicine in Idaho

IDAPA 24.33.01.000 Legal Authority

These rules are promulgated pursuant to Sections 6-1002, 54-1806 54-1806A, 54-1807, 54-1812, 54-1813, 54-1814, 54-1841, and 54-1867 Idaho Code.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.33.01.001 Scope

These rules govern the practice of medicine and osteopathic m edicine in Idaho. Nothing in this rule chapter authorizes the practice of medicine or any of its branches by a person not so licensed by the Board.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.33.01.002 Definitions

01.Ablative.

The separation, eradication, removal, or destruction of human tissue.(7-1-25)

02.Acceptable International School of Medicine. An international medical school located outside the United States or Canada that meets the standards for medical educational facilities set forth in Subsection 100.02 and is accredited by the ECFMG.(7-1-25)

03.Acceptable Intern or Resident Training Program. A medical training program or course of medical study that has been approved by the LCME, Council on Medical Education or COCA of the AOA. (7-1-25)

04.Acceptable Postgraduate Training Program. A post graduate medical training program or course of medical study that has been approved by the ACGME or AOA.(7-1-25)

05.Cosmetic Treatment. An aesthetic treatment prescribed by a physician for a patient that uses prescriptive medical/cosmetic devices or products to penetrate or alter human tissue.(7-1-25)

06.Directing Physician. A designated Idaho licensed physician, registered with the Board pursuant to this chapter and Title 54, Chapter 39, Idaho Code, who oversees the practice of athletic training and is responsible for the athletic training services provided by the athletic trainer.(7-1-25)

07.Incisive. The power and quality of cutting of human tissue.(7-1-25)

08.Medical Personnel. An individual who, under the direction and supervision of a supervising physician, pursuant to the applicable Idaho statutes and the applicable rules promulgated by the Board, provides treatments to patients.(7-1-25)

09.Parenteral Admixture. A preparation of sterile products intended for administration by injection.

10.Prescriptive Medical/Cosmetic Device. An FDA-approved prescriptive device that uses waveform energy including, but not limited to, intense pulsed light or lasers, to cosmetically alter human tissue.

11.Prescriptive Medical/Cosmetic Product. An FDA-approved prescriptive product whose primary intended use of the product is achieved through chemical action and cosmetically alters human tissue including, but not limited to, filler substances such as collagen or fat; lipo transfer; muscle immobilizers or sclerosing agents.

12.Supervising Physician of Interns or Residents. Any person approved by the Board who is licensed to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery in Idaho, who signs the application for registration of an intern or resident, and who is responsible for the direction and supervision of their activities.

(7-1-24)

13.Supervising Physician of Medical Personnel. An Idaho licensed physician who supervises and has full responsibility for treatments provided by medical personnel.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.33.01.003 Abbreviations

01.ACGME.

Accreditation Council for Graduate Medical Education.(3-28-23)

02.AOA. American Osteopathic Association.(3-28-23)

03.COCA. Commission on Osteopathic College Accreditation.(3-28-23)

04.ECFMG. Educational Commission for Foreign Medical Graduates.(3-28-23)

05.FAIMER. Foundation for Advancement of International Medical Education.(3-28-23)

06.FDA. United States Food and Drug Administration.(7-1-25)

07.FSMB. Federation of State Medical Boards.(3-28-23)

08.LCME. Liaison Committee on Medical Education.(3-28-23)

09.USMLE. United States Medical Licensing Exam.(3-28-23)

10.WFME. World Federation for Medical Education.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.33.01.004 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.33.01.100 Licensure

01.General Qualifications for Licensure and Renewal.

a.Residence. No period of residence in Idaho is required of any applicant, however, each applicant for licensure must be legally able to work and live in the United States. Original documentation of lawful presence in the United States must be provided upon request. The Board may refuse licensure or to renew a license if the applicant is not lawfully present in the United States.(7-1-25)

b.Special Purpose Examination. Upon inquiry, if further examination is required, the Board may require passage of the Special Purpose Examination (SPEX) administered by the FSMB, a post licensure assessment conducted by the FSMB, or an evaluation by an independent agency accepted by the Board to evaluate physician competence.(3-28-23)

c.Board Determinations. When the Board deems necessary, it may limit, condition, or restrict a newly issued license based on the Board’s determination and the recommendation of the assessment or evaluation.

d.Postgraduate Training Program. Successful completion of one year of a medical residency or internship program constitutes successful completion of a postgraduate training program acceptable to the Board.

02.Licensure for Graduates of International Medical Schools Located Outside of the United States and Canada.(7-1-25)

a.International Medical Graduate. In addition to meeting the General Qualifications for Licensure and Renewal, graduates of international medical schools located outside of the United States and Canada, who do not meet the requirements set forth in Section 54-1812, Idaho Code, must submit to the Board:(7-1-25)

i.Original certificate from the ECFMG or original documentation that the applicant has passed the examination either administered or recognized by the ECFMG and passed an examination acceptable to the Board that demonstrates qualification for licensure or successfully completed the USMLE;(3-28-23)

ii.Original documentation directly from the international medical school that establishes to the satisfaction of the Board that the international medical school meets the standards for medical educational facilities set forth in Subsection 100.02.b. of this Rule;(7-1-25)

iii.A transcript from the international medical school showing successful completion of all the courses taken and grades received and original documentation of successful completion of all clinical coursework; and

iv.Original documentation of successful completion of two (2) years of progressive postgraduate training at one (1) training program accredited for internship, residency, or fellowship training by the ACGME, AOA or the Royal College of Physicians and Surgeons of Canada or its successor organization, provided however, a resident who is attending an Idaho based residency program may be licensed after successful completion of one (1) years of progressive post graduate training, if the following conditions are met:(3-28-23)

(1)Written approval of the residency program director;(3-28-23)

(2)Signed written contract with the Idaho residency program to complete the entire residency program;(3-28-23)

(3)Remained in good standing at the Idaho-based residency program;(3-28-23)

(4)Notified the Board within thirty (30) days if there is a change in circumstances or affiliation with the program; and(3-28-23)

(5)Received an MD or DO degree from an approved school that is eligible for Idaho licensure after graduation.(7-1-25)

b.International Medical School Requirements. An international medical school must be listed in the World Directory of Medical Schools, a joint venture of WFME and FAIMER. Graduates of schools not listed in WFME or FAIMER must submit to the Board original documentation of three (3) of the four (4) requirements listed below:(3-28-23)

i.A valid ECFMG Certificate.(3-28-23)

ii.Successful completion of three (3) years of progressive post graduate training at one (1) training program accredited for internship, residency or fellowship training in an ACGME or AOA or Royal College of Physicians and Surgeons of Canada or its successor organization’s approved program.(3-28-23)

iii.Current board certification by a specialty board approved by the American Board of Medical Specialties or the AOA.(3-28-23)

iv.Evidence of five (5) years of unrestricted practice as a licensee of any United States or Canadian jurisdiction.(3-28-23)

03.Temporary Registration.(7-1-25)

a.Eligibility. Any person practicing under the supervision of an Idaho-licensed physician as part of a postgraduate medical training program.(7-1-25)

b.Registration Certificate. Each registration will be issued for a period of one (1) year and will identify the supervising physician. Each registrant will notify the Board in writing of any change of the supervising physician or the program or course of study fourteen (14) days prior to any such change. If the Board deems the applicant qualified, and if the course of study requires, the Board may additionally certify on the registration certificate that the registrant is qualified to write prescriptions for Class III through Class V scheduled medications.

(7-1-24)

c.Discipline. Registrations may be terminated, suspended, or made conditional by the Board on the grounds set forth in Section 54-1814, Idaho Code.(7-1-24)

d.Annual Renewal. Registration may be renewed annually and, if not renewed by the expiration date, will be canceled.( 7-1-24)

e.Notification of Changes.Registrants must notify the Board in writing of any adverse action or termination, whatever the outcome, from any post graduate training program and any name changes within fourteen (14) days of such event.(7-1-24)

f.Disclosure. A registrant must ensure patients are informed that the registrant is currently enrolled in a post graduate training program and working under the supervision of a licensed physician.(7-1-24)

04.Continuing Medical Education (CME) Requirements.(7-1-25)

a.Renewal. Prior to license renewal, each licensee shall provide an attestation indicating that they have either:(7-1-25)

i.Completed no less than forty (40) hours of practice-relevant CME during the prior two (2) years;

ii.Maintained current board certification from the American Board of Medical Specialties, the AOA, or the Royal College of Physicians and Surgeons of Canada or its successor organization; or(7-1-25)

iii.Participated full time in a residency or fellowship training program at a professionally accredited institution.(7-1-25)

b.Verification of Compliance. The Board, in its discretion, may require such additional evidence as is necessary to verify compliance.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.33.01.101 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.33.01.200 Practice Standards

01.Duties of Collaborating Physicians.

a.Responsibilities. A collaborating physician is responsible for complying with the requirements set forth in Title 54, Chapter 18 and IDAPA 24.33.02 when collaborating and consulting in the medical services provided by any physician assistant or graduate physician assistant either through a collaborative practice agreement or through the facility bylaws or procedures of any facility with credentialing and privileging systems.(3-28-23)

02.Duties of Directing Physicians.(7-1-25)

a.Responsibilities. The directing physician accepts full responsibility for the acts and athletic training services provided by the athletic trainer and oversees the practice of athletic training of the athletic trainer, and for the supervision of such acts which include, but are not limited to:(3-28-23)

i.An on-site visit at least semiannually to personally observe the quality of athletic training services provided; and(3-28-23)

ii.Recording of a periodic review of a representative sample of the records, including, but not limited to, records made from the past six (6) months of the review to evaluate the athletic training services that were provided.(3-28-23)

b.Scope of Practice. The directing physician must ensure the scope of practice of the athletic trainer, as set forth in IDAPA 24.33.05, and Section 54-3903, Idaho Code, will be limited to and consistent with the scope of practice of the directing physician and exclude any independent practice of athletic training by an athletic trainer.

c.Directing Responsibility. The responsibilities and duties of a directing physician may not be transferred to a business entity, professional corporation, or partnership, nor may they be assigned to another physician without prior notification and Board approval.(3-28-23)

d.Available Supervision. The directing physician will oversee the activities of the athletic trainer and must be available either in person or by telephone to supervise, direct, and counsel the athletic trainer. The scope and nature of the direction of the athletic trainer will be outlined in an athletic training service plan or protocol, as set forth in IDAPA 24.33.05.(3-28-23)

e.Disclosure. It is the responsibility of each directing physician to ensure that each athlete who receives athletic training services is aware of the fact that said person is not a licensed physician.(3-28-23)

03.Duties of Supervising Physicians of Interns and Residents.(7-1-25)

a.Responsibilities. The supervising physician is responsible for the direction and supervision of the medical acts and patient services provided by an intern or resident. The direction and supervision of such activities include, but are not limited to:(3-28-23)

i.Synchronous direct communication at least monthly with intern or resident to ensure the quality of care provided;(3-28-23)

ii.Recording of a periodic review of a representative sample of medical records to evaluate the medical services that are provided; and(3-28-23)

iii.Regularly scheduled conferences between the supervising physician and the intern or resident.

b.Available Supervision. The supervising physician will oversee the activities of the intern or resident, and must always be available either in person or by telephone to supervise, direct and counsel the intern or resident.(3-28-23)

c.Disclosure. It is the responsibility of each supervising physician to ensure that each patient who receives the services of an intern or resident is notified of the fact that said person is not a licensed physician.

04.Duties of Supervising Physicians of Medical Personnel.(7-1-25)

a.Purpose. The “practice of medicine,” as defined in Section 54-1803(1), Idaho Code, includes the administration of parenteral admixtures and the performance of cosmetic treatments using prescriptive medical/ cosmetic devices and products which penetrate or alter human tissue. Such treatments can lead to significant complications that may result in permanent injury or death and, therefore, can only be performed as set forth herein.

b.Responsibilities. The supervising physician accepts full responsibility for all treatments provided by medical personnel and for the supervision of such treatments.(7-1-25)

i.Patient Record. The supervising physician must document an adequate legible patient record of his evaluation, assessment, and plan for the patient prior to the initial treatment.(7-1-25)

ii.Available Supervision. The supervising physician will be on-site or immediately available to respond promptly to any questions or problems that may occur while a treatment is being performed by medical personnel. Such supervision includes, but is not limited to:(7-1-25)

(1)Periodic review of the medical records to evaluate the prescribed treatments that are provided by such medical personnel including any adverse outcomes or changes in the treatment protocol; and(7-1-25)

(2)Regularly scheduled conferences between the supervising physician and such medical personnel. iii .Verification of Training. The supervising physician is responsible to ensure that, with respect to any treatment performed, the medical personnel possess the proper training to perform the treatment, the indications for the prescribed treatment, and the pre- and post-procedure care involved. The supervising physician will verify the training of medical personnel upon the board-approved Medical Personnel Supervising Physician Registration form.

The Medical Personnel Supervising Physician Registration Form will be maintained on file at each practice location and at the address of record of the supervising physician.(7-1-25)

iv.Cosmetic Treatments.(7-1-25)

(1)Scope. Cosmetic treatments can only be performed by a physician or by medical personnel under the supervision of a physician. Physicians who supervise cosmetic treatments must be trained in the safety and use of prescriptive medical/cosmetic devices and products. Medical personnel providing cosmetic treatments are limited to using prescriptive medical/cosmetic devices and products that are exclusively non-incisive and non-ablative. The supervising physician will ensure cosmetic treatments provided by medical personnel are limited to and consistent with the scope of practice of the supervising physician.(7-1-25)

(2)Supervision. A supervising physician of medical personnel may not supervise more than three (3) medical personnel providing cosmetic treatments contemporaneously. The Board, however, may authorize a supervising physician to supervise a total of six (6) such medical personnel contemporaneously if necessary to provide adequate treatments and upon prior petition documenting adequate safeguards to protect the public health and safety.(7-1-25)

v.Disclosure. It is the responsibility of each supervising physician to ensure that every patient receiving treatment from medical personnel is advised of the education and training of the medical personnel rendering the treatment and that such medical personnel are not licensed physicians.(7-1-25)

vi.Patient Complaints. The supervising physician will report to the Board of Medicine all patient complaints received against medical personnel that relate to the quality and nature of treatments rendered.(7-1-25)

vii.Duties and Responsibilities Nontransferable. The responsibilities and duties of a supervising physician may not be transferred to a business entity, professional corporation, or partnership, nor may they be assigned to another physician or person.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.33.01.201 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.33.01.300 Discipline

In addition to the grounds for discipline set forth in Idaho Code, every person licensed or permitted by the Board is subject to discipline upon any of the following grounds:(7-1-25)

01.Unethical Advertising. Advertising the licensee or permittee's practice in any unethical or unprofessional manner, including but not limited to:(7-1-25)

a.Using advertising or representations likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public.(7-1-25)

b.Making a false or misleading statement regarding the licensee or permittee's skill or the efficacy or value of the treatment, remedy, or service offered, performed, or prescribed by the licensee or permittee.(7-1-25)

03.Standard of Care. Providing health care that fails to meet the standard of health care provided by other qualified licensees or permittees of the same profession, in the same community or similar communities, including but not limited to:(7-1-25)

a.Being found mentally incompetent or insane by any court of competent jurisdiction.(7-1-25)

b.Engaging in practice or behavior that demonstrates a manifest incapacity or incompetence to practice his or her profession.(7-1-25)

c.Allowing another person or organization to use his or her license or permit to practice his or her profession.(7-1-25)

d.Prescribing, selling, administering, distributing or giving any drug legally classified as a controlled substance or recognized as an addictive or dangerous drug to himself or herself or to a spouse, child, or stepchild.

e.Using any controlled substance or alcohol to an extent that use impairs the licensee or permittee's ability to practice his or her profession competently.(7-1-25)

f.Violating any state or federal law or regulation relating to controlled substances.(7-1-25)

g.Directly promoting surgical procedures or laboratory tests that are unnecessary and not medically indicated.(7-1-25)

h.Failure to transfer pertinent and necessary medical records to another provider when requested to do so by the subject patient or client or by his or her legally designated representative.(7-1-25)

i.Failing to maintain adequate records. Adequate patient or client records means legible records that contain, at a minimum, subjective information, an evaluation and report of objective findings, assessment or diagnosis, and the plan of care.(7-1-25)

j.Providing care or performing any service outside the licensee or permittee's scope of practice as set forth in Idaho Code, including providing care or performing a service without supervision, if such is required by Idaho Code or Board rule.(7-1-25)

k.Failing to have a supervising or directing physician who is licensed by the Board, if such supervision is required by Idaho Code or Board rule.(7-1-25)

04.Conduct. Engaging in any conduct that constitutes an abuse or exploitation of a patient or client arising out of the trust and confidence placed in the licensee or permittee by the patient or client, including but not limited to:(7-1-25)

a.Obtaining any fee by fraud, deceit, or misrepresentation.(7-1-25)

b.Employing abusive billing practices.(7-1-25)

c.Commission of any act of sexual contact, misconduct, exploitation, or intercourse with a patient or client or former patient or client or related to the licensee's practice.(7-1-25)

i.Consent of the patient or client shall not be a defense.(7-1-25)

ii.This section does not apply to sexual contact between a licensee or permittee and the licensee or permittee's spouse or a person in a domestic relationship who is also a patient or client.(7-1-25)

iii.A former patient or client includes a patient or client for whom the licensee or permittee has provided services related to the licensee or permittee's practice, including prescriptions, within the last twelve (12) months; sexual or romantic relationships with former patients or clients beyond that period of time may also be a violation if the licensee or permittee uses or exploits the trust, knowledge, emotions, or influence derived from the prior professional relationship with the patient or client.(7-1-25)

d.Accepting any reimbursement for service, beyond actual expenses, while providing services under a volunteer license.( 7-1-25)

e.Employing, supervising, directing, aiding, or abetting a person not licensed or permitted in this state who directly or indirectly performs activities or provides services requiring a license or permit.(7-1-25)

f.Failing to report to the Board any known act or omission of a Board licensee or permittee that violates any provision of these rules.(7-1-25)

g.Interfering with an investigation or disciplinary proceeding by willful misrepresentation of facts or by use of threats or harassment against any patient or client, Board or Advisory Board or Committee member, Board staff, hearing officer, or witness in an attempt to influence the outcome of a disciplinary proceeding, investigation, or other legal action.(7-1-25)

h.Failing to obey any and all state and local laws and rules related to the licensee or permittee's practice or profession.(7-1-25)

05.Failure to Cooperate. Failing to cooperate with the Board during any investigation or disciplinary proceeding, even if such investigation or disciplinary proceeding does not personally concern the particular licensee.

06.On-Site Review. The Board, by and through its designated agents, is authorized to conduct on-site reviews of the activities of its licensees at the locations and facilities in which the licensees practice at such times as the Board deems necessary.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.33.01.301 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.33.01.400 Fees

Nonrefundable fees are as follows:

( 7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.33.01.401 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.33.01.800 Physician Panel for Prelitigation Consideration of Malpractice Claims

01.Obligation. A physician licensed to practice medicine or osteopathic medicine in Idaho must be available to serve in any two (2) year period, or a longer period not to exceed five (5) years, as determined by the panel chairman, as a physician panelist for prelitigation consideration of a medical malpractice claim.(7-1-25)

02.Excusing Physicians from Serving. A physician panelist so selected must serve unless he had served on a prelitigation panel during any previous two (2) year period, or a longer period not to exceed five (5) years, as determined by the panel chairman or for good cause shown, is excused by the panel chairman. To show good cause for relief from serving, the selected physician panelist must present an affidavit to the panel chairman which shall set out the facts showing that service would constitute an unreasonable burden or undue hardship. The panel chairman has the sole authority to excuse a selected physician from serving on a prelitigation panel.(3-28-23)

03.Penalties for Noncompliance. The Board may condition, limit, suspend, or refuse to renew the Fees – Table Licensure Fee-Not more than $600 Provisional License-Not more than $300 Temporary License-Not more than $300 Reinstatement License Fee plus total of renewal fees not paid by applicant -Not more than $300 Renewal of License to Practice Medicine Fee-Not more than $300 Volunteer License Application Fee-$0 Volunteer License Renewal Fee-$0 Limited License for Bridge Year Physicians-Not more than $300 Temporary Registration-Not more than $25 license of any physician whom the Board determines has failed to serve as a physician panelist for the prelitigation consideration of a medical malpractice claim.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.33.01.801 (Reserved)

24.39.20 Rules Governing Plumbing

IDAPA 24.39.20.000 Legal Authority

The rules are promulgated pursuant to Section 54-2601, 54-26 05, 54-2606, 54-2607, 54-2617, 54-2624, 67-2604, 67- 2614, 67-9406 and 67-9409, Idaho Code.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.39.20.001 Scope

The rules prescribe criteria and fees for issuance of certificates of com petency, plumbing permits, and inspections of plumbing installations, civil penalties, and adoption and amendment of the Idaho State Plumbing Code.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.39.20.002 Definitions

01.Fixture.

Any water using or waste producing unit attached to the plumbing system, including sewers, water treatment equipment, solar systems, sprinkler systems, hot tubs and spas.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.39.20.003 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.39.20.100 Certificates of Competency and Registration

01.Apprentice Registration and Renewal.

To register or renew an apprentice registration, a person shall complete an application and pay all associated fees.(3-28-23)

02.Journeyman Certificate of Competency. An applicant must pass an examination designated by the Board and either (a) submit evidence of a minimum of eight thousand (8,000) hours of work experience as an apprentice making plumbing installations in accordance with the requirements of the jurisdiction in which the applicant obtained the experience and satisfactory completion of 576 hours of a board-approved course of instruction, or (b) submit proof of sixteen thousand (16,000) hours of plumbing experience in accordance with the requirements of the jurisdiction in which the applicant obtained the experience. Pipe fitting and appliance plumbing specialty work will not count towards the experience qualifications for a journeyman’s certificate of competency.(3-28-23)

a.Examination. An applicant may sit for the exam after showing proof of completion of either 576 hours of board-approved course of instruction or 16,000 hours of plumbing experience.(3-28-23)

03.Contractor and Specialty Contractor Certificate of Competency. An applicant must hold a journeyman certificate of competency for a contractor certificate or relevant specialty journeyman certificate for a specialty contractor certificate, successfully pass an examination designated by the Board, and provide a compliance bond in the amount of two thousand dollars ($2,000). Any such bond is required to be effective for the duration of the certificate period and proof of renewal of the compliance bond is required to renew or revive a certificate. The specialty contractor’s scope of work is limited as set forth in Rule 100.04.c or Rule 100.04.e.(3-28-23)

a.Restrictive Use of Contractor Certificate. A contractor or specialty contractor can only represent one person or entity as stated on an original or renewal license application. In the event the representation changes or ends for any reason, the contractor or specialty contractor must immediately notify the Division in writing. Failure to provide such notification constitutes improper transferring of a license.(3-28-23)

04.Specialty Apprentice Registration and Specialty Journeyman Certificates of Competency.

a.Specialty Apprentice must maintain state registration and be employed by a licensed contractor.

b.Appliance Specialty Journeyman. An applicant must pass an examination designated by the Board and either (a) submit evidence of a minimum of three thousand (3,000) hours apprentice on-the-job specialty-related experience and satisfactory completion of 72 hours of board-approved specialty-related training classes or (b) submit evidence of a minimum of six thousand (6,000) hours of specialty-related work experience in accordance with the req uirements of the jurisdiction in which the applicant obtained the experience.(3-28-23)

c. Appliance Specialty Permitted Scope of Work. Permitted, in one-family and two-family residences only, to disconnect, cap, remove, and reinstall within sixty (60) inches of original location: water heating appliance; water treating or filtering devices; air or space temperature modifying equipment which involves potable water; humidifier; temperature and pressure relief valves; condensate drains; and indirect drains. Does not include installation, testing, or certifying of backflow prevention devices. Does not include any modification to the drain, waste or vent systems. Must comply with all Idaho plumbing laws and rules and the requirements of the Uniform Plumbing Code.(3-28-23)

d.Water Pump Specialty Journeyman. An applicant must pass an examination designated by the Board and submit evidence of a minimum of three thousand (3,000) hours of specialty-related work experience in accordance with the requirements of the jurisdiction in which the applicant obtained the experience.(3-28-23)

e.Water Pump Specialty Permitted Scope of Work. Permitted to install and connect water service piping from pump to storage expansion pressure tank in one (1) and two (2) family residences only. Does not include installation, testing or certifying of backflow prevention devices. Must comply with all Idaho plumbing laws and rules and the requirements of the Uniform Plumbing Code.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.39.20.101 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.39.20.300 Civil Penalties

The acts described in this section subject the violator to a civil penalty not to exceed one thousand dollars ($1,000) for each separate count or offense.(3-28-23)

01.Statute or Rule. Failure to comply with any provision of Chapter 26, Title 54, Idaho Code or Board Rule. (3-28-23)

02.Certification or Registration. Except as provided by Section 54-2602, Idaho Code, performance of plumbing without an active certificate of competency or registration as required by Idaho Code 54-2611.(3-28-23)

03.Performance Outside Scope. Performance of any plumbing installation, alteration, or maintenance by a specialty contractor or specialty journeyman outside the scope of the specialty certificate of competency.(3-28-23)

04.Employees. Knowing employment of a person who does not hold an active certificate of competency or registration as required by Idaho Code 54-2611 to perform plumbing.(3-28-23)

5. Supervision. Working as an apprentice or specialty apprentice without the required journeyman supervision or employing an apprentice without providing the required journeyman supervision. (3-28-23)

06.Fees, Permits, and Inspections. Failure to obtain a required permit, pay applicable fees, properly post a permit, or request an inspection of all pipes, fittings, valves, vents, fixtures, appliances, appurtenances, and water treatment installations or repairs.(3-28-23)

07.Corrections. Failure to make corrections in the time allotted in the notice on any plumbing installation.(3-28-23)

08.Misrepresentation of Fees. Misrepresentation of the permit or inspection fees to the customer.

09.Advertising. Advertising to engage in the business, trade, practice, or work of a plumbing contractor as defined in Section 54-2611, Idaho Code, without holding a current and valid plumbing contractor certificate of competency issued by the Division or advertising without including the contractor certificate of competency number in the advertisement. Advertising includes, but is not limited to: newspaper, telephone directory, community flier ads or notices; telephone, television, radio, internet, or door-to-door solicitations.(3-28-23)

10. Order. Failure to comply with any lawful order of the Board or Division administrator. (3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.39.20.301 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.39.20.500 Permits and Inspections

01.Permits.(3 -28-23)

a.Permits will be furnished to a plumbing contractor upon submission of a complete application and proper permit fee. For commercial or industrial plumbing, a verified copy of bid acceptance must be submitted with the application. Permit serial numbers must be registered in the name of the plumbing contractor and are transferable only as provided herein these rules.(3-28-23)

b.Homeowners making plumbing installations on their own premises under the provisions of Section 54-2602(1)(a), Idaho Code, must secure a plumbing permit by making application to the Division as provided by Section 54-2620, Idaho Code.(3-28-23)

c.Expiration. Every permit issued shall expire and become null and void after three hundred sixtyfive (365) days from the purchase date or last inspection. A permit may be renewed for an additional year upon receipt of Division approval and payment of a sixty-five dollar ($65) renewal fee.(3-28-23)

d.Transferring a Permit. A plumbing permit may be transferred to another eligible party if such party provides to the Division written authorization signed and notarized by the original permit holder consenting to the transfer itself and assigning all responsibilities and conditions incorporated into the original permit issuance. A permit may be transferred to the owner of the property on which the plumbing work is to be performed and for which the permit was issued or such owner’s designated legal agent in cases where the property owner has terminated his legal relationship with the plumbing contractor who originally obtained the permit. An administrative fee in the amount of forty-five dollars ($45) for the transfer of a permit must be paid to the Division.(3-28-23)

02.Permit Fee Schedule.(3-28-23)

a.New Residential. Includes all buildings with plumbing systems being constructed on each property.

The following fees shall apply to new residential construction:

b.Miscellaneous. The following fees shall apply for the types of permits listed:

One-and two-Family Dwelling Units Square FeetFee Up to 1,500 -$130 1,501 to 2,500 -$195 2,501 to 3,500 -$260 3,501 to 4,500 -$325 Over 4,500 - $325 plus $65 for each additional 1,000 square feet or portion thereof TypeFee Existing residential $65 per inspection plus $10 for each  additional fixture Requested inspection $65 per hour or portion thereof plus  costs of out-of-state travel Technical service $65 per hour or portion thereof Plan check

c.Other Installations Including Multifamily, Industrial and Commercial. The following fees shall apply to multifamily, industrial, and commercial installations and installations not specifically mentioned elsewhere in this Fee Schedule. The plumbing system cost is the cost to the owner of labor charges and other costs incurred to complete the installation of equipment and materials installed as part of the plumbing system. All fees calculated under this Subsection must be based on the total plumbing system cost, which must be listed on the permit.

d.Additional Fees. A fee of sixty-five dollars ($65) per hour or portion thereof shall apply to trips to inspect when the permit holder has given notice to Division that the work is ready for inspection and it is not; if the permit holder has not accurately identified the work location; if the inspector cannot gain access to make the inspection; if corrections are required by the inspector as a result of the permit holder improperly responding to a corrective notice; or when corrections have not been made in the prescribed time, unless an extension has been requested and granted.(3-28-23)

03.Required Inspections.(3-28-23)

a.Ground Work Inspection Tags. For groundwork to be covered, with acceptance by the inspector. A tag will be attached in a prominent location, preferably to a vertical riser.(3-28-23)

b.Rough-In Inspection Tags. For rough-in, prior to covering or concealing, with acceptance by the inspector. A tag will be placed in a prominent location.(3-28-23)

c.Final Inspection Tags. For final, attached when the plumbing as specified on the permit is complete and conforms to the requirements of the code and rules.(3-28-23)

Mobile home, manufactured home, or recreational vehicle park Calculated under Subsection 500.02.c. of these rules Sewer or water service line - nonresidential (new construction, installations, and replacements)

Reclaimed water system Lawn sprinkler system - nonresidential Lawn sprinkler system - residential $65 per inspection Sewer or water service line - residential (new construction, installations, and replacements)

Mobile or manufactured home Modular building Multipurpose residential fire sprinkler $65 or $4 per fire sprinkler head,  whichever is greater Gray water system$130 per inspection Plumbing System Cost Fee Up to $10,000-$60 plus 2% of plumbing system cost $10,000 to $100,000-$260 plus 1% of plumbing system cost exceeding $10,000 Over $100,000-$1,160 plus .5% of plumbing system cost exceeding $100,000 TypeFee

d.Inspection Tags for Unacceptable Plumbing. “Notice of Correction” inspection tags are attached to indicate the plumbing installation is not acceptable and corrections are required. A reinspection and reinspection fee for such installations shall be required.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.39.20.501 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.39.20.600 Idaho State Plumbing Code

Pursuant to Section 54-2601, Idaho Code, the Board adopts, as the Idaho State Plumbing Code (ISPC), the 2015 Uniform Plumbing Code, including Appendices A, B, C, D, E, G, I, J, K and L, with the following amendments:

01.Section 105.3 Testing of Systems.(3-28-23)

a.Delete and replace the following: Plumbing systems must be tested and approved in accordance with this code or the Authority Having Jurisdiction. Tests may be conducted in the presence of the Authority Having Jurisdiction or the Authority Having Jurisdiction’s duly appointed representative.(3-28-23)

b.No test or inspection is required where a plumbing system, or part thereof, is set up for exhibition purposes and has no connection with a water or drainage system. In cases where it would be impractical to provide the required water or air tests, or the presences of the Authority Having Jurisdiction, or for minor installations and repairs, the Authority Having Jurisdiction, in accordance with procedures established thereby, is permitted to make such inspection as deemed advisable in accordance with the intent of this code. Joints and connections in the plumbing system must be gastight and watertight for the pressures required by the test.(3-28-23)

02.Section 218 Definitions. Delete definition of “Plumbing System.” Incorporate definition of “Plumbing System” as set forth in Section 54-2604, Idaho Code.(3-28-23)

03.Section 401.2 Qualities of Fixtures. Replace with the following: Plumbing fixtures must be constructed of dense, durable, non-absorbent materials and must have smooth, impervious surfaces, free from unnecessary concealed fouling surfaces.(3-28-23)

04.Section 403.3 Exposed Pipes and Surfaces. Delete.(3-28-23)

05.Section 408.5 Finished Curb or Threshold. Delete the last sentences of the first paragraph and replace with the following: The finished floor of the receptor must slope uniformly from the sides toward the drain not less than one-eighth (1/8) inch per foot (20.8 mm/m), nor more than one-half (1/2) inch per foot (41.8 mm/m).

06.Section 408.7.5 Tests for Shower Receptors. Delete.(3-28-23)

07.Section 409.4 Limitation of Hot Water in Bathtubs and Whirlpool Bathtubs. Delete. (3-28-23)

08.Table 501.1(1) First Hour Rating. Delete Table 501.1(1). (3-28-23)

09.Section 503.1 Inspection of Chimneys or Vents. Add the following to the end of section 503.1:

Water heating appliances using Category 3 or 4 exhaust venting must be tested in its entirety with five (5) pounds of air for fifteen (15) minutes. Plastic vents must be constructed using manufacturer’s instructions.(3-28-23)

10.Section 507.2 Seismic Provisions. Delete.(3-28-23)

11.Section 507.13 Installation in Garages. Replace 507.13 with the following: Any plumbing appliance or appurtenance in residential garages and in adjacent spaces that open to the garage and are not part of the living space of a dwelling unit must be installed so that burners, burner-ignition devices or other sources of ignition are located not less than eighteen (18) inches (450 mm) above the floor unless listed as flammable vapor ignition resistant.(3-28-23)

12.Section 603.2 Approval of Devices or Assemblies. Delete last paragraph.(3-28-23)

13.Table 603.2 Backflow Prevention Devices, Assemblies and Methods.(3-28-23)

a.Delete from the table the entire row related to freeze resistant sanitary yard hydrant devices.

b.Delete the backflow preventer for Carbonated Beverage Dispensers text from the first column of the table and replace with the following: Backflow preventer for Carbonated Beverage Dispensers (Reduced Pressure Principle Backflow Prevention Assembly).(3-28-23)

14.Section 603.4.2 Testing. Delete last sentence.(3-28-23)

15.Section 603.5.7 Outlets with Hose Attachments. Delete and replace with the following: Potable water outlets with hose attachments, other than water heater drains, boiler drains, freeze resistant yard hydrants and clothes washer connections, must be protected by a nonremovable hose bibb-type backflow preventer, a nonremovable hose bibb-type vacuum breaker, or by an atmospheric vacuum breaker installed not less than six (6) inches (one hundred fifty-two (152) mm) above the highest point of usage located on the discharge side of the last valve. In climates where freezing temperatures occur, a listed self-draining frost-proof hose bibb with an integral backflow preventer or vacuum breaker must be used.(3-28-23)

16.Section 603.5.12 Beverage Dispensers. Delete and replace with the following: Potable water supply to, carbonated beverage dispensers must be protected by an air gap or a Reduced Pressure Principle Backflow Prevention Assembly in accordance with ASSE 1013. For carbonated beverage dispensers, piping material installed downstream of the backflow preventer must not be affected by carbon dioxide gas. Potable water supply to beverage dispensers and coffee machines must be protected by an air gap or a vented backflow preventer in accordance with ASSE 1022.(3-28-23)

17.Section 603.5.17 Potable Water Outlets and Valves. Delete.(3-28-23)

18.Section 603.5.21 Chemical Dispensers. Add the following new section 603.5.21: The water supply to chemical dispensers must be protected against backflow. The chemical dispenser must comply with ASSE 1055 or the water supply must be protected by one of the following methods:(3-28-23)

a.Air gap;(3-28-23)

b.Atmospheric vacuum breaker (AVB);(3-28-23)

c.Pressure vacuum breaker backflow prevention assembly (PVB);(3-28-23)

d.Spill-resistant pressure vacuum breaker (SVB); or(3-28-23)

e.Reduced-pressure principle backflow prevention assembly (RP).(3-28-23)

19.Section 604.10.1 Tracer Wire. Add the following exception: Where the electrical wiring for the pump is installed in the same trench as the water line, from the point of origin to the structure, a tracer wire is not required.(3-28-23)

20.Section 605.6.2 Mechanical Joints. Add to the end of the section the following: Listed PE (p olyethylene), one hundred sixty (160) psi minimum, water service and yard piping may be installed within a building (above ground and below ground) with one (1) joint, provided that only listed and approved metallic transition fittings must be used. Polyethylene (PE) plastic pipe or tubing and fitting joining methods must be installed in accordance with the manufacturer’s installation instructions.(3-28-23)

21.Section 609.1 Installation. Delete the following sentence: Building supply yard piping must be not less than twelve (12) inches (305 mm) below the average local frost depth; and replace it with the following: The cover must be not less than forty-two (42) inches (1068mm) below grade.(3-28-23)

22.Section 609.4 Testing. Deleting the phrase “Except for plastic piping,” at the beginning of the third sentence and add the following sentence at the end of the section: Plastic piping is to be tested in accordance with manufacturer’s installation standards.(3-28-23)

23.Section 609.10 Water Hammer. Does not apply to residential construction.(3-28-23)

24.Section 609.11 Pipe Insulation. Delete.(3-28-23)

25.Table 610.3 and Appendix Table A 103.1. Change fixture unit loading value for both public and private for bathtub or combination bath/shower, and clothes washers to two (2) fixture units.(3-28-23)

26.Section 610.2 Pressure Loss. Add the following: All new one (1) and two (2) family residences built slab on grade or that will have a finished basement at the time of final inspection must have a pre-plumbed water softener loop. The kitchen sink must have one (1) hot soft line and one (1) cold soft line and one (1) cold hard line.

Exterior cold hose bibbs intended for irrigation purposes must be piped with hard water.(3-28-23)

27.Table 611.4 Sizing of Residential Softeners. Amend Footnote 3 to read: Over four (4) bathroom groups, softeners must be sized according to the manufacturer’s standards.(3-28-23)

28.Section 612.0 Residential Sprinkler System. Add the following to the end of the first sentence in section 612.1: and the requirements of the Authority Having Jurisdiction (AHJ).(3-28-23)

29.Table 702.1 Drainage Fixture Unit Values (DFU). Change fixture unit loading value for clothes washers, domestic for private to two (2) fixture units.(3-28-23)

30.Section 703.1 Minimum Size. Add the following at the end of section 703.1: No portion of the drainage or vent system installed underground, or underground under concrete must be less than two (2) inches in diameter.(3-28-23)

31.Section 704.2 Single Vertical Drainage Pipe. Two inch (2”) and smaller double sanitary tees may be used for back to back or side by side fixture trap arms without increasing the barrel size.(3-28-23)

32.Section 704.3 Commercial Sinks. Delete.(3-28-23)

33.Table 703.2 Maximum Unit Loading and Maximum Length of Drainage and Vent Piping.

Change fixture unit loading value for one and a half (1 1/2) inch horizontal drainage to two (2) fixture units.

34.Section 705.5.2 Solvent Cement Joints. Add to the end of the section the following: PVC DWV may be joined by the use of one-step solvent cement listed or labeled per U.P.C. Section 301.1.1.(3-28-23)

35.Section 707.4 Locations. Add the following: A clean out must be installed for double sanitary tees two (2) inches (50 mm) or less in diameter that receive the discharge from fixture connections. Exception in Section 707.4 does not apply. A full-sized accessible cleanout must be installed in the vertical immediately above the floor or at the base of each waste or soil stack. A full-size cleanout extending to or above finished grade line must be installed at the junction of the building drain and the building sewer. Cleanouts must be installed at fifty (50) foot intervals in horizontal drain lines two (2) inches or smaller.(3-28-23)

36.Section 710.3(4) Sewage Ejectors and Pumps. Add: Exception (4): One (1) pump is permitted for “public use” occupancies provided that such tank receives the discharge of not more than one (1) water closet and ten (10) fixture units (See Section 710.9 Alarms).(3-28-23)

37.Section 710.5 Size Building Drains and Sewers. Add the following exception: In single family dwellings, one (1) fixture unit may be allowed for each gallon per minute of flow from a pump or a sump ejector.

38.Section 712.1 Media. In the first sentence, delete the phrase “except that plastic pipe must not be tested with air.”(3-28-23)

39.Section 717.0 Size of Building Sewers. Add the following to the end of section 717.1: Exception:

The building drain and building sewer is not less than four (4) inches extending from its connection with the city or private sewer system and must run full size to inside the foundation or building lines.(3-28-23)

40.Section 723.0 General. Delete the following sentence: “Plastic DWV piping systems must not be tested by the air test method.”(3-28-23)

41.Section 801.3.3 Food Handling Fixtures. Add: Food preparation sinks, pot sinks, scullery sinks, dishwashing sinks, silverware sinks, commercial dishwashing machines, silverware-washing machines, steam kettles, potato peelers, ice cream dipper wells, and other similar equipment and fixtures must be indirectly connected to the drainage system by means of an air gap. The piping from the equipment to the receptor must not be smaller than the drain on the unit, but it must not be smaller than one (1) inch (twenty-five and four tenths (25.4) mm).

42.Section 805.41 General. Add to the end of the first paragraph the following: Provisions must be made for the discharge of the water softener to terminate in an approved location. The drain line for a water softener must be three-fourths (3/4) inch minimum. A washer box with a dual outlet is an approved location as long as it is on the same floor or one (1) floor below the softener unit and the water softener drain line is a minimum three-fourths (3/ 4) inch.(3-28-23)

43.Section 807.3 Domestic Dishwashing Machines. A domestic dishwashing machine may be installed without the use of an airgap if the drain hose is looped to the bottom side of the countertop and secured properly.(3-28-23)

44.Section 906.1 Roof Termination. Add the following:(3-28-23)

a.Sidewall venting. When sidewall venting is utilized, the vent must extend flush with the eaves/ gable end, turn down using a ninety (90) degree ell, and terminate as close to the roof peak as possible. The vent end must be properly screened. Sidewall venting is acceptable on new or remodel construction on cabins, log homes, and residential or commercial buildings.(3-28-23)

45.Section 908.1 Vertical Wet Venting. Add to the end of the section the following: A horizontal wet vent may be created provided it is created in a vertical position and all other requirements of Section 908 of the ISPC are met.(3-28-23)

46.Section 909.0 Special Venting for Island Fixtures. Add: Parameters for the limited use of Air Admittance Valves (A.A.V.).(3-28-23)

a.An A.A.V. may be used only in residential buildings.(3-28-23)

b.In remodels, an A.A.V. may be used with island fixtures or remotely located sinks such as in bar, kitchen, or laundry tray locations. An A.A.V. may not be used in bathroom groups.(3-28-23)

c.In new construction, an A.A.V. may be used on island fixture sinks.(3-28-23)

d.Each A.A.V. may be used to vent only one (1) floor.(3-28-23)

e.Each A.A.V. must be readily accessible.(3-28-23) f.

The cross-sectional area of venting must remain the same and mus t meet the largest required building drain.(3-28-23)

g.An A.A.V. may only be installed in accordance with the manufacturer’s installation standards as per ASSE 1051.(3-28-23)

h.An A.A.V. may not be used in an attic, crawl space, outside installation, or in connection with chemical or acid waste systems.(3-28-23)

47.Section 1002.3 Change of Direction. Trap arms may not exceed one hundred eighty (180) degrees of horizontal turn without the use of a cleanout.(3-28-23)

48.Section 1007.0 Trap Seal Protection. Delete section 1007.1 and replace with the following: Floor drains or similar traps directly connected to the drainage system and subject to infrequent use must be protected with a trap seal primer or other approved trap seal protection device, except where not deemed necessary for safety or sanitation by the Authority Having Jurisdiction. Trap seal primers must be accessible for maintenance.(3-28-23)

49.Section 1016.1 Discharge. Add the following to the end of section 1016.1: Floor drains installed in residential garages must be permitted to use the interceptor as the fixture trap.(3-28-23)

50.Section 1502.1 General. Add to this section the following paragraph: Plumbing for a gray water system from any fixture up to, but not to include the exterior irrigation system tank must be inspected by the Authority Having Jurisdiction. The Idaho Department of Environmental Quality (IDEQ) has jurisdiction to inspect and approve the installation of the exterior irrigation system tank and all piping therefrom to the point of disposal in accordance with IDAPA 58.01.03, “Individual/Subsurface Sewage Disposal Rules.” Gray water system location and design criteria requirements related to irrigation and leaching is determined in accordance with the requirements as established by the IDEQ.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.39.20.601 (Reserved)

24.01.01 Rules of the Board of Architects and Landscape Architects

IDAPA 24.01.01.000 Legal Authority

These rules are promulgated pursuant to Sections 54-306, 5 4-308, 54-313, 54-3003, 67-2614, 67-9406, and 67-9409, Idaho Code.(7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.01.01.001 Scope

These rules govern the practice of architecture and landscape architecture in Idaho.(7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.01.01.002 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.01.01.100 Licensure

01.Architect Requirements.

a.Approved Architectural Experience Program. The National Council of Architectural Registration Boards’ (NCARB) Architectural Experience Program (AXP).(7-1-24)

b.Satisfactory Experience In Lieu Of Education. Eight (8) years consisting of at least six (6) years of experience under the direct supervision of a licensed architect and the remaining two (2) years may be under the direct supervision of a licensed engineer who practices in the field of building construction as approved by the board.

c.Continuing Education. Beginning the second year of licensure, to renew, a licensed architect must complete, during the prior licensure period, and retain proof of completion of twelve (12) hours of approved continuing education germane to the practice of architecture as it relates to the health, safety, and welfare of the general public. Approved courses are those offered by providers approved by NCARB, the National Architectural Accreditation Board (NAAB), or the American Institute of Architects (AIA). A licensee may submit a request for Board approval of other courses.(7-1-24)

i.A licensee may carryover a maximum of six (6) hours of continuing education to meet the next year's continuing education requirement.(7-1-24)

02.Landscape Architect Requirements.(7-1-24)

a.Approved Education. A landscape architecture program accredited by the Landscape Architectural Accreditation Board (LAAB).(7-1-24)

b.Satisfactory Experience in Lieu of Education. Eight (8) years consisting of at least four (4) years of experience under the supervision of a licensed landscape architect, with the remainder being directly related to landscape architecture.(7-1-24)

c.Required Examination. Passage of the Landscape Architect Registration Examination administered by the Council of Landscape Architects Registration Boards (CLARB).(7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.01.01.101 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.01.01.200 Practice Standards

01.Architectural Intern. Only individuals who fall within the Section 54-303(2), Idaho Code, definition of “architectural intern” may represent themselves as an “architectural intern”.(7-1-24)

2. Architecture Firm Name. The firm name may only incorporate the names of individuals who are licensed architects, with the exception that a firm may continue to utilize the name of a retired or deceased formerlylicensed architect if the unlicensed status is clearly disclosed.(7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.01.01.201 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.01.01.400 Fees

01.Architects.

02.Landscape Architects.

IDAPA 24.01.01.401 (Reserved)

TYPE

AMOUNT

(Not to Exceed)

Application$25 License$50 annually Reinstatement$35 TYPE AMOUNT (Not to Exceed)

Application$75 License$125 annually Reinstatement$35

24.02.01 Rules of the State Athletic Commission

IDAPA 24.02.01.000 Legal Authority

These rules are promulgated pursuant to T itle 54, Chapter 4, Idaho Code.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.02.01.001 Scope

These rules are intended to provide clarification on the methods and restrictions of unarmed combat in Idaho.

IDAPA 24.02.01.002 Incorporation by Reference

Pursuant to Section 67-5229, Idaho Code, this chapter incorporates by reference the following documents available on the Commission’s website:(7-1-25)

01.Association of Boxing Commissions and Combative Sports Unified Rules of Boxing Amended 2016. This document can be accessed online here: https://www.abcboxing.com/unified-rules-boxing/.(7-1-25)

02.Association of Boxing Commissions and Combative Sports Unified Rules of Mixed Martial Arts. This document can be accessed online here: https://www.abcboxing.com/wp-content/uploads/2022/08/unifiedrules-mma-july-2022.pdf.(7-1-25)

03.Athlete Guide to the 2024 Prohibited List. Published by the World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA). Copyright date 2024. This document can be accessed online at: https://www.wada-ama.org/sites/default/ files/2023-09/2024list_en_final_22_september_2023.pdf.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.02.01.003 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.02.01.010 Definitions

01.Event.

A program of one (1) or more unarmed combat contests or exhibitions.(7-1-25)

a.An “amateur event” is an event in which the only combatants are amateur combatants.(7-1-25)

b.A “professional event” is an event in which the only combatants are professional combatants.

c.A “pro-am” is an event in which combatants include professional combatants and amateur combatants. Professional combatants may not compete against amateur combatants in “pro-am” events.(7-1-25)

02.Main Event. The headline or marquee contest or exhibition scheduled to occur at an event.

IDAPA 24.02.01.011 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.02.01.100 Licensing

01.Application for License.

Applicants will submit a complete, application to the Division for each of the following licenses:(7-1-25)

a.Combatant;(7-1-25)

b.Promoter;(7-1-25)

c.Matchmaker;(7-1-25)

d.Manager;(7-1-25)

e.Second, including a trainer;(7-1-25)

f.Ring Official; or(7-1-25)

g.Sanctioning permit for an event.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.02.01.101 Combatant

01.Age of Combatant. The Commission will review all complete applications for a combatant license so that the applicant’s experience and fitness may be considered before a license is issued, if the applicant has:

a.Not reached eighteen (18) years of age; or(7-1-25)

b.Reached thirty-six (36) years of age.(7-1-25)

c.Poor Vision. The Commission will not issue a license to engage in unarmed combat to any applicant who is found to be blind in one (1) eye or whose vision in one (1) eye is so poor that a physician recommends that no license be granted. No exceptions will be made.(7-1-25)

d.Cerebral Hemorrhage. Any person who has suffered a cerebral hemorrhage will not be issued a license.(7-1-25)

e.Serious Head Injuries. The Commission will review the application of any person who has suffered a serious head injury before a license is issued to that person.(7-1-25)

02.Additional Examination. Any licensed combatant who participates in an unsanctioned event, as determined by the Commission, will need to submit to a new physical or produce proof of medical clearance acceptable to the Commission.(7-1-25)

03.Blood Testing. The Commission will not issue a license to or allow an athlete to compete in an event, if the athlete, within the six (6) months immediately preceding the application for licensure or the event at which the licensee wishes to compete, has tested positive for the HIV virus, Hepatitis B Surface Antigen and Hepatitis C Antibody, or illegal drugs or other substances. Upon application for a license, the athlete will submit with the application a blood test report from a blood test conducted within the six (6) months preceding the application date. The blood test must have tested the athlete for HIV virus, Hepatitis B Surface Antigen, Hepatitis C Antibody, and illegal drugs and substances. Additionally, each combatant who is to compete in an event will, at the start of the event, provide the Commission with a blood test report from a blood test conducted within the six (6) months immediately preceding the event. The Commission may, in its discretion, request addition blood tests.(7-1-25)

04.Drug Abuse. The Commission will not issue a license to an athlete who has a recent history of drug abuse, without proof of participation in a recognized drug rehabilitation program and/or submission to urinalysis.(7-1-25)

05.Blood Testing and Five Panel Drug Test Results. Results must show blood concentrate percentages.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.02.01.102 Ability of Combatant

1. Ability to Compete. Before the Commission issues a combatant license to any person, the Commission must be satisfied of the person’s ability to compete.(7-1-25)

02.Questioned Ability. If a combatant’s ability to perform is questioned for any reason, the Commission may take action per Sections 54-406 or 67-2614, Idaho Code, regarding revocation of license and due process to determine:(7-1-25)

a.Whether the person’s license should be revoked; or(7-1-25)

b.Whether the person should be granted a license.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.02.01.103 Suspension

01.Medical Safety. Rin gside physicians may suspend a licensee for medical safety, as set forth in this chart. A ringside physician may additionally require proof of medical clearance for release of suspension:

02.Violation of Laws or Rules. A violation of another state’s laws or rules governing boxing, wrestling, martial arts, or any other sport which also exists in this state, shall be grounds for suspension of a combatant.(7-1-25)

03.Honoring Actions of Agencies in Other Jurisdictions. The Commission may honor the suspension actions of agencies in other jurisdictions which regulate boxing, wrestling, martial arts, or any other sport may suspend a combatant’s license in Idaho as determined by the Commission.(7-1-25)

04.Other. The Commission may also suspend for any other conduct which discredits boxing, wrestling, martial arts, or any other sport as determined by the Commission.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.02.01.104 Female Combatants

01.Limitation.

A female combatant will not engage in a contest with a male combatant.(7-1-25)

02.General Requirements. In addition to meeting such requirements of this chapter as are applicable to combatants generally, a female applicant will submit to pregnancy test prior to the contest.(7-1-25)

03.Addendum Requirement. A female combatant will, in addition to signing the contract, sign an addendum certifying that the combatant is not pregnant and that the contest.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.02.01.105 Health Insurance

The promoter may not require a participant to pay a dedu ctible associated with care provided under Section 54- 408(5), Idaho Code. If a participant injured during a contest or exhibition pays for medical, surgical or hospital care, the insurance proceeds must be paid to the participant or the participant’s beneficiaries for reimbursement for the payment.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.02.01.106 Surety Bond or Other Security

01.Requirement. Every promoter who applies for a sanctioning permit shall furnish a surety bond or other form of financial security to the Commission consistent with Section 54-408, Idaho Code.(7-1-25)

02.Various Locations. The promoter may apply one (1) bond or other form of financial security to multiple locations if only one (1) of the covered locations is scheduled for an event on any given calendar date.

03.Total Sum. Each bond or other form of financial security must be conditioned for the payment to the Commission of a sum equivalent to the total sale of tickets if the main event is neither held on the original date Technical Knockout (TKO)

Occurrence Loss of ConsciousnessSuspension 1None30 Days 1Less than one minute90 Days 1Greater than one minute180 Days 2 in 90 daysNone90 Days 2 in 90 daysLess than one minute180 Days 2 in 90 daysGreater than one minute360 Days 3 in 365 daysNone12 Months 3 in 365 daysRegardless of time18 Months advertised nor on a subsequent date fixed by the Commission.(7-1-25)

04.Sum Due. The sum is due within fifteen (15) days after default, to ensure reimbursement to the purchasers of tickets for the event, if the reimbursement of ticket holders is ordered by the Commission.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.02.01.107 Approval of Sanctioned Event Permits

01.Prior Approval.

A sanctioning permit to hold an event on a specific date, and a permit must be issued by the Commission before the event may be announced or advertised.(7-1-25)

02.Deadline. A complete application together with application fees, applicable bond amount, proof of insurance, and information regarding the combatants named in the main and semi-main contest must be received by the Commission no less than thirty (30) days prior to the date requested for the event named in the application.

Combatants named in contests may be changed at the discretion of the Commission.(7-1-25)

03.Cancellation. The failure of the promoter to notify the Commission of a cancellation at least seven (7) calendar days before the date for the program will result in the forfeiture of all fees and will be grounds for disciplinary action.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.02.01.108 Arrangement of Contest for Promoter

A Contest may not be arranged on behalf of a promoter except by a licensed matchmaker.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.02.01.109 Licenses Retained

No person will be retained by a promoter unless currently licensed by the Commission.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.02.01.110 Manager Acting as Second

A manager licensed by the Commission may act as a second without having a second’s license.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.02.01.111 Requirements for License as a Ring Official

01.Qualifications.

To qualify for a license as a ring official of contests, an applicant will:(7-1-25)

a.Be at least twenty-one (21) years of age. The Commission may, for good cause shown, lower the minimum age limit for a particular applicant to eighteen (18) years of age;(7-1-25)

b.Submit a record of conviction of a crime for Commission review in compliance with Section 67- 9411, Idaho Code;(7-1-25)

c.Have had at least one (1) year experience in amateur or professional contest as a ring official, or other experience as approved by the Commission;(7-1-25)

d.Submit verifications from two (2) persons of proficiency as a ring official; and(7-1-25)

e. Each referee licensed by the Commission will be required to undergo an eye examination conducted by an optometrist or ophthalmologist. The Commission may request the licensee to produce all records of the examination. The Commission may require each referee license by the Commission to submit to a pre-fight physical.(7-1-25)

f.In lieu of the above qualifications, the Commission may accept satisfactory evidence of equivalent qualifications possessed by an applicant who is currently licensed in another state or country.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.02.01.112 Officials of Events

01.Officials Described.

The officials of events are the referee, judges, timekeeper, physician, and the Commission’s agents.(7-1-25)

02.Commission Involvement. The Commission will have final approval of all officials. The promoter may select the announcer subject to the Commission’s approval.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.02.01.113 Referees

01.Protests. If any licensee of the Commiss ion protests the assignment of a referee, the protesting licensee will be given a hearing by the Commission if time permits. If time does not permit, the matter will be heard by two (2) Commissioners in order to make such disposition of the protest as the facts may justify. Protests not made in a timely manner may be summarily rejected.(7-1-25)

02.Physical Examination. Each referee licensed by the Commission may be required to submit to or provide proof of a complete physical examination, including an eye examination.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.02.01.114 Judges

01.Selection.

The Commission will approve the judges for the main event in championship events and for any other events which the Commission considers to be special events.(7-1-25)

02.Protests. If any licensee of the Commission protests the assignment of a judge, the protesting license will be given a hearing by the Commission if time permits. If time does not permit, the matter will be heard by two (2) Commissioners in order to make such disposition of the protest as the facts may justify. Protests not made in a timely manner may be summarily rejected.(7-1-25)

03.Station of Judges. Judges will be stationed ringside at places approved by the Commission.

04.Physical Examination. Each judge licensed by the Commission may be required to submit to or provide proof of a complete physical examination, including an eye examination.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.02.01.115 Discipline

01.Grounds for Discipline.

The Commission may take disciplinary action including denial, suspension, or revocation of a license, or other appropriate action, against an applicant or licensee for:(7-1-25)

a.Violation of the laws or rules of the Commission.(7-1-25)

b.A felony conviction relevant to licensure with the Commission;(7-1-25)

c.Engaging in illegal bookmaking;(7-1-25)

d.Engaging in any illegal gambling activity;(7-1-25)

e.Engaging in any fraud or misrepresentation in the application process;(7-1-25)

f.A recent history of drug abuse or failing a drug test or refuses to submit to a drug test;(7-1-25)

g.Being under suspension from any other commission;(7-1-25)

h.Failure to report to the Commission a request or suggestion that a contest not be conducted honestly.(7-1-25)

i.Engaging in any activity or practice which is detrimental to the best interests of a contest regulated by the Commission.(7-1-25)

j.Failing to appear to an agreed-upon event without written good cause from a physician designated by the Commission prior to weigh in; or(7-1-25)

k.Allowing any person under suspension to take part as a participant or in arranging or conducting matches or exhibitions.(7-1-25)

02.Suspension of Revocation. Licensees with suspended or revoked licenses of this state or another state may not:(7-1-25)

a.Participate in contests;(7-1-25)

b.Participate in matchmaking or holding contests;(7-1-25)

c.Enter dressing rooms at the premises where any program of is being held;(7-1-25)

d.Sit within six (6) rows of seats from the ring platform;(7-1-25)

e.Approach within six (6) rows of seats from the ring platform; (7-1-25)

f.Communicate in the arena or near the dressing rooms with any of the principals in the contests, their managers, their seconds, or the referee, whether directly or by a messenger, during any program.(7-1-25)

03.Removal from Premises. Persons who violate the above rule may be ejected from the arena or building where the program is being held, and thereafter, are barred entirely from all premises used for contests or exhibitions while the programs are being held.(7-1-25)

04.Disciplinary Action for Use of Dishonest Methods. Any license revoked for dishonesty, influencing the outcome of any contest, or for conduct reflecting serious discredit upon the sport, will not be eligible to be reinstated for six (6) months for the first offense and permanently in the event of a second violation.(7-1-25)

05.Temporary Suspension. A manager under temporary suspension forfeits all managerial rights related to any licensed combatant during any sanctioned event. A combatant, matchmaker, or promoter who engages with a suspended manager may be indefinitely suspended.(7-1-25)

06.Continuation. A combatant whose manager is suspended may compete independently and sign match contracts. Promoters may not pay a suspended manager or their agent, but must pay the combatant in full.

IDAPA 24.02.01.116 Amateur Athletic Sanctioning Organizations

The Commission, in its sole discretion, may approve an entity as an officially recognized amateur athletic sanctioning organization that may sanction amateur events which:(7-1-25)

01.Application. Submits an application on a Commission approved form.(7-1-25)

02.Minimum Experience. Can demonstrate that its officers or principals have a minimum of three (3) years total combined amateur or professional experience in at least three (3) of the following areas:(7-1-25)

a.Referee;(7-1-25)

b.Promoter;(7-1-25)

c.Judge;(7-1-25)

d.Inspector; or(7-1-25)

e.Training and instruction at an established business.(7-1-25)

03.Authorized Business. Is duly registered with the Idaho Secretary of State as a business authorized to work in Idaho, including a current tax registration through the Department of Revenue.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.02.01.117 Fees

IDAPA 24.02.01.118 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.02.01.200 Physician Qualifications

A physician is an individual licensed under the laws of this state to engage in the general practice of medicine or osteopathic medicine. A physician will also have training or experience in combative sports.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.02.01.201 Physician's Determination of Fitness of Combatants and Referee –

CER TIFICATION – REPORT.

01.Determination of Physician.

The physician who examines any combatant or referee who has contracted to participate in an event will determine that a combatant or referee will not participate in the event and must immediately report such finding to the promoter and the Commission if:(7-1-25)

a.The combatant is unfit for competition; or(7-1-25)

b.The referee is unfit for officiating.(7-1-25)

02.Written Certification. If the examining physician finds that the combatants and referees are in good physical condition, the physician will, one (1) hour before the start of the event, give written certification of those findings to the Commission.(7-1-25)

03.Physician's Written Report. Within twenty-four (24) hours after the event ends, the physician will mail or deliver to the Commission his written report on every licensee he examined. The report will be on a form furnished by the Commission.(7-1-25)

04.Non-Certification. In the event a licensee is determined to be unfit to compete or officiate, they shall be suspended until a physician certifies that they are fit for further competition or officiating.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.02.01.202 Combatant’s Report of Own Illness or Injury – Examination – Fee

01.Combatant’s Report of Non-Participation to Commission.

When a licensed combatant is unable to take part in a contest for which they are under contract because of injury or illness, they will immediately report the fact to the Commission and submit to an examination by a physician designated by the Commission.(7-1-25)

02.Payment of Fees to Physician. The fee for the physician’s examination will be paid by the promoter if they have requested the examination, otherwise the fee will be paid by the combatant.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.02.01.203 Preparations to Stop Hemorrhaging

The Commission will periodically review the preparations available to stop hemorrhaging. Avitene and Thrombin are FEE TYPEAMOUNTRENEWAL Professional Combatant$150.00$150.00 Amateur Combatant$100.00$100.00 Non-combatant$150.00$150.00 Matchmaker$250.00$250.00 Promoter$1,000.00$750.00 Sanction permit$200.00$200.00 Ring official$150.00$150.00 the only Commission approved preparations to stop hemorrhaging.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.02.01.204 Prohibited Substances

Prohibited substances as incorporated by reference in Rule 002.03 are regulated by the Commission in the following man ner:(7-1-25)

01.Urinalysis. A combatant will submit to a urinalysis or chemical test before or after a contest if the Commission directs him to do so.(7-1-25)

02.Suspension. A Combatant who tests positive for a prohibited substance in quantities prohibited by the incorporated document will forfeit purse.(7-1-25)

03.Procedure for Testing for Prohibited Substance(s).(7-1-25)

a.The Commission reserves the right to conduct random drug testing. Combatants may be tested by urine specimen or blood test at the discretion of the Commission. Such drug testing may be overseen by a Commission-approved Physician, including all collection of samples, at the Commission’s discretion.(7-1-25)

b.From the time a test is requested to the time a sample is collected, only water may be consumed.

c.The physician or agent of the Commission will transport the sample to the testing laboratory while maintaining the chain of custody.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.02.01.205 Percentage of Gate Receipts to Combatant

Each combatant working on a percentage bas is will be paid on the basis of the net receipts of each exhibition after state and federal taxes, ring expenses, and the value of complimentary tickets have been deducted.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.02.01.206 Financial Conflicts of Interest

01.Sureties.

A combatant may not have a promoter or any of its members, stockholders, officials, matchmakers or assistant matchmakers act directly or indirectly as manager, or hold any financial interest in the management of the combatant’s earnings.(7-1-25)

02.Advances. A promoter licensed by the Commission will not, directly or indirectly, make any loan or advance to any combatant or manager, unless the promoter has the express written permission of the Commission for that action.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.02.01.207 Payments

01.Generally.

All payments must be made in legal tender including bank checks and transfers, unless specified by contract with approval of the Commission.(7-1-25)

02.Combatants. Consistent with Section 54-402, Idaho Code, promoters may not compensate amateurs for participating in or being associated with events, including paying an amateur to sell tickets or merchandise or provide services related to an event.(7-1-25)

03.Promoters. Promoters may withhold from a combatant’s purse money, if agreed upon in writing and approved by the Commission, up to ten percent (10%) of the purse. Reconciliation of these expenses and payment of the remaining purse shall be made to the Commission within seven (7) working days after the contest, and written approval of the combatant. The Commission may grant an extension of up to thirty (30) days for good cause shown.(7-1-25)

04.Manager's Share. A manager’s share of the purse may be deducted and paid directly to the manager if the contract so specifies.(7-1-25)

05.Timing. Checks or cash shall be released to entitled persons immediately after the contest of exhibition, or after the combatant’s percentage of net receipts is determined, unless otherwise ordered by the Commission.(7-1-25)

06.Alternative Payment. The Commission may permit alternative forms of payment, subject to a written request from the promoter at least thirty (30) days before the contest, detailing the proposed method of payment and showing good cause for a waiver of the Commission’s provisions. The promoter shall comply with all Commission requirements and procedural directives if the request is granted.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.02.01.208 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.02.01.299 Changes to Main and Semi-Main Events

01.Notice.

The promoter must request Commission approval of any change, including substitutions, in an announced or advertised program for the main and semi-main events at least one (1) week before the event. Notice of any change or substitution must also be conspicuously posted at the box office of the premises where the program is to be held and announced from the ring before the opening contest.(7-1-25)

02.Refunds. If such change to the main or semi-main events occur and any patron desires a refund of the ticket price, the promoter will provide a refund upon presentation of the ticket or the ticket stub at the box office before the event is scheduled to begin. The box office must remain open a reasonable length of time to redeem such tickets.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.02.01.300 Program for Charity

01.Application.

A promoter may present an event for charity upon application to the Commission.

The Commission will review any application that includes the name of the benefiting charity and EIN establishing 501(c)(3) or (6) status before issuing a sanctioning permit for the contest or exhibition at the Commission's sole discretion. The Commission may waive any rules within this chapter, including fees, for charity events.(7-1-25)

02.Certified, Itemized Statement. Within five (5) business days after such a program is held, the promoter will furnish to the Commission a certified itemized statement of the receipts and expenditures in connection with the program and the net amount paid to the charitable fund or organization. If the promoter fails to file the statement within the prescribed time, the Commission:(7-1-25)

a.May suspend or revoke the promoter’s license; and(7-1-25)

b.May prohibit the promoter from holding any program for charitable purposes.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.02.01.301 Beverage Containers

All drinks at an event will be dispensed in paper or plastic cups.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.02.01.302 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.02.01.400 Tickets

01.Selling Tickets. Prom oters may not sell tickets beyond the seating capacity of a venue; no standing room sections are allowed. All attendees must present a ticket, except:(7-1-25)

a.A Commission designee or Commission member;(7-1-25)

b.Persons designated by the Commission for official duty;(7-1-25)

c.Officials attending under provisions of state law or these rules;(7-1-25)

d.The principals, managers, and corners involved in the contest;(7-1-25)

e.The emergency personnel on duty for the contest;(7-1-25)

f.Press; and(7-1-25)

g.Persons arranged by the promoter or employed by the venue for other duties.(7-1-25)

02.Complimentary Tickets. Pursuant to Section 54-411(2), Idaho Code, complimentary tickets are limited to two percent (2%) of the seats.(7-1-25)

03.Revenue. All revenues from the contest must be reported to the Commission within thirty (30) days of the contest. The state fee on those gross receipts will be delivered to the Commission with this report. To comply with this section:(7-1-25)

a.Licensees cannot resell or enter into a contract to resell tickets;(7-1-25)

b.A promoter may not issue a ticket to any person for the purpose of readmission due to leaving the arena and later reentering the arena without the Commission’s written permission; and(7-1-25)

c.Requests for changes in ticket prices or dates of programs will be made in writing to the Commission for approval.(7-1-25)

04.Inventory of Tickets. Promoters must prepare an inventory of all tickets and send that inventory to the Commission within thirty (30) days of any contest.(7-1-25)

05.Records. The promoter must maintain records related to tickets and revenues for at least six (6) months.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.02.01.401 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.02.01.500 Postponement of Program

01.Prior Approval.

A promoter may only postpone a sanctioned event with approval from the Commission.(7-1-25)

02.No Fault Postponement. If a postponement of a sanctioned event becomes necessary through no fault of the promoter, the Commission will grant an extension of the contracts and set a new date.(7-1-25)

03.Limitations on Postponement. A promoter may not call off a sanctioned event without one (1) week prior written approval of the Commission. A small advance sale is not a legitimate reason for postponement.

Indoor boxing and wrestling programs may not be called off or canceled on account of storms or for any other reason not expressed in this chapter except as approved by the Commission.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.02.01.501 Medical Preparedness

A promoter must contact the local fire department prior to any event to ensure adequate medical readiness coverage is present for the event.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.02.01.502 Sanitation

Each promoter is responsible for and m ust correct any violation of the regulations of the Commission or the public health district regarding the sanitary condition of dressing rooms, showers, water bottles, towels or other equipment, including prior to, during, and after conclusion of an event.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.02.01.503 Authorized Persons in Dressing Rooms

01.Authorized Persons to Enter. On the day of a contest only the following people are allowed in the dressing room of a combatant:(7-1-25)

a.The combatant’s manager;(7-1-25)

b.The combatant’s seconds;(7-1-25)

c.Any authorized agent of the promoter; and(7-1-25)

d.Members of the Commission or its agent.(7-1-25)

02.Other Persons. The promoter will furnish a doorman or doormen at the entrance to the dressing rooms to enforce this section.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.02.01.504 Equipment of the Chief Second

01.Equipment.

The chief second will be equipped with:(7-1-25)

a.A clear plastic water bottle;(7-1-25)

b.A bucket containing ice;(7-1-25)

c.A solution of a kind approved by the Commission for stopping hemorrhaging;(7-1-25)

d.Adhesive tape;(7-1-25)

e.Gauze;(7-1-25)

f.Scissors; and(7-1-25)

g.One (1) extra mouthpiece.(7-1-25)

02.Ammonia. No ammonia may be used in the ring.(7-1-25)

03.Inspection. The ring physician or the Commission may at any time inspect the contents of the chief second’s first-aid kit.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.02.01.505 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.02.01.600 Weighing in of Combatants

01.Attendees and Scales Used at Weigh-In. Each combatant will be weighed in the presence of the public, the other combatant, the Commission and an official representing the promoter, on scales approved by the Commission at any place designated by the Commission.(7-1-25)

02.Attire. The combatant will have all weights stripped from his body before they are weighed in, but they may wear shorts.(7-1-25)

03.Press Attendance. Press who provide official identification will be admitted to each final weighing in of a combatant.(7-1-25)

04.Security. The owner or operator of the premises in which the weighing in is held will provide adequate security for all those present.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.02.01.601 Combatants Must Report

Each combatant will report to the Commission in the dressing rooms at least one (1) hour before their scheduled time of the first match.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.02.01.602 Costume and Equipment

01.Costume. Each combatant on a program will provide the Commission approved ring costume.

02.Fit. The trunks must be loose fitting and made of a lightweight cloth. The belt of the trunks must not extend above the waist line.(7-1-25)

03.Other Equipment. Each combatant will wear:(7-1-25)

a.A mouthpiece which has been individually fitted; and(7-1-25)

b.An abdominal cup.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.02.01.603 Combatant's Physical Appearance

01.Grease or Foreign Substances.

The excessive use of grease or any other foreign substance may not be used on the face of a combatant. The referees or the Commission will cause any excessive grease or foreign substance to be removed.(7-1-25)

02.Hair. The Commission will determine whether head or facial hair presents any hazard to the safety of the combatant or their opponent or will interfere with the supervision and conduct of the contest.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.02.01.604 Physician – Suitable Place to Examine Combatant – Fee – Emergency

TREA

TMENT.

01.Suitable Examination Place.

The promoter will provide the physician designated by the Commission a suitable place to examine each combatant.(7-1-25)

02.Fees. The physician is entitled to receive a fee for their services at a bout.(7-1-25)

03.Emergency Treatment. The physician will give any injured combatant temporary or emergency treatment in the arena or dressing room and no additional fee may be charged.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.02.01.605 Continuous Presence of Physician at Ringside

01.Presence of Physician at Ringside.

The physician designated by the Commission will sit at the immediate ringside at every event. A contest may not proceed unless the physician is seated at ringside. The physician must not leave until released by the Commission.(7-1-25)

02.Injury to Combatant During Round. When a combatant appears to have been injured during the course of a round, their manager or second cannot attempt to render aid before the physician has had an opportunity to examine them.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.02.01.606 Procedure for Use of Scorecards

01.Scorecards. The Commission will give scorecards to each judge before the start of the contest.

02.Scoring by Judges. The judges will score each round of the contest on an individual scorecard and sign it. The scorekeeper will pick up the scorecard from each judge and turn in the scorecards at the Commission’s desk at the end of the contest.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.02.01.607 Referee's Instructions to Combatants

Before the contest, the referee will ask the combatant the name of their chief second, who will be in charge of any assistant seconds during the contest. The referee will call combatants together before each contest for final instructions, accompanied only by their chief second.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.02.01.608 Limitations on Seconds

01.Number of Seconds. N o combatant will have more than three (3) seconds except that in a contest for a world title the Commission may authorize four (4) seconds.(7-1-25)

02.Excessive Use of Water. Any excessive or undue spraying or throwing of water on any combatant by a second between rounds is prohibited.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.02.01.609 Persons Allowed in Ring

No persons other than the combatants and the referee may be in the ring during the progress of a round.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.02.01.610 Unfair Practices – Duties of Referees

01.Enforcing the Rules.

A referee is responsible for enforcing the rules of the contest and cannot permit unfair practices that may cause injury to a combatant.(7-1-25)

02.Warnings. Referees will warn the combatants whenever they are committing fouls.(7-1-25)

03.Deducting Points. If a combatant persists in committing fouls after a warning, the referee may deduct points from or disqualify them.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.02.01.611 Stopping of Contest – One-Sided Contest

– RISK OF INJURY – EXAMINATION BY

PHYSICIAN.

01.One-Sided Contested.

The referee may stop a contest at any stage if they consider it too one-sided or if either combatant is in such a condition that to continue might subject him to serious injury.(7-1-25)

02.Risk of Injury and Examination by Physician. If a combatant sustains any injury concerning to the referee, the referee will call the physician into the ring to examine the combatant. The physician will give their opinion to the referee before the referee renders a decision in the matter.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.02.01.612 Stopping of Contest – Combatant Not Honestly Competing

If the referee decides a combatant is no t intelligently defending themself, they may stop the contest before its scheduled completion, disqualify the combatant and recommend the purse of that combatant be held pending investigation by the Commission. The announcer will then inform the audience that no decision has been rendered.

IDAPA 24.02.01.613 Failure of Combatant to Resume

A combatant may not leave the ring during any one (1) minute rest period between rounds. If any combatant fails or refuses to resume the contest when the bell sounds signaling the commencement of the next round, the referee will award a decision of technical knockout to their opponent as of the round which has last been finished, unless the circumstances indicate to the referee the need for investigation or punitive action, in which event the referee will not give a decision and will recommend the purse or purses of either or both combatants to be withheld.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.02.01.614 Procedure When Combatant Is Knocked Out

A combatant who has been knocked out will be kept in a prone position until they have recovered. Except for the referee or chief second w ho may remove the mouthpiece, no one may touch them until the ring physician enters the ring and attends to them.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.02.01.615 Change of Decision in Contest

The Commission will not change a decision rendered at the end of any contest unless the combatant files an appeal with the Commission providing documentation that demonstrates:(7-1-25)

01.Collusion. Collusion affecting the result of the contest.(7-1-25)

02.Error in Scoring. The compilation of scorecards of the judges showing an error which shows that the decision was given to the wrong combatant.(7-1-25)

03.Error in Interpretation of Rules. As a result of an error in interpreting a provision of this chapter, the referee has rendered an incorrect decision, or(7-1-25)

04.Failure of Drug Test. The Commission determines that there was a violation of Section 205.

IDAPA 24.02.01.616 Physician's Report to Commission After Contest

On the report which the Commission-designated physician files after a contest, they shall list each case in which a combatant was injured during the contest, or applied for medical aid after the contest.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.02.01.617 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.02.01.700 General Rules Not Incorporated by Reference

01.Use of Official Rules for Art.

Any rules not incorporated by reference must be submitted to the Commission for approval before the Commission will issue a sanctioning permit for the contest or exhibition at the Commission’s sole discretion.(7-1-25)

02.Gloves. For main and semi-main events, gloves will be in new condition and substantially similar for each combatant.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.02.01.701 Suspension of Mma Contest for Unforeseen Reasons

01.Unforeseen Reasons. If a con test has to be suspended for any reason other than the actions of the combatants, the referee will have the clock stopped and attend to the issue. The referee, Commission or Commission’s representative will decide the length of time allotted to address the issue. All reasonable efforts are made to resume the contest as soon as possible. It is expected that the responsible party or parties make a true effort to resolve the issue.(7-1-25)

02.Suspicious Circumstances. If the contest is unexpectedly stopped under suspicious circumstances, all or part of the following actions may take place:(7-1-25)

a.If a combatant or his corner is involved, the offending combatant may be disqualified.(7-1-25)

b.The combatant may be subject to investigation and discipline in the event of a violation of these rules.(7-1-25)

c.In certain circumstances the matter may be referred to the appropriate law enforcement agency or the courts, or both.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.02.01.702 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.02.01.800 Boxing – Rules

A licensed combatant in a boxing contest must adhere t o the Unified Rules of the Association of Boxing Commissions and Combative Sports Unified Boxing Rules.(7-1-25)

01.The Association of Boxing Commissions and Combative Sports. The Commission adopts the Unified Boxing Rules of the Association of Boxing Commissions and Combative Sports as the official Rules of the Idaho Athletic Commission for boxing.(7-1-25)

02.Weights and Classes of Boxing Combatants. The classes and weights for each class are shown in the following schedule:(7-1-25)

a.Strawweight – up to one hundred five (105) pounds.(7-1-25)

b.Light-Flyweight – over one hundred five (105) to one hundred eight (108) pounds.(7-1-25)

c.Flyweight – over one hundred eight (108) to one hundred twelve (112) pounds.(7-1-25)

d.Super Flyweight – over one hundred twelve (112) to one hundred fifteen (115) pounds.(7-1-25)

e.Bantamweight – over one hundred fifteen (115) to one hundred eighteen (118) pounds.(7-1-25)

f.Super Bantamweight – over one hundred eighteen (118) to one hundred twenty-two (122) pounds.

g.Featherweight – over one hundred twenty-two (122) to one hundred twenty-six (126) pounds.

h.Super Featherweight – over one hundred twenty-six (126) to one hundred thirty (130) pounds.

i.Lightweight – over one hundred thirty (130) to one hundred thirty-five (135) pounds.(7-1-25)

j.Super Lightweight – over one hundred thirty-five (135) to one hundred forty (140) pounds.

k.Welterweight – over one hundred forty (140) to one hundred forty-seven (147) pounds.(7-1-25)

l.Super Welterweight – over one hundred forty-seven (147) to one hundred fifty-four (154) pounds.

m.Middleweight – over one hundred fifty-four (154) to one hundred sixty (160) pounds.(7-1-25)

n.Super Middleweight – over one hundred sixty (160) to one hundred sixty-eight (168) pounds.

o.Light-Heavyweight – over one hundred sixty-eight (168) to one hundred seventy-five (175)

p.Cruiserweight – over one hundred seventy-five (175) to two hundred (200) pounds.(7-1-25)

q.Heavyweight – all over two hundred (200) pounds.(7-1-25)

03.Exceeding Weight Allowances. No contest may be scheduled and no combatant may engage in a boxing contest without the approval of the Commission if the difference in weight between combatants exceeds the allowance shown in the following schedule:(7-1-25)

a.Up to one hundred eighteen (118) pounds – not more than three (3) pounds.(7-1-25)

b.One hundred eighteen (118) to one hundred twenty-six (126) pounds – not more than five (5)

c.One hundred twenty-six (126) to one hundred thirty-five (135) pounds – not more than seven (7)

d.One hundred thirty-five (135) to one hundred forty-seven (147) pounds – not more than nine (9)

e.One hundred forty-seven (147) to one hundred sixty (160) pounds – not more than eleven (11)

f.One hundred sixty (160) to one hundred seventy-five (175) – not more than twelve (12) pounds.

g.One hundred seventy-five (175) to one hundred ninety-five (195) pounds – not more than twenty (20) pounds.(7-1-25)

h.One hundred ninety-five (195) pounds and over – no limit.(7-1-25)

04.Licensing Exemption. Amateur Boxing Organizations that meet the conditions set forth within Section 54-406(3)(b), Idaho Code, are considered exempt from the licensing requirements set forth in these rules.

05.Boxing Gloves. The gloves used in a boxing contest must meet the following requirements:

a.All gloves will be examined by the Commission and the referee. The Commission or referee may require the examined gloves to be discarded and replaced with gloves acceptable to the Commission.(7-1-25)

b.The gloves for every main event will be new, of the same brand for both combatants, furnished by the promoter, and of the size specified by the Commission.(7-1-25)

c.Each combatant will wear gloves that are not less than eight (8) ounces and not more than ten (10) ounces in weight except that the Commission will set the weight of gloves to be used in a championship fight. Eight (8) ounce gloves will be used for all weight classes through welterweight (one hundred forty-seven (147) lbs). Super welterweight (above one hundred forty-seven (147) lbs) and above must use ten (10) ounce gloves.(7-1-25)

06.Bandaging of Combatant's Hands. Bandages may not exceed one (1) winding of surgeon’s adhesive tape, not over one and one-half (1 1/2) inches wide, placed directly on the hand to protect the part of the hand near the wrists. The tape may cross the back of the hand twice but may not extend within three-fourths (3/4) inch of the knuckles when the hand is clenched to make a fist.(7-1-25)

a.Each combatant will use soft surgical bandage not over two (2) inches wide, held in place by not more than six (6) feet of surgeon’s adhesive tape for each hand. Up to one (1) fifteen (15) yard roll of bandage may be used to complete the wrappings for each hand. Strips of tape may be used between the fingers to hold down the bandages.(7-1-25)

b.Bandages must be adjusted in the dressing room in the presence of the Commission and both combatants. Either combatant may waive this privilege.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.02.01.801 Boxing Ring

A boxing ring will meet the following requirements:(7-1-25) 01.

Ring Dimensions. The ring will be not less than sixteen (16) feet square not more than twenty-four (24) feet square within the ropes. The ring floor will extend at least eighteen (18) inches beyond the ropes. The ring floor will be padded with Ensolite or another similar closed-cell foam. Padding will extend beyond the ring ropes and over the edge of the platform, with a top covering of canvas, duck or similar material tightly stretched and laced to the ring platform. Material that tends to gather in lumps or ridges must not be used.(7-1-25)

02.Ring Platform. The ring platform will not be more than four (4) feet above the floor of the building, and will be provided with suitable steps for use of combatants. Ring posts will be of metal, not more than three (3) inches in diameter, extending from the floor of the building to a height of fifty-eight (58) inches above the ring floor. Rings posts will be at least eighteen (18) inches away from the ropes.(7-1-25)

03.Ropes. There will be four (4) padded ring ropes, not less than one (1) inch in diameter and wrapped in soft material. The lower rope will be eighteen (18) inches above the ring floor and offset four (4) inches to the outside of the ring from the ropes above.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.02.01.802 Knockdown of Boxing Combatant – Procedure for Counting

01.Knockdown.

When a combatant is knocked down, the referee will order the opponent to retire to the farthest neutral corner of the ring, and immediately begin the count over the combatant who is down. If the opponent fails to stay in the farthest neutral corner, the referee will cease counting until he has returned to his corner and will then go on with the count from the point at which it was interrupted. The referee indicate the passing of the seconds. A combatant is knocked down, no combatant may be allowed to resume boxing until the referee has finished counting to eight (8) and is assured that the combatant just arisen is in condition to continue.(7-1-25)

02.Knock-Out. When a combatant is knocked out, the referee will perform a full ten (10) second count unless, in the judgment of the referee, the safety for the combatant would be jeopardized by such a count. If the combatant is still down when the referee calls the count of ten (10), the referee will indicate there has been a knockout.(7-1-25)

03.Both Combatants Down. If both combatants go down at the same time, the count will be continued as long as one (1) is still down. If both combatants remain down until the count of ten (10), the contest is stopped and the decision is a technical draw.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.02.01.803 Resuming Count on Boxing Combatant

If a knockdown occurs before the normal termination of a roun d and the boxer who is down stands up before the count of ten (10) is reached and then falls down immediately without being struck, the referee will resume the count where it was left off. If the combatant is on the ring platform outside the ropes, he must enter the ring immediately where he may resume the contest or take a count. The referee will start the count as soon as the combatant who had fallen is back in the ring.(7-1-25)

01.Stalling Outside Ropes. If the combatant stalls for time outside the ropes, the referee will start the count without waiting for him to reenter the ring.(7-1-25)

02.Combatant to Neutral Corner. When one (1) combatant has fallen through the ropes, the other combatant will retire to the farthest corner and stay there until ordered to continue the contest by the referee. (7-1-25)

03.Penalty. A combatant who deliberately wrestles or throws an opponent from the ring, or who hits when he is partly out of the ring and is prevented by the ropes from assuming a position of defense, may be penalized.

IDAPA 24.02.01.804 Boxing Combatant Deemed Down

A boxer is deemed to be down when any part of his body other than his feet is on the floor or when he is prevented from falling to the floor by the ropes.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.02.01.805 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.02.01.900 Wrestling – Special License for a Contest

Unless a special license has been obtained, all professional wrestling programs under the supervision and authority of the Commission are only exhibitions and not contests, and those exhibitions cannot be advertised or announced as contests.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.02.01.901 Wrestling – Disqualification for Dangerous Tactics

01.Restrictions.

The referee will not permit physically dangerous conduct or tactics. Any wrestler who fails to discontinue those tactics, after being warned by the referee, will be disqualified and have their purse held up and paid to the Commission.(7-1-25)

02.Professionalism. A referee cannot participate in an exhibition to the extent that the Commission or the referee is made to look ridiculous.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.02.01.902 Licensee's Duties at Wrestling Exhibition

01.Conduct.

The referee, promoter and their agents, attaches and employees, and participants in any wrestling exhibition will maintain peace, order and decency in the conduct of the exhibition.(7-1-25)

02.No Abusive Behavior. A person involved in such exhibition will not abuse the referee or an official of the Commission.(7-1-25)

03.Decision and Appeal. The Commission will hear any complaint about a referee or an official.

IDAPA 24.02.01.903 Wrestlers – Physical Examination

Any person applying for or renewing a license as a wrestler will first be examined by a physician approved by the Commission to establish physical and mental fitness. A wrestler will be furnished a list of approved examining physicians by the Commission. The Commission may order the examination of any wrestler for the purpose of determining whether the wrestler is fit and qualified to engage in further exhibitions.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.02.01.904 (Reserved)

24.23.01 Rules of the Speech, Hearing and Communication Services Licensure Board

IDAPA 24.23.01.000 Legal Authority

These rules are promulgated pursuant to Section 54-2910, Idaho Code.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.23.01.001 Scope

These rules govern speech, hearing, and communication se rvices in Idaho.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.23.01.002 Incorporation by Reference

The current and updated document titled “Nat ional Association of the Deaf (NAD)-Registry of Interpreters for the Deaf, Inc. (RID) Code of Professional Conduct,” copyright 2005 by the Registry of Interpreters for the Deaf, is herein adopted and incorporated by reference and is available on the RID website: https://rid.org/ethics/code-ofprofessional-conduct. (3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.23.01.003 Definitions

01.Audiology Support Personnel. Unl icensed natural persons who work under the direction and supervision of an audiologist who is licensed in accordance with Title 54, Chapter 29, Idaho Code, and is engaged in the practice of audiology.(3-28-23)

02.Contact Hours. A contact hour is a measurement of the licensee's participation in an area of study germane to the practice for which the license is issued as approved by the Board. One (1) contact hour requires one (1) hour of participation in a Board approved continuing education program, excluding meals and breaks. One (1) hour equals one clock hour for purposes of obtaining continuing education credit.(3-28-23)

03.Direct Client Contact. Assessment, diagnosis, evaluation, screening, treatment, report writing, family or client consultation, counseling, or any combination of these activities.(3-28-23)

04.Dual Licensure. The status of a person who holds more than one (1) license under Title 54, Chapter 29, Idaho Code.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.23.01.004 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.23.01.100 Licensure

01.Audiologist Licensure.

a.Approved Examination. Pass the audiology examination given by PRAXIS.(3-28-23)

b.Approved Experience. Successfully complete a supervised academic clinical practicum as part of a doctoral program that satisfies Section 54-2912(b), Idaho Code, or supervised postgraduate experience that is substantially equivalent to such a practicum. An applicant who has insufficient supervised experience as part of the doctoral program may obtain the necessary experience under a provisional permit as provided in these rules.

02.Speech Language Pathologist Licensure.(3-28-23)

a.Approved Examination. Pass an examination in speech-language pathology given by PRAXIS.

b.Approved Supervised Experience. Satisfactorily complete the supervised postgraduate experience approved by the Board as follows:(3-28-23)

i.Complete a minimum of three hundred fifty (350) hours of clinical practicum under the supervision of a licensed speech language pathologist.(3-28-23)

ii.Complete thirty-six (36) weeks of supervised clinical fellowship.(3-28-23)

03.Speech Language Pathologist Assistant Licensure. All applicants for licensure as a speechlanguage pathologist assistant must comply with the following education and examination requirements:(3-28-23)

a.Approved Education. An associate degree from a nationally accredited school of speech-language pathology with a curriculum approved by the Board.(3-28-23)

b.Approved Examination. Pass an examination in speech-language pathology assistant offered by the American Speech-Language Hearing Association.(3-28-23)

c.Supervision. A speech-language pathologist assistant must work under the supervision of a speechlanguage pathologist.(3-28-23)

04.Hearing Instrument Specialist Licensure.(3-28-23)

a.Approved Education. A high school diploma or GED. (3-28-23)

b.Approved Examination. Pass the International Hearing Instrument Studies examination and the practical examination, or equivalent approved by the Board.(7-1-26)

05.Sign Language Interpreter Licensure. (3-28-23)

a.Education. Possess a high school diploma or the equivalent. (3-28-23)

b.Examination or certification. Pass written and practical or performance competency examination approved by the Board or hold a current certification approved by the Board.(3-28-23)

i.Written examinations approved by the Board include but are not limited to: The Educational Interpreter Performance Assessment (EIPA), any interpreting generalist written examination developed by the Registry of Interpreters for the Deaf (RID), the Center for Assessment of Sign Language Interpreters (CASLI), or any state government.(3-28-23)

ii.Practical or performance examinations approved by the Board include but are not limited to: any practical or performance general interpreting examination recognized by the Registry of Interpreters for the Deaf (RID) or the Educational Interpreter Performance Assessment (EIPA) at score 4.0 or above. The practical or performance examination must have been passed within ten (10) years before the date of original application for licensure.(3-28-23)

iii.Certifications approved by the Board include, but are not limited to, those administered by:

Registry of Interpreters for the Deaf (RID); National Association of the Deaf (NAD); Center for Assessment of Sign Language Interpreters (CASLI); Board for Evaluation of Interpreters (BEI) at basic level or above, or if certified before 2014, at intermediate level or above; Utah Interpreter Program (UIP) at professional or master level, or a Utah Certified: Deaf Interpreter (UC:DI).(3-28-23)

06.Deaf Interpreters.(3-28-23)

a.Letter of Endorsement. Persons who are deaf or hard-of-hearing and are not sign language interpreters may perform sign language interpreting services in the role of a deaf interpreter if they file the approved application with the Board and include one (1) written endorsement letters from sign language interpreters licensed by the Board. Deaf Interpreters must complete this process on a yearly basis.(3-28-23)

b.Withdrawal of Endorsement. A sign language interpreter who has endorsed a deaf interpreter may withdraw their endorsement at any time upon delivery of written notice to the deaf interpreter and the Board.

07.Temporary Registration for Out-Of-State Applicants .(3-28-23)

a.Regi stration. A person licensed or certified in good standing as a sign language interpreter in another state, territory, or the District of Columbia may practice sign language interpreting in this state without a license issued by the Board for a period of thirty (30) days within a twelve (12) month period, provided they pay the required fee and meet the requirements of this section. The Board may grant an extension or additional registrations for good cause.(3-28-23)

b.Statement of Registration. Before commencing such work, the person will file with the Board on a form approved by the board a statement of registration providing the person’s name, residence, sign language interpreter license or certificate of registration number, and the name, address, and phone number of the issuing authority.(3-28-23)

08.Continuing Education.(3-28-23)

a.Requirement. Each licensee will successfully complete, in the twelve (12) months preceding each renewal of their license, a minimum of ten (10) contact hours of continuing education directly related to the scope of their practice and sponsored by a national, state, or regional professional association or an institution of higher education.(3-28-23)

i.For college or university courses that are approved by the Board for continuing education credit, one (1) semester credit hour equals fifteen (15) contact hours; one (1) quarter credit hour equals ten (10) contact hours.(3-28-23)

ii.For proctoring the hearing aid dealing and fitting examination administered by the Board, a licensee may claim three (3) contact hours per exam up to a total of six (6) contact hours during each year, provided that a licensee may not claim more than nine (9) contact hours during any three (3) year period.(3-28-23)

b.Documentation. Each licensee must maintain documentation verifying hours of attendance. This documentation is subject to audit and must be provided upon request.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.23.01.101 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.23.01.200 Practice Standards

01.Provisional Permits.

a.Scope. The Board may issue a provisional permit to allow an applicant to engage in the supervised practice of a profession regulated by Title 54, Chapter 29, Idaho Code, to allow a person to engage in the supervised practice of audiology or speech language pathology while completing either the required postgraduate experience or a comparable doctoral program in audiology. The Board may issue a permit to allow a person to engage in fitting and dealing hearing aids or sign language interpretation while pursuing passage of an examination or certification for licensure.(3-28-23)

b.Supervisor. A provisional permit holder must be supervised by a licensee in good standing for the profession corresponding to the permit, except that a hearing aid dealer and fitter may be supervised by an audiologist or a hearing aid dealer and fitter.(3-28-23)

c.Supervision. The supervisor is responsible for all practice of the permit holder.(3-28-23)

i. Personal contact each workday to review any assignments, client contacts, and hearing aid fittings for the first sixty (60) days of practice. The nature of the supervision and contact must allow for immediate feedback and includes audio/visual, in person, or telephone contacts.(3-28-23)

ii. After the first sixty (60) days of practice, personal contact as described in Subsection 200.01.c. must be made no less than once in each calendar week throughout the remaining period of the permit.(3-28-23)

iii. In the event a permit holder fails the licensing examination two (2) consecutive times and is eligible to maintain a permit, the supervisor and the permit holder must reinstate contact in person each workday as set forth in Subsection 200.01.c.(3-28-23)

d.Training Agreement and Reports. Training may be performed in accordance with an agreement that identifies the parties to the agreement, the applicant's scope of practice authorized, and, if necessary, any monitoring parameters. The applicant will submit the agreement to the Board.(3-28-23)

i.A plan of training for hearing aid dealing and fitting or a sign language interpreter must cover all sections of the license examination(s).(3-28-23)

ii. Quarterly reports must be on forms approved by the Board, attested to and signed by the permit holder and approved supervisor(s), and include, a log of clients and supervisor contact, supervisor’s statement of completed training assignments by the permit holder. For a sign language interpreter, certification of attendance of any workshop or training session that the permit holder attended. For a hearing aid dealing and fitting permit holder, a copy of test results for all persons tested by the permit holder whether a sale occurred and a copy of each hearing aid order for all fittings including specifications of instruments ordered.(3-28-23)

iii. Quarterly reports are due on or before April 10th, July 10th, October 10th, and January 10th for the three (3) calendar month period preceding the month due. If the permit has not been in effect for the entire quarter, the report is due for that portion of the quarter in which the permit was in effect. If quarterly reports are not received by the specified due date, are inadequate, or document inadequate progress or incompetent practice the permit may be suspended or revoked upon notice and an opportunity to be heard.(3-28-23)

e.Change in Supervision. A supervisor must report termination of supervision in writing to the Board within ten (10) days. The permit holder must have a new supervisor in place before resuming practice.(3-28-23)

f.Cancellation. A permit is cancelled if the holder obtains a license or fails to submit a new application within thirty (30) days of a change in supervision.(3-28-23)

g.Expiration. Following the approval of a permit holder's original application, a provisional permit expires after twenty-four (24) months. Following expiration of the permit, the permit holder may apply to the Division for an extension. The Division may extend the time period for good cause that prevented the permit holder from completing the supervision within the twenty-four (24) month time period.(3-28-23)

02.Hearing Evaluation.(3-28-23)

a.Testing. Pre-Fitting and Sound Field Testing must be conducted in accordance with the standards set forth by the American National Standard Institute (ANSI). Verification of benefits must be conducted within 6 weeks.(3-28-23)

b.Records. The licensee will maintain a record of test data for one (1) year after sale.(3-28-23)

c.Exemptions. The testing requirements of this rule do not apply to consumers who cannot respond to acceptable audiological tests.(3-28-23)

03.Contracts.(3-28-23)

a.Contract form. Any person who practices the fitting and sale of hearing aids must enter into a written contract with the person to be supplied with the hearing aid, which is signed by the licensee and the consumer.

The contract must be given to the consumer at the time of sale and must contain the following:(3-28-23)

i.License number, business address, and specifications as to the make, model, and manufacture date of the hearing aid;(3-28-23)

ii.Full terms of sale, including a minimum of a thirty (30) day trial period for a refund of at least seventy-five (75) percent of the monies paid.(3-28-23)

iii.Serial number upon delivery;(3-28-23)

iv.Be clearly marked as “used” or “reconditioned” if applicable;(3-28-23)

v.Address and telephone number of the Division of Occupational and Professional Licenses;

(3 -28-23)

vi.A disclosure that the contract is void if the hearing aid is not delivered to the consumer within thirty (30) days of signature, and, if that occurs, the licensee will promptly refund the full purchase price.(3-28-23)

b.Cancellation and Refund.The contract must grant the consumer a nonwaivable thirty (30) day right to cancel the purchase and obtain a refund. The thirty (3) day period commences from either the date the contract is signed, or the hearing aid is delivered to the consumer, whichever is later.(3-28-23)

c.Dealer cancellation. If the licensee cancels the contract, the licensee must promptly refund the full purchase price.(3-28-23)

04.Support Personnel: Audiology.(3-28-23)

a.The supervising audiologist is responsible for training and evaluating the performance of audiology support personnel, and for approving all orders and directives. The supervising audiologist must assign tasks which are consistent with the training, education, and experience of audiology support.(3-28-23)

b.The number of audiology support personnel that an audiologist may supervise at any one time must be consistent with the delivery of appropriate, quality service, and Title 54, Chapter 29, Idaho Code.(3-28-23)

c.Direct supervision requires in-view real-time observation and guidance while an assigned activity is performed. This requirement can be met when the supervisor is providing supervision from a distant site using twoway video and audio transmission. The supervising audiologist will document and retain a record of all direct supervision period.(3-28-23)

i. When not providing supervision, the supervising audiologist must provide direction and supervision to audiology support personnel while support personnel are providing audiology services to a patient by making themselves accessible to the support personnel by telephone, video conferencing or in person.(3-28-23)

d. The supervising audiologist is responsible for maintaining a written record of completed training activity. (3-28-23)

i.Training will be conducted pre-service (before tasks are assigned) and in-service (after tasks are assigned).(3-28-23)

ii.Supervising audiologists should provide audiology support personnel with a written description of their roles and functions. Audiologists should provide personnel with ongoing training opportunities to ensure that audiology practices are current, and skills are maintained.(3-28-23)

05.Newborn Hearing Screening Tests.(3-28-23)

a.A person who is not an audiologist or audiology support personnel may conduct a newborn screening test if the test is conducted using equipment that produces a pass/fail response. A Licensed Audiologists will review the results.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.23.01.201 (Reserved)

400.FEES. 1.Non-refundable. Fees for License, Permit, and Registration are as follows. Annual fees may be aggregated for biennial licensure.

LICENSE/PERMIT/REGISTRATION

INITIAL FEE

ANNUAL RENEWAL FEE

Application$30 (7-1-26)

02.Examination Fees. The examination fee is that charged by the examination provider plus an administration fee of one hundred dollars ($100) when the examination is administered by the Board.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.23.01.401 (Reserved)

Original or Endorsement$70$100 Provisional Permit or Extension$100 Registration Out-of-State Licensee$10 Reinstatement fee As provided in Section 67-2614, Idaho Code.

Video Remote Interpreting Provider $150 (for up to five employed sign language interpreters, and for every five thereafter $150 (for up to five employed sign language interpreters, and for every five thereafter LICENSE/PERMIT/REGISTRATION INITIAL FEE ANNUAL RENEWAL FEE

24.39.40 Safety Rules for Elevators, Escalators, and Moving Walks

IDAPA 24.39.40.000 Legal Authority

This chapter is adopted by the administrator of the Divisio n of Occupational Professional Licenses pursuant to Sections 39-8605, 67-2604, 67-2614, 67-9409, and 67-9406, Idaho Code.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.39.40.001 Scope

These rules govern the operation, instal lation, alteration, maintenance, and repair of conveyances.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.39.40.002 Adoption and Incorporation by Reference

01.Documents.

The following codes, amendments, and updates are hereby adopted and incorporated by reference into these rules for all conveyances subject to this chapter.(3-28-23)

a.ANSI/ASME A17.1 2022, Safety Code for Elevators and Escalators with the following exceptions:

(7-1-25)

i.Compliance with section 8.11.2.1.5(c) Car and Counterweight Buffer testing must be conducted at slow speed in accordance with Item 5.9.2.1(b) in ANSI/ASME A17.2 2020.(7-1-25)

ii.Compliance with Section 2.2.2.5, which requires a sump pump or drain in the elevator pit, is optional. If a sump pump or drain is installed, it must meet the requirements of this section. A sump with a cover must be provided in each elevator pit.(3-28-23)

iii.Compliance with Section 2.27 regarding visual and text communication is optional; compliance with auto communication requirements is mandatory.(7-1-25)

b.ANSI/ASME A17.3 2015 Safety Code for Existing Elevators and Escalators.(3-28-23)

c.ANSI/ASME A17.4 2015 Guide for Emergency Personnel.(7-1-25)

d.ANSI/ASME A17.5 2019 Elevator and Escalator Electrical Equipment.(7-1-25)

e.ANSI/ASME A17.6 2010 Standard for Elevator Suspension, and Governor Systems.(3-28-23)

f.ANSI/ASME A17.7 2012 Performance-based Safety Code for Elevators and Escalators. (3-28-23)

g.ANSI/ASME A17.8 2021 Standard for Wind Tower Turbine Elevators.(7-1-25)

h.ICC/ANSI A117.1 2009 Accessible and Usable Buildings and Facilities.(3-28-23)

i.ANSI/ASME A18.1 2020 Safety Standards for Platform Lifts and Chairlifts.(7-1-25)

j.ASME QE-1 2018 Standard for the Qualification of Elevator Inspectors.(7-1-25)

02.Copies. Copies of the codes, amendments, and updates listed in these rules are available for review at the Division of Occupational and Professional Licenses offices.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.39.40.003 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.39.40.100 Inspection Requirements

For an inspection may to take place:

(3-28-23)

01.Technician on Site. An elevator technician and fire alarm technician must be present on site to restore elevator and fire alarm systems.(3-28-23)

02.Installation. The elevator installation must be complete and safe for inspection. Equipment, components, or systems installed on the conveyance must function in accordance with design and code requirements.

If equipment, components, or systems are installed that are not required by the currently adopted code, they must function properly or be removed.(3-28-23)

03.Inspection Fees. Inspection fees for elevators are assessed and collected according to the schedule listed in Section 39-8616, Idaho Code, except that reinspection fees for all types of conveyances is one hundred dollars ($100) for the first hour of inspection, or portion thereof, and one hundred dollars ($100) for each hour of inspection thereafter.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.39.40.101 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.39.40.200 Practice Standards

01.Approval of New or Alternative Technology.

(7-1-25)

a.Approval Required. If, due to construction or technological impediments, an elevator or conveyance cannot comply with applicable code requirements, approval of new or alternative construction or technology may be requested. Approval must be obtained before commencement of construction.(7-1-25)

i.The manufacturer of the new product or system must provide the Division of Occupational and Professional Licenses with an Accredited Elevator/Escalator Certification Organization (AECO) approval and certification in accordance with ANSI/ASME A17.7 Performance-based Safety Code for Elevators and Escalators or engineering and test data demonstrating that the proposed technology is safe for the intended purpose.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.39.40.201 (Reserved)

24.30.01 Idaho Accountancy Rules

IDAPA 24.30.01.000 Legal Authority

This chapter is adopted under the legal authority of Title 54, Chapter 2, Idaho Code.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.30.01.001 Scope

These rules govern the administration of the certified public accountant examination, the issuance and renewal of licenses to practice as certified or licensed public accountants, the registration of firms, the regulation of individuals granted practice privileges, and the limitation of non-licensees.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.30.01.002 Incorporation by Reference

The following documents are hereby incorporated by reference in to IDAPA 24.30.01 and can be obtained at the Board office. Licensees are required to comply with the following standards when applicable.(3-28-23)

01.AICPA Standards. The AICPA Professional Standards as applicable under the circumstances and at the time of the services, except as superseded by Section 54-206(8), Idaho Code.(3-28-23)

02.CPE Standards. 2024 Statements on Standards for Continuing Professional Education Programs jointly approved by NASBA and AICPA.(7-1-25)

03.PCAOB Standards. The Standards issued by the Public Company Accountability Oversight Board, as applicable under the circumstances and at the time of the services.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.30.01.003 Definitions

The Idaho State Board of Accountancy adopts the definitions set fort h in Section 54-206, Idaho Code. In addition, as used in this chapter:(3-28-23)

01.Administering Organization. An entity that has met, and at all relevant times continues to meet, the standards specified by the Board for administering peer reviews.(3-28-23)

02.Board. The Board or its designated representative.(3-28-23)

03.Candidate. Applicants approved to sit for the CPA Examination.(3-28-23)

04.CPA Examination. Uniform Certified Public Accountant Examination.(3-28-23)

05.CPE. Continuing Professional Education.(3-28-23)

06.Ethics CPE. Programs in ethics include topics such as ethical reasoning, state-specific statutes and rules, and standards of professional conduct, including those of other applicable regulatory bodies.(3-28-23)

07.NASBA. The National Association of State Boards of Accountancy.(3-28-23)

08.National Candidate Database. The National Association of State Boards of Accountancy database of all CPA Examination candidates.(3-28-23)

09.State-Specific Ethics for Idaho. A minimum two-hour (2) CPE course on Idaho Accountancy Act and Rules.(3-28-23)

10.Year of Review. The calendar year during which a peer review is conducted.(3-28-23)

11.Year Under Review. The twelve-month (12) period that is reviewed.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.30.01.004 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.30.01.100 Cpa Examination

An applicant must pass the CPA Examination before applying for a CPA license. The CPA Examination is graded by the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants and subject to review and acceptance by the Board. (3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.30.01.101 Authorization to Test and Notification to Schedule

The Board will forward notification of eligibility in the form of an Authorization to Test (ATT) to NASBA. The ATT is issued for th e test section(s) for which the candidate applied. Candidates must pay the fees charged by the AICPA, NASBA, and the test delivery service provider directly to NASBA. The ATT will expire ninety (90) days after it is issued if the candidate has not paid the appropriate fees. Eligible candidates will receive a Notice to Schedule (NTS) for the CPA Examination. The NTS is valid for six (6) months from the date issued. A candidate’s ATT lasts as long as the NTS is valid, or until the candidate tests, whichever occurs first.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.30.01.102 Failure to Appear

A candidate who fails to appear for the CPA Examination forfeits all fees paid.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.30.01.103 Cpa Exam Educational Qualifications

A candidate for the CPA examination provides evidence of successful completion of a baccalaureate degree or its equivalent to include thirty (30) or more semester hours (or forty-five (45) or more quarter hours) in business administration subjects of which at least twenty (20) semester hours (or at least thirty (30) quarter hours) are in accounting subjects (excluding introductory level courses).(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.30.01.104 Testing Period and Credit

01.CPA Examination Credit. Candi dates are to pass all four (4) test sections of the CPA Examination with a grade of seventy-five (75) or higher within a thirty-month period which begins on the actual date of notification of a passing score result. Candidates who do not sit and ultimately receive a passing score on all four (4) sections of the CPA Examination within the thirty-month period lose credit for any test section(s) passed outside the thirty-month period and that test section(s) is to be retaken.(7-1-25)

02.Extending the Term of Credit. The Board may extend the term of credit validity upon demonstration by the candidate that the credit was lost by reason of circumstances beyond the candidate’s control or other good cause shown.(7-1-25)

03.Transfer of Credit. An applicant may submit the results of any test section of the CPA Examination taken by the applicant in any other state having standards at least equivalent to those of this state, and these results may be adopted by the Board in lieu of examination in this state on the same test section and in accordance with the provisions of Section 54-210, Idaho Code, and these rules.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.30.01.105 Cheating

01.Actions.

Cheating by an applicant in applying for the CPA Examination or by a candidate in taking the CPA Examination may cause any grade otherwise earned on any part of the CPA Examination to be invalidated and impact the applicants ability to retest for a specified period of time.(3-28-23)

02.Notice. If a candidate is refused credit for any test section of an examination taken, disqualified from taking any test section, or barred from taking the examination in the future, the Board will provide information about findings and actions taken to the national candidate database and the board of any other state to which the candidate may apply for the examination.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.30.01.106 Security and Irregularities

Notwithstanding any other provisions under these rules, the Board may postpone scheduled examinations, the release of grades, or the issuance of certificates due to a breach of security, unauthorized acquisition or disclosure of the contents of an examination, suspected or actual negligence, errors, omissions, or irregularities in conducting an examination, or for any other reasonable cause or unforeseen circumstance.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.30.01.107 Initial Certified Public Accountant Licensure

Applications for initial licensure are to be made as prescribed in Section 54-207, Idaho Code, and are to comply with the following:(3-28-23)

01.Education.(3-28-23)

a.Applicants for licensure are to meet the provisions of Section 54-207(2), Idaho Code. An applicant for licensure who was accepted for the May 2000 CPA Examination or prior examination is exempt from additional educational requirements.(3-28-23)

b.The Board will recognize:(3-28-23)

i.Any college or university accredited by a regional accrediting organization recognized by the Council for Higher Education Accreditation (CHEA),(3-28-23)

ii.Accounting and business programs accredited by the Association to Advance Collegiate Schools of Business (AACSB) or;(3-28-23)

iii. any other accrediting agency having equivalent standards.(3-28-23)

c.An applicant is deemed to have met the education requirement if, as part of the one hundred fifty (150) semester hours of education, the applicant has met any one (1) of the following conditions:(3-28-23)

i.Earned a graduate degree with a concentration in accounting from a program that is accredited in accounting by an accrediting agency approved by the Board;(3-28-23)

ii.Earned a graduate degree from a program that is accredited in business by an accrediting agency approved by the Board. Completion of at least twenty-four (24) semester hours in accounting (excluding introductory courses) at the undergraduate level or fifteen (15) semester hours at the graduate level, or an equivalent combination thereof, including coverage of, but not necessarily separate courses in, the subjects of data analytics, financial accounting, auditing, taxation, and management accounting;(3-28-23)

iii.Earned a baccalaureate degree at an institution approved by the Board or from a program that is accredited in business by an accrediting agency approved by the Board. Completion of at least twenty-four (24) semester hours in business (other than accounting courses) and twenty-four (24) semester hours in accounting (excluding introductory courses) at the undergraduate or graduate level including coverage of, but not necessarily separate courses in, the subjects of data analytics, financial accounting, auditing, taxation, and management accounting.(3-28-23)

02.Experience. (3-28-23)

a.An applicant is to provide evidence of one (1) year of experience as prescribed in Section 54-209, Idaho Code, and these rules. Experience consists of full or part time employment that extends over a period of no less than twelve (12) months and no more than thirty-six (36) months with no fewer than two thousand (2,000) hours earned within the ten (10) year period immediately preceding the latest application for licensure.(3-28-23)

b.An applicant completes and submits the Verification of Employment and Experience Evaluation form(s). An applicant may be called to appear before the Board to supplement or verify evidence of experience.

c.A licensee verifying experience will maintain supporting documentation of the applicant's experience until thirty (30) days after the applicant is granted a license. The licensee will permit the Board to inspect the supporting documentation prior to issuing a license to the applicant. Any licensee who has been requested by an applicant to submit to the Board evidence of the applicant's experience and has refused to do so will, upon request by the Board, explain in writing or in person the basis for such refusal.(3-28-23)

d.A licensee who is responsible for supervising attest services, and signs or authorizes someone to sign the accountant's report on the financial statement on behalf of the firm, is to meet the experience requirement set out in the AICPA statements on quality control standards.(3-28-23)

03.Examination on Code of Professional Conduct. Prior to licensure, applicants successfully complete a course in professional ethics that is acceptable to the Board.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.30.01.108 Annual License Renewal and Late Fee

01.Renewal. Licenses expire on June 30 of each year. (3-28-23)

02.Non-Renewal. Individuals choosing not to renew their license are to notify the Board, on the renewal form by the expiration date. Individuals with lapsed licenses may not publicly display their wall certificates, use the title CPA or LPA, or provide services that are reserved to licensees.(3-28-23)

03.Late Fee. Licenses renewed after July 1, but before August 1, are subject to the late renewal fee as prescribed in Rule 400. After August 1, any license not renewed is deemed lapsed and is subject to reinstatement pursuant to Section 54-211, Idaho Code.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.30.01.109 Internet Disclosure

A non-Idaho licensee entering into an engagement to provide profess ional services via a web site, pursuant to Idaho practice privileges, is to disclose on their web site: (3-28-23)

01.Licensure and Address. Their principal state of licensure, license number, and address; and

02.Contact Method. A means for regulators and the public to contact a responsible licensee in charge at the firm regarding complaints, questions, or regulatory compliance.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.30.01.110 Reciprocal Licensure

If the practice privilege standard set out in Section 54-227, Idaho Code, is not applicable, the Board will issue a license to an applicant provided that the applicant pays the application and licensure fees prescribed in Rule 400 and meets one of the following:(3-28-23)

01.Interstate Reciprocity. The requirements for a reciprocal license under Section 54-210(2), Idaho Code. Notwithstanding anything to the contrary, an individual whose principal place of business is not in this state and who holds a valid license or permit with unrestricted practice privileges as a Certified Public Accountant from any state that the NASBA National Qualification Appraisal Service has verified to be in substantial equivalence with the CPA licensure requirements of the AICPA/NASBA Uniform Accountancy Act is presumed to have the qualifications substantially equivalent to this state’s requirements.(3-28-23)

02.International Reciprocity. The requirements for foreign reciprocal licensure under Section 54- 210(5), Idaho Code, provided that the Board relies on the International Qualifications Appraisal Board for evaluation of foreign credential equivalency. Such licensees are to report any investigations undertaken, or sanctions imposed, by a foreign credentialing body against the licensee’s foreign credential. The Board will participate in joint investigations with foreign credentialing bodies and rely on evidence supplied by such bodies in disciplinary hearings.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.30.01.111 Cpe Basic Requirements

Demonstrate participation in a program of learning that meets the requireme nts as set forth in the Statement of Standards as referenced in Rule 004. CPE courses approved on NASBA's National Registry of CPE Sponsors, the AICPA, and state societies are deemed to meet the CPE requirements of this state. Responsibility for documenting the acceptability of the program and the validity of the credits rests with the licensee.(3-28-23)

01.Renewal. Licensees seeking active license renewal are to demonstrate that during the two (2) calendar years immediately preceding the date the reporting form is due that no less than eighty (80) hours of CPE are recorded, of which at least four (4) hours are ethics with a minimum of thirty (30) hours in any one (1) calendar year, and a maximum of fifty (50) hours recorded in any one (1) calendar year.(3-28-23)

02.New and Reciprocal. Completion of at least a two-hour (2) course on Idaho state-specific ethics during the calendar year that the license is issued. During the second calendar year of licensure, a minimum of thirty (30) hours is to be completed which may include an ethics component based on the prior year submission. (3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.30.01.112 Cpe Reporting, Controls, and Late Fees

01.Reporting.

No later than January 31 of each year, individuals renewing their licenses are to provide a signed reporting form either:(3-28-23)

a.Disclosing the information pertaining to the educational programs submitted for qualification as prescribed in the CPE Standards; or(3-28-23)

b.Applying for exception, extension, or exemption.(3-28-23)

2. CPE Reciprocity. If an applicant for renewal who is licensed to engage in the practice of public accounting in another state and resides in that state, the applicant must demonstrate compliance with the continuing education requirements of that state by attesting to that effect on an application to the Board for licensure renewal. If the state in which the applicant resides does not have continuing education requirements, the applicant must comply with the requirements set forth in this section.(3-28-23)

03.CPE Late Fees. A License will not be issued until the licensee files the reporting form with supporting documentation, pays the late filing as prescribed in Rule 400.03, license renewal fee and any other penalty the Board may impose.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.30.01.113 Cpe Exceptions, Extensions, and Exemptions

01.Exceptions and Extensions.

The Board may make exceptions to the CPE requirements, or grant extensions of time for completion of the CPE requirements, where reasons of health as certified by a medical doctor prevent compliance by the licensee, or other good cause exists.(3-28-23)

a.Licensees asking for exceptions or extensions under these conditions apply on the reporting form for the year in which the extension or exemption is sought, and within the time period set for CPE reporting, stating the reasons for asking for such exception or extension. Any request not filed timely is subject to the late fee prescribed in Rule 400, in addition to any administrative action.(3-28-23)

b.A penalty of no more than fifty percent (50%) of the hours a licensee is short in meeting the calendar year CPE requirement may be assessed for extensions. In such cases, the licensee will be required to complete the CPE hours and any assessed penalty no later than April 30. The penalty for non-compliance with ethics CPE is to obtain the mandatory hours of ethics CPE plus fifty percent (50%) penalty hours in ethics CPE prior to April 30. The penalty for non-compliance with state-specific ethics for Idaho is to complete the course plus fifty percent (50%) penalty hours in ethics CPE prior to April 30.(3-28-23)

02.Inactive or Retired. Licensees who elect inactive or retired status are exempt from any CPE requirements as prescribed by Sections 54-211(c) and (d), Idaho Code. A licensee who has elected inactive or retired status may provide the following volunteer, uncompensated services: tax preparation services, participating in a government-sponsored business mentoring program, serving on the board of directors for a nonprofit or governmental organization, or serving on a government-appointed advisory board. If the CPA provides the foregoing volunteer, uncompensated services, the CPA has a duty to ensure that they hold the professional competencies necessary to offer these services.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.30.01.114 Review and Audit of Cpe Reports

All signed CPE reports are subject to formal verification to determine qualification and sufficiency of hours reported.

A formal audit of CPE reported may be performed to determine whether hours reported qualify for credit. If a reporting form is not approved, the licensee will be notified.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.30.01.115 Notification

A licensee is served a notice of no ncompliance when it is determined the CPE requirement has not been fulfilled. The notice advises and provides opportunity for the deficiencies to be addressed. If the deficiencies remain, administrative action may be taken.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.30.01.116 Action

Following notice and hearing, the Board may suspend the license or t ake other action pursuant to Section 54-219, Idaho Code.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.30.01.117 Reinstatement and Re-Entry

An individual whose license has lapsed or i s in a non-active status per Section 54-211, Idaho Code, is to complete no less than eighty (80) hours of CPE, of which at least four (4) hours are in ethics CPE with a minimum of two (2) hours to be in state specific ethics for Idaho, during the twelve (12) months immediately prior to applying for reinstatement or re-entry to an active license. Completion of the CPE will otherwise exempt the licensee from obtaining CPE hours during the calendar year of returning to an active license. If a licensee applies for re-entry during a license period and has already paid the fee for an inactive or retired license, the licensee is to pay the difference between the cost of an inactive or retired license and the annual license renewal fee. An individual who is applying for reinstatement to an inactive or retired license is not required to meet a CPE requirement.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.30.01.118 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.30.01.200 Commissions and Contingent Fees

01.Acceptance. Licensees may accept commissions or contingent fees subject to Section 54-218, Idaho Code, the AICPA Code of Professional Conduct, and these rules.(3-28-23)

02.Disclosures. Any licensee who directly or indirectly accepts or agrees to accept such form of compensation is to disclose the terms of such compensation to the client. The disclosure is to be:(3-28-23)

a.In writing, clear, and conspicuous; and state the amount of the compensation or basis on which it will be computed;(3-28-23)

b.Made at or prior to the time of the recommendation or referral of the product or service for which the commission is paid, prior to the client retaining the licensee to whom the client has been referred for which a referral fee is paid, and prior to the time the licensee undertakes representation of or performance of the service upon which a contingent fee will be charged.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.30.01.201 Confidential Client Information

01.Confidentiality.

A licensee is to protect and not disclose confidential client information obtained in the course of performing professional services, unless the licensee has obtained the specific consent of the client, or of such client’s heirs, successors or personal representatives, or others legally authorized to give such consent on behalf of the client.(3-28-23)

02.Exemptions. Nothing in these rules is construed as prohibiting the disclosure of information that is required to be disclosed:(3-28-23)

a.In reporting on the examination of financial statements;(3-28-23)

b.In investigations by the Board or other accounting regulatory agency;(3-28-23)

c.In ethical investigations conducted in private professional organizations;(3-28-23)

d.In the course of peer reviews;(3-28-23)

e.To other persons active in the organization performing services for that client on a need to know basis;(3-28-23)

f.To persons in the entity who need this information for the sole purpose of assuring quality control; or(3-28-23)

g.By any act of law.(3-28-23)

03.Disciplinary Proceedings. Members of the Board and investigative officers may not disclose any confidential client information that comes to their attention from licensees in disciplinary proceedings or otherwise, except that they may furnish such information to an investigative or disciplinary body.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.30.01.202 Records

A licensee is to furnish to his client or former client, upon request made within a reasonable time after original issuance of the document in question all client records, as that term is defined in the AICPA Code of Professional Conduct belonging to, or obtained from or on behalf of, the client that the licensee removed from the client's premises or received for the client's account. The licensee may make and retain copies of such documents when they form the basis for work performed by him. Client records are to be returned upon request by the client, whether the engagement has been terminated or the licensee has been paid for services rendered.(3-28-23)

01.Tax Return, Other Reports, Working Papers Including Audit Documentation Made Part of Client's Records. A licensee who has been paid for the services rendered is to furnish to his client or former client, upon request, within a reasonable time after original issuance of the document in question the following records:

a.A copy of a tax return of a client.(3-28-23)

b.A copy of any report, or other document, issued by the licensee to or for the client; and(3-28-23)

c.A copy of the licensee's working papers, to the extent that such working papers include records that would ordinarily constitute part of the client's books and records and are not otherwise available to the client. This would include adjusting, closing, combining, or consolidating journal entries; information normally contained in books of original entry and general ledgers or subsidiary ledgers; and tax and depreciation carry forward information.

The information should be provided in the medium in which it is requested, provided it exists in that medium. The licensee does not have to convert information that is not in electronic format to an electronic format.(3-28-23)

02.Working Papers Including Audit Documentation Not a Part of the Client’s Records. A licensee’s working papers that do not become part of a client’s records, which may include analyses and schedules prepared by the client at the request of the licensee, are the licensee’s property, not client records, and need not be made available under any circumstances.(3-28-23)

03.Charges. A licensee does not have to furnish records to a client or a former client more than once.

A licensee may charge the client or former client actual costs for time and photocopying charges on subsequent requests. (3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.30.01.203 Firm Names

01.General.

A licensee may only provide professional services under a firm name that is not misleading as to the description of the legal form of the firm, or as to the person or persons who are owner(s), partners, officers, shareholders or members of the firm. Names of one (1) or more past owners, partners, shareholders or members who were licensed may be included in the firm name. A partner surviving the death or withdrawal of all other partners may continue to practice under a partnership name for up to two (2) years after becoming a sole practitioner.(3-28-23)

02.Title. A firm may designate itself as “Certified Public Accountant(s),” “Licensed Public Accountant(s)” or “Public Accountant(s)” when a majority of its partners, shareholders, or members are actively licensed certified public accountants or licensed public accountants under the provisions of the Idaho Accountancy Act and Rules. The firm name may not include the name of a non-licensee owner, except as allowed in Subsection 203.01 if the title “CPA(s)” or “LPA(s)” is included in the firm name. The firm name may not include the name of a person who is not a CPA or LPA if the title “Public Accountant(s)” is included in the firm name.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.30.01.204 Response to the Board

Unless otherwise specified, a licensee is to respond within thirty (30) calendar days of the mailing to any communication in which the Board requests a response.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.30.01.205 Purpose of Firm Registration and Peer Review

The purpose of the program is to monitor compliance with applicable accounting and auditing standards adopted by generally recognized standard setting bodies. The program emphasizes appropriate education programs or remedial procedures that may be recommended or required where the firm does not comply with appropriate professional standards. In the event a firm is unwilling or unable to comply with professional standards, or a firm’s failure to comply with professional standards is so egregious as to warrant continuing action, the Board will take appropriate action to protect the public interest as authorized by Section 54-219, Idaho Code.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.30.01.206 Issuance of Reports and Form of Practice

A licensee can provide or offer to provide attes t services or issue reports on compilations only in a firm as defined by Section 54-206(10), Idaho Code, except as provided under Section 54-221(4), Idaho Code.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.30.01.207 Peer Review Program Participation

01.Participation.

Any firm that issues reports on accounting and auditing engagements, including audits, reviews, compilations, prospective financial information, engagements performed in accordance with the PCAOB, and any examination, review or agreed-upon procedures engagement performed in accordance with the statement on standards for attestation engagements. A licensee who issues compilation reports through any form of business other than a firm is to participate in the peer review program. Such licensees are to meet the requirements for registration and peer review.(3-28-23)

02.Practice Privileges. Individuals with practice privileges in Idaho are to comply with the peer review requirements in the state of their principal place of business.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.30.01.208 Exemption from Participation

01.Firms.

A firm that does not perform any of the services in Rule 207 is exempt from peer review.

The firm is to notify the Board of such exemption in writing at the time of renewal of its registration. A firm that begins providing these services is to commence a peer review within eighteen (18) months of the date of the issuance of its initial report.(3-28-23)

02.Licensees Not in Public Practice. A licensee who does not perform any of the services in Rule 207 is exempt from firm registration and peer review. The licensee is to notify the Board of such exemption in writing at the time of initial CPA licensure and annually thereafter at the time of CPA or LPA license renewal.(3-28-23)

03.Licensees Not Issuing Reports. A licensee who issues financial statements pursuant to Section 54- 221(5), Idaho Code, is exempt from peer review.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.30.01.209 Scheduling of the Peer Review

01.Frequency.

A firm performing any of the services in Rule 207 undergoes, at its own expense, a peer review commensurate in scope with its practice, not less than once in each three (3) years.(3-28-23)

02.Currently Enrolled. A firm currently enrolled in a program of an approved administering organization will use the year of review assigned by the administering organization. The firm will notify the Board of the deadlines set by the administering organization.(3-28-23)

03.Review Year. Each firm is to enroll with one (1) of the approved administering organizations. Each firm adopts the review date assigned by the appropriate administering organization and notifies the Board of such date.(3-28-23)

04.New Firms. Within one (1) year of registration with the Board, new firms are to enroll with an approved administering organization. The firm adopts the review date assigned and notifies the Board of such date.

05.Mergers or Combinations. In the event that two (2) or more firms are merged or combined, the resulting firm retains the peer review year of the firm with the largest number of accounting and auditing hours.

06.Dissolutions or Separations. In the event that a firm is divided, the new firm(s) retains the review year of the former firm. In the event that the year under review is less than twelve (12) months, a review year will be assigned so that the review occurs within eighteen (18) months of the commencement of the new firm(s). (3-28-23)

07.Multi-State Practices. With respect to a multi-state firm, the Peer Review Oversight Committee may accept a peer review based solely upon work conducted outside of this state if the peer review is performed in accordance with requirements equivalent to those of this state.(3-28-23)

08.Report Issuance. It is the responsibility of the firm to anticipate its need for peer review services in sufficient time to enable the reviewer to issue the report within six (6) months after the review date.(3-28-23)

09.Extensions. The Board may accept an extension recommended by the administering organization for the conduct of a review, provided the Board is notified by the firm within thirty (30) days of the date of receipt of recommendation for such an extension.(3-28-23)

10.Just Cause. The Board may change a firm’s peer review year for just cause.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.30.01.210 Minimum Standards

The minimum standards for peer review are contained in the Standards for Performing and Reporting on Peer Reviews section of the AICPA Standards. Peer reviews intended to meet the requirements of the AICPA peer review program are to be carried out in conformity with these standards under the supervision of an administering organization approved by the Board to administer peer reviews. Reviewed firms arrange and schedule their reviews in compliance with the procedures established by the administering organization and cooperate with the administering organization and with the Board in all matters related to the review.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.30.01.211 Reporting to the Board

01.Firm Registration Form.

All firms performing any of the peer reviewable services in Rule 207 annually file a firm registration no later than September 30. The registration is on a form prescribed by the Board.

Firm registrations filed after September 30 are subject to penalty for non-compliance pursuant to Rule 400. (3-28-23)

02.Peer Review Documentation. A firm that has undergone peer review will file a copy of the peer review report, letter of comments if any, letter of response if any, and letter accepting the review report issued by the administering organization. The letter will be filed within thirty (30) days after receipt. Additionally, firms are to notify the Board within thirty (30) days of the date the peer reviewer or a team captain advises the firm that a grade of fail will be recommended. The Board reserves the right to obtain all other information relating to the peer review. The Board also has the authority to exempt for good cause firms who would otherwise have to file peer review documentation.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.30.01.212 Retention of Documents Rela

TING TO PEER REVIEWS.

Documents relating to peer review s are to be retained as follows:(3-28-23)

01.Documents. All documentation necessary to establish that each peer review was performed in conformity with peer review standards adopted by the Board. These documents may include the peer review working papers, the peer review report, comment letters and related correspondence indicating the firm’s concurrence or nonconcurrence, and any proposed remedial actions and related implementation.(3-28-23)

02.Retention Period. Document retention is for a period of time corresponding to the designated retention period of the relevant administering organization and, upon request of the Committee, to be made available to it. In no event may the retention period be less than ninety (90) days from the date of acceptance of the review by the administering organization.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.30.01.213 Confidentiality

The letter and any documentation submitted to the Board pursuant to Rule 211.02 is confidential as authorized by Title 74, Chapter 1, Idaho Code, unless an Order is issued by the Board pursuant to Section 54-219, Idaho Code.

IDAPA 24.30.01.214 Remedies for Failure to Comply

01.Corrective Actions.

The Board will take appropriate action to protect the public interest if the Board determines, through the peer review process or otherwise, that a firm’s performance or reporting practices, or both, are not, or may not be, in accordance with applicable professional standards, or that the firm does not comply with peer review program requirements or with all or some of the reporting, remedial action, or fee penalty requirements of this section. The Board’s actions may include, but are not limited to:(3-28-23)

a.The annual license of the principal(s) of a non-compliant firm will not be issued until the firm complies with all requirements of these rules, provided the licensee has met all licensing requirements;(3-28-23)

b.Requiring the firm to develop quality control procedures to provide a reasonable assurance that similar occurrences will not occur in the future;(3-28-23)

c.Requiring any individual licensee who had responsibility for, or who substantially participated in, the engagement(s) to successfully complete specific courses or types of continuing education as specified by the Board;(3-28-23)

d.Requiring the reviewed firm to engage a Board-approved licensee to conduct a Board-prescribed on-site field review of the firm’s work product and practices or perform other investigative procedures to assess the degree or pervasiveness of nonconforming work product. The Board-approved licensee engaged by the firm will submit a report of the findings to the Board within thirty (30) days of the completion of the services. The cost of the Board-prescribed on-site review or other Board-prescribed procedures will be at the firm’s expense;(3-28-23)

e.Requiring the reviewed firm responsible for engagement(s) to submit all or specified categories of its compilation or attest working papers and reports to a preissuance evaluation performed by a Board-approved licensee in a manner and for a duration prescribed by the Board. Prior to the firm issuing the reports on the engagements reviewed, the Board-approved licensee submits to a designee of the Board for the purpose of recommending that the Board accept a report of the findings, including the nature and frequency of recommended actions for the firm. The cost of the Board-approved preissuance evaluation will be at the firm’s expense; (3-28-23)

f.Initiating an investigation to determine if additional discipline pursuant to Section 54-219, Idaho Code, is warranted. Notwithstanding the foregoing, absent an investigation the specific rating of a single peer review report is not a sufficient basis to warrant disciplinary action.(3-28-23)

02.Solicitation and Review of Other Sources. The Board may solicit, and review licensee reports and other information covered by the reports from clients, public agencies, banks, and other users of such information.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.30.01.215 Administering Organizations

Qualified administering organizations which are approved by th e Board based on their adherence to the AICPA Peer Review minimum standards, include the peer review program of the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants (AICPA) and state CPA societies fully involved in the administration of the AICPA Peer Review Program and their successor organizations that meet the minimum standards.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.30.01.216 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.30.01.400 Fees

01.Examination and License.

Exam/LicenseInitial Fee Initial Exam$50 Re-Exam$25 Active License$120 (Biennial: $240)

Inactive or Retired License$25 (Biennial: $50)

Reciprocity$175 + license fee (7-1-25)

02.Administrative Services.

(7-1-25)

03.Late Fees.

IDAPA 24.30.01.401 (Reserved)

International Reciprocity$175 + license fee Transfer of Grades$100 + license fee Reinstatement License Sum of unpaid license fees for the preceding 3 license renewal cycles Re-entry License$20 Firm Registration $20 firm plus $5 per licensee up to $200 maximum (Biennial: $40 firm plus $10 per licensee up to $400 maximum)

CategoryFee Interstate Exchange of Information$10 CategoryFee Late License Renewal$100 Non-compliance with CPE Filing:

February$100 March$150 April$200 May $250 June$300 Non-compliance with Firm Registration $100 per licensee Exam/LicenseInitial Fee

24.40.01 Rules of the Board of Naturopathic Health Care

IDAPA 24.40.01.000 Legal Authority

These rules are promulgated pursuant to Sections 54-5904 and 54-5909(4), Idaho Code.(7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.40.01.001 Scope

These rules govern the practice of licensed nat uropathic doctors and registered naturopaths in Idaho.(7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.40.01.002 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.40.01.100 Licensure

01.Approved Examination.

The Naturopathic Doctors Licensing Examination (NDLEX) administered by the National Board of Naturopathic Examiners, or a naturopathic competency examination administered by the American Naturopathic Medical Certification Board.(7-1-24)

02.Continuing Education. To renew, licensees must complete, during the prior licensing period, and retain proof of completion of twenty (20) hours of continuing education germane to health care. To renew, registrants must complete, during the prior registration period, and retain proof of completion of twelve (12) hours of continuing education germane to health care.(7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.40.01.101 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.40.01.400 Fees

(7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.40.01.401 (Reserved)

FEE TYPEINITIALANNUAL RENEWAL

Licensure$400$400 Registration$250$250

24.25.01 Rules of the Idaho Driving Businesses Licensure Board

IDAPA 24.25.01.000 Legal Authority

These rules are promulgated pursuant to Section 54-5403.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.25.01.001 Scope

These rules govern the Idaho Driving Businesses Act.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.25.01.002 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.25.01.100 Driving Business License

A driving business license is not transferable.

The business licensee must conspicuously display the license at the business’s principal classroom location.(3-28-23)

01.Ownership. The owner referenced in Idaho Code § 54-5505 (1) includes the applicant’s officers and shareholders having a twenty-five percent (25%) or greater ownership interest (if a corporation), members and managers (if a limited liability company), and partners (if a partnership).(3-28-23)

02.Criminal History Background Check. The applicant and all persons listed under Subsection 100.01 must submit to a current, fingerprint-based criminal history check conducted by an organization approved by the Board. (3-28-23)

03.Classroom Locations and Certificates of Occupancy. Each applicant must list all principal and secondary classroom locations to be utilized by the business. The applicant must provide a certificate of occupancy issued for each location.(3-28-23)

04.Certificate of Vehicle Insurance. The certificate of commercial automobile insurance for each vehicle utilized by the driving business for driver education must accompany the application. The minimum coverage will include.(3-28-23)

a.Medical Payment for each person - five thousand dollars ($5,000); and either(3-28-23)

b.Limit of liability (Combined single limit) - five hundred thousand ($500,000) to apply to bodily injury and/or property damage; or(3-28-23)

c.Limit of liability (Split limit). Bodily injury - two hundred-fifty thousand ($250,000) per person/ five hundred thousand ($500,000) each accident; Property damage - two hundred-fifty thousand ($250,000) each accident.(3-28-23)

05.Licensed Instructors. Before beginning to offer driver education, and at all times while offering driver education, a driving business must employ or have contracted with one (1) or more licensed driving instructors to teach the classroom instruction phase and behind-the-wheel training phase of the driver education to be provided by the business.(3-28-23)

06.Vehicles. An applicant for a driving business license must submit to the Division a list of the vehicles that the business will utilize when offering driver education. A business licensee may not utilize vehicles that do not appear on the list. Each vehicle must have dual control brake pedals, safety restraints for all passengers, a side view mirror on each side of the vehicle, and an additional rear view mirror or compatible viewing device for the exclusive use of the instructor. A driving business must ensure that students are not allowed in a listed vehicle unless the vehicle is in a safe and proper operating condition.(3-28-23)

a.Initial Inspection. An applicant may not include a vehicle on a business’s vehicle list unless the vehicle has passed a vehicle inspection performed by an ASE mechanic or vehicle technician within the two (2) month period preceding the application. The inspection must be documented on a Board-approved inspection form.

The person who inspected the vehicle must sign the form, certifying that the vehicle generally is in a safe and proper operating condition, and that each inspected item passed inspection or, if found to be in need of repair, was repaired on a given date. The application must be accompanied by a separate, signed form for each listed vehicle.(3-28-23)

b.Annual Inspection. A business licensee must ensure that each vehicle passes an inspection every twelve (12) months, and that the inspection is performed by an ASE mechanic or vehicle technician documented on the Board-approved form referenced in Paragraph 225.06.a. of these rules. If a vehicle fails an annual inspection, the business licensee must withdraw the vehicle from service. The business licensee may not use the vehicle for behindthe-wheel training until the vehicle passes a subsequent inspection and the business licensee has submitted to the Division the inspection form evidencing that the vehicle has passed.(3-28-23)

c.Incident Inspection. If a vehicle incident occurs that requires an investigation and report by law enforcement, or in which the damage exceeds one thousand five hundred dollars ($1,500), the business licensee must withdraw the vehicle from service. The business licensee may not use the vehicle for behind-the-wheel training until the vehicle passes inspection by an ASE mechanic or vehicle technician and the business licensee has submitted to the Division the inspection form evidencing that the vehicle has passed.(3-28-23)

d.Signage. The business licensee must ensure that the outside of each vehicle is equipped with safely secured signs. Signs must include “Student Driver,” “Driver Education,” “Driver Training,” “Driving School,” or similar language that clearly designates the vehicle as a driver training vehicle.(3-28-23)

07.Course of Instruction. Each applicant must provide the course of instruction it will use when instructing students. The applicant must demonstrate, to the Board’s satisfaction, that the course of instruction is designed to produce safe and effective drivers and is educationally sound.(3-28-23)

08.On-line Instruction. In addition to, or in lieu of offering classroom instruction at a physical classroom location, a business licensee may offer classroom instruction to students via the internet. While a business licensee may utilize a third party to offer on-line classroom instruction, the business licensee is responsible for ensuring that the instruction content meets the requirements of these rules and is approved by the Board.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.25.01.101 Driving Business -- Minimum Curriculum Components

The curriculum used by a driving busine ss shall conform to the minimum standards as approved by the Board on an annual basis. The minimum standards can be found on the Board’s website and on the driving business application form. (3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.25.01.102 Driving Business - Course of Instruction

01.In-Car Documentation.

A business licensee must ensure that each listed vehicle contains documentation that identifies each student and the student’s permit number. Permits will be given to the students following the successful completion of the course and used during the required graduate licensing process. (3-28-23)

02.Maximum Daily Driving and Observation Time. Neither a business licensee nor an instructor licensee may permit an enrolled student to receive more than two (2) hours of behind-the-wheel driving time per day.

Maximum observation time is two (2) hours per student, per day, and may be completed with a parent or legal guardian.(3-28-23)

03.Grading Criteria. A business licensee may not permit a student to graduate from the business’s driver education program unless the student has achieved an eighty percent (80%) or higher in each of the three (3) course areas described in Idaho Code § 54-5405(1) (a)-(c). The business licensee must utilize written grading criteria for each of the minimum components in the curriculum approved by the Board. Criteria may include student attitude and such other criteria as the driving business may deem appropriate. The business licensee must maintain records of the student’s grades.(3-28-23)

04.Driving Log. Each driving instructor must complete a log for each student's behind-the-wheel driving and each driving business licensee must ensure that its driving instructors complete the log. The log must include the student's name, birthdate, driving permit number, class date, instructor's name lesson objective, total instruction time, total observation time, final grade, and date the student passed.(3-28-23)

05.Reporting. A business licensee will send student performance information as prescribed by the Idaho Division of Motor Vehicles (DMV) to the DMV no later than five (5) p.m. on the third business day following completion of the course.(3-28-23)

06.Record Retention. The business licensee must maintain all logs and other records required under Rule 227 for at least three (3) years from date on which the student completes, or is no longer enrolled in, the business’s driver education course. The business licensee may not release these records without written consent from the student and the student’s parent or legal guardian. The Board and its agents, however, may inspect these records at any time.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.25.01.103 Driving Instructor License

01.Driving Record and Driver’s License. On a Board approved application form, each applicant must submit a copy of a valid driver’s license and a copy of a satisfactory driving record. An unsatisfactory record includes, but is not limited to, two (2) moving violations in the past twelve (12) months, or suspension or revocation of a driver’s license in the last thirty-six (36) months, or a conviction involving alcohol or controlled substances within the last thirty-six (36) months.(3-28-23)

02.Criminal History Background Check. Each applicant must submit to a current, fingerprint-based criminal history check conducted by an organization approved by the Board.(3-28-23)

03.Medical Certificate. A driving instructor licensee may not provide in-vehicle instruction to students if the instructor suffers from a medical condition that may impair the instructor’s ability to safely instruct student drivers. Each applicant for an instructor’s license must obtain a medical examination performed by a licensed medical professional. The examination must be completed within two (2) years preceding the application. A driving instructor licensee must obtain a new medical certificate every two (2) years and annually certify compliance with these requirements. The applicant must submit a medical examiner’s certificate, issued and signed by a licensed, qualified medical professional. If a medical condition exists, the applicant must re-certify as the medical professional requires and submit that information to the Board.(3-28-23)

04.Instructor Apprenticeship Training Program. Applicants for licensure must demonstrate to the Board’s satisfaction that they have successfully completed all required classroom instruction and behind-the-wheel training hours from a Board-approved instructor apprenticeship training program. The applicant must have undertaken and completed the apprenticeship training program within the five (5) year period immediately preceding the application.(3-28-23)

a.Proof of successful completion must include written certificate from a Board-approved apprenticeship training program certifying that the applicant has satisfactorily completed the program.(3-28-23)

b.A person may not enroll in an apprenticeship training program unless the person has applied for, paid for, and obtained an apprenticeship permit from the Board. The applicant must apply on Board-approved forms, which must identify the applicant and the business licensee in whose approved apprenticeship training program the applicant will be enrolled. The individual applicant must establish that they are at least twenty-one (21) years old.An apprenticeship permit automatically expires one (1) year after issuance. The Board also may suspend or revoke an apprenticeship permit, and refuse to issue another permit, if the permittee engages in any act or omission that would subject the permittee to discipline if the permittee had an instructor’s license. No one may be a permittee for more than three (3) years.(3-28-23)

05.Waiver of Instructor Apprenticeship T raining Program. An applicant is entitled to a waiver of the apprenticeship training program if they provide proof to the Board that they possess the requisite training and experience requirements as set forth below:(3-28-23)

a.An applicant who has held within the past five (5) years an active and unrestricted public driver education instructor license issued by the Idaho State Department of Education and has completed eight (8) hours of continuing education within the prior year or an individual who has completed the Idaho State Department of Education driving instructor program within the past five (5) years and has completed eight (8) hours of continuing education within the prior year qualifies for a waiver of the apprenticeship training program requirement. (3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.25.01.104 Operation of Instructor Apprenticeship Training Program

01.Application for Approval.

A business licensee may operate a Board-approved instructor apprenticeship training program. The business licensee must apply for program approval on forms provided by the Board.(3-28-23)

02.Apprentices. The business licensee must ensure that all persons who enroll in the licensee’s program possess a valid instructor apprenticeship training permit from the Board.(3-28-23)

03.Instruction and Training Hours. The program must include the instruction and training as required by Idaho Code § 54-5406 (2).(3-28-23)

a.The required classroom hours may also be completed through on-line or internet based instruction.

(3-28-23)

b.When an apprentice begins to provide behind-the-wheel driving instruction to students, a program instructor must supervise the apprentice by riding in the vehicle with the apprentice and students for the first six (6) hours. A program instructor also must ride in the vehicle with the apprentice and students to evaluate the apprentice during the final two (2) hours of the apprentice’s behind-the-wheel training.(3-28-23)

04.Instructors. The business licensee must ensure that only licensed driving instructors are allowed to teach in the program. A list of the instructors must accompany the application for approval.(3-28-23)

05.Recordkeeping. The business licensee must ensure that the program maintains progress records for each apprentice. A program instructor and the apprentice must sign and date the records each month, and copies of the records must be provided to the apprentice. The records must, at a minimum, identify each lesson completed, the number of hours of instruction involved in the lesson, the date the apprentice completed the lesson, the instructor who taught the lesson, and whether the apprentice passed.(3-28-23)

06.Certificate of Proficiency. The program must provide each apprentice with a certificate of proficiency evidencing all hours satisfactorily completed by the apprentice while in the program, and that the apprentice is proficient in all areas covered by the certificate.(3-28-23)

07.Discontinuance of Program. If the business licensee ceases to operate the program, the business licensee must provide the program’s current and prior apprentices with any progress or other records that the program is required to maintain under this Section. (3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.25.01.105 Continuing Education

01.Continuing Education (CE) Requirement.

Each Idaho licensed driving instructor must complete a minimum of eight (8) hours of continuing education every two years.(3-28-23)

a.A licensee is considered to have satisfied the CE requirements for the first renewal of the initial license.(3-28-23)

b.Prior to reinstatement of a license lapsed, canceled, or otherwise non-renewed for less than five (5) years, the applicant must provide proof of attendance of eight (8) hours of continuing education for the previous twelve (12) months.(3-28-23)

02.Providers/Sponsors/Subjects of Continuing Education. The continuing education must be provided by a nationally or regionally accredited college or university, a national or state driver education and traffic safety association such as the Idaho Association of Professional Driving Businesses, Driving School Association of the Americas, the American Driver Traffic Safety Education Association, and the American Automobile Association, transportation and law enforcement agencies, or other person or entity approved by the Board and must be germane to driver education. Courses taken on-line may be approved for continuing education if the courses require an exam or other proof of successful completion.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.25.01.106 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.25.01.300 Discipline

01.Grounds for Discipline. In ad dition to the grounds for discipline listed in Section 54-5408, Idaho Code, grounds for discipline also include violating any of the following standards of conduct that have been adopted by the Board:(3-28-23)

a.A licensee must not use fraud or deception in procuring or renewing, or in attempting to procure or renew, a license, permit, or other authorization issued by the Board.(3-28-23)

b.A licensee must not aid, abet, or assist any person or entity in conduct for which a license or permit is required under Idaho Driving Businesses Act, unless the person or entity has the required license or permit.

(3-28-23)

c.A licensee must comply with final orders of the Board issued in contested cases to which the licensee is a party.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.25.01.301 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.25.01.400 Fees

All fees are non-refundable.

(3 -28-23)

IDAPA 24.25.01.401 (Reserved)

FEE TYPE

AMOUNT

(Not to Exceed)

Application$25 Original Instructor License and Annual Renewal$25 Instructor Apprentice Permit$25 Original Business License and Annual Renewal$125 Reinstatement As provided in Section 67-2614, Idaho Code

24.28.01 Rules of the Barber and Cosmetology Services Licensing Board

IDAPA 24.28.01.000 Legal Authority

These rules are promulgated pursuant to Sections 54-5807, 54-581 1, 54-5818, and 54-5822, Idaho Code.(7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.28.01.001 Scope

These rules regulate the professions of barbering and cosmetology.(7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.28.01.002 Definitions

01.Clean. Remo val of debris, washing with soap and water, detergent or chemical “cleaner.” Cleaning prepares non-porous items for disinfection, but cleaning does not make multi-use items safe for use.(7-1-24)

02.Disinfect. The process of making a non-porous item safe for use. Disinfecting requires the use of a chemical intended to kill or denature a bacteria, virus or fungus. Items to be disinfected must be cleaned prior to disinfection. Ultraviolet (UV) light is not acceptable for disinfection.(7-1-24)

03.Disinfectant. Disinfectant registered by the United States Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) and is bactericidal, virucidal and fungicidal with effectiveness against staphylococcus aureus (including methicillinresistant staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)), human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and hepatitis B (HEPB). This includes EPA registered Sodium Hypochlorite 5.25% or higher (household bleach) with instructions for disinfection, diluted as instructed on the label and observing the contact time listed on the manufacturer’s label. Bleach must be active (not expired) with a manufacture date of less than six (6) months prior to use.(7-1-24)

04.First-Aid Kit. A packaged and identifiable assortment of medical supplies, including adhesive bandages, skin antiseptic, disposable gloves, and gauze.(7-1-24)

05.Mobile Establishment. A mobile establishment is a self-contained, enclosed vehicle, trailer, or portable structure that is licensed to provide barbering and cosmetology services outside of a fixed location. (7-1-26)

06.Single-Use. Any non-electrical item that cannot be properly cleaned and disinfected.(7-1-24)

07.Sterilize. The eradication of all microbial life through the use of heat, steam or chemical sterilants.

Items to be sterilized must be cleaned prior to sterilization.(7-1-24)

08.Sterilant. Autoclaves or dry heat sterilizers approved by and used in accordance with the United States Food and Drug Administration.(7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.28.01.003 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.28.01.100 Licensure

01.Approved Examination.

The National Interstate Council of State Boards of Cosmetology’s written and practical examinations.(7-1-24)

02.Additional Licensure Educational Requirements.(7-1-24)

a.Barber License. A currently licensed cosmetologist must complete one hundred (100) hours of barber-related instruction, to include barber theory, haircuts, and shaving.(7-1-24)

b.Barber-Stylist License. A currently licensed cosmetologist must complete one hundred (100) hours of barber-stylist instruction, to include barber theory, haircuts, and shaving.(7-1-24)

c.Cosmetologist License.(7-1-24)

i.A currently licensed barber-stylist must complete three hundred (300) hours of cosmetology instruction, to include nail technology, esthetics, cosmetology theory, and hairstyling.(7-1-24)

ii.A currently licensed barber must complete seven hundred (700) hours of cosmetology instruction, to include working on the hair with chemicals, nail technology, esthetics, cosmetology theory, and hairstyling.

iii.A currently licensed esthetician or nail technician must complete one thousand four hundred (1,400) hours of cosmetology instruction or two thousand eight hundred (2,800) hours as a cosmetology apprentice.

d.Out of State Licensure. A current licensee in another state, territory, possession or country, and who does not meet the qualifications for licensure through endorsement may be credited hours of instruction for practical work experience:(7-1-24)

i.Barber: One Hundred (100) hours as a student or two hundred (200) hours as an apprentice for every six (6) months of practical experience in barbering;(7-1-24)

ii.Barber-Stylist: Two hundred (200) hours as a student or four hundred (400) hours as an apprentice for every six (6) months of practical experience in barber-styling;(7-1-24)

iii.Cosmetologist: Two hundred (200) hours as a student or four hundred (400) hours as apprentice for every six (6) months of practical experience in cosmetology:(7-1-24)

iv.Electrologist: Forty (40) hours as a student or eighty (80) hours as an apprentice for every six (6) months of practical experience in electrology;(7-1-24)

v.Esthetician: Sixty (60) hours as a student or one hundred twenty (120) hours as an apprentice for every six (6) months of practical experience in esthetics;(7-1-24)

vi.Nail Technician: Forty (40) hours as a student or eighty (80) hours as an apprentice for every six (6) months in practical experience in nail technology.(7-1-24)

03.Establishment. An establishment may be licensed as primary or contiguous.(7-1-24)

a.An applicant for primary establishment licensure must provide proof of compliance with Rule 200.01.a. A primary establishment license will not be issued if it includes or overlaps any portion of an existing establishment license.(7-1-24)

b.An applicant for contiguous establishment licensure must certify that it is associated with and operates within a currently licensed primary establishment and the primary establishment license holder must certify that the primary establishment is equipped to meet all safety and disinfection requirements.(7-1-24)

c.Establishment licenses cannot be transferred. A change of location or a full change in ownership requires a new license application. In a multiple ownership establishment, an owner may be removed upon written statement by all owners, including the withdrawing owner.(7-1-24)

d.Mobile establishments must comply with all rules regarding licensure, safety, sanitation, disinfection, equipment, and waste disposal as set forth in Title 54, Chapter 58, Idaho Code, and these rules. The requirements of Subsection 200.01.a. for a permanent water source and restroom are satisfied for a mobile establishment if the mobile unit contains a functional sink with hot and cold running water and self-contained fresh water and waste water tanks. Mobile establishments may not be used for residential purposes or any other nonservice-related purpose. Mobile establishments must provide a phone number that can be reached during operating hours.

(7-1-26)

IDAPA 24.28.01.101 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.28.01.125 Out of Business

01.Submittal.

Whenever any establishment or facility ceases operation at the licensed location, the owner(s) or authorized agent of the establishment or facility shall notify the Board by submitting:(7-1-24)

a.A signed letter by the owner(s) or authorized agent advising that the establishment or facility is out of business; or(7-1-24)

b.The establishment or facility license bearing the signature of the owner(s) or authorized agent and marked out of business; or(7-1-24)

c.In the event that the Board has not been notified about the cessation of operations pursuant to this rule and documentation or evidence has been obtained that an establishment or facility has ceased operation at the licensed or registered location, the Board may cancel the license or facility registration upon a thirty (30) day written notice to the owner(s) or authorized agent of the establishment or facility.(7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.28.01.126 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.28.01.150 Education

01.Licensed Schools.

A licensed barber or cosmetology school must comply with the following:

a.The premises will provide adequate space, ventilation, lighting, facilities to safely accommodate all students, instructors, and customers and provide a restroom with a sink with hot and cold running water and drainage system. (7-1-24)

b.Instructors are permitted to teach subject matters only within the instructor’s licensed scope of practice. A cosmetology school teaching electrology will employ one (1) licensed electrologist instructor for every six (6) students being trained and require instructors to directly supervise the training.(7-1-24)

c.Curriculum. To obtain approval to teach a subject, a school must submit a curriculum and course catalog which complies with Section 54-5815, Idaho Code. Any proposed changes to a curriculum or catalog must be submitted to the Board for approval.(7-1-24)

i.A school may teach no more than fifty percent (50%) of its curriculum through distance education.

ii.For an esthetician, barber, barber stylist, or nail technician student, a licensed cosmetology school may credit eighty percent (80%) of accumulated hours, but no more than two hundred (200) hours, toward the required instructional hours for a cosmetology course.(7-1-24)

iii.A licensed cosmetology school may credit two hundred (200) hours toward the required instructional hours for a nail technology course or esthetics course for a cosmetology student.(7-1-24)

iv.Clinical work will be performed under the supervision of a licensed instructor.(7-1-24)

v.A student may receive up to thirty (30) hours of credit toward the required hours of instruction for instructor-approved activities occurring outside the school.(7-1-24)

d.A school will maintain a record of instruction for each student showing the classroom hours, the clinical hours, operations, and approved outside school activities completed each month in which the student is enrolled. The record of instruction will be provided to the student and maintained by the school for five (5) years from completion or termination. In the event of cessation of school operations, records of instruction will be provided to each enrolled student at or before the cessation of operations.(7-1-24)

e.Licenses may not be transferred; any change in ownership or location requires a new license application.(7-1-24)

02.Apprenticeships.(7-1-24)

a.An apprenticeship must be completed within the following period:(7-1-24)

i.Barber: fifty-seven (57) weeks;(7-1-24)

ii.Barber-Stylist: ninety-four (94) weeks;(7-1-24)

iii.Cosmetologist: one hundred four (104) weeks;(7-1-24)

iv.Estheticians/Electrologist: thirty-eight (38) weeks;(7-1-24)

v.Nail Technicians: twenty-five (25) weeks.(7-1-24)

b.Prior to beginning instruction, the instructor must submit and obtain Board approval of a curriculum which complies with Section 54-5815(1)(g), Idaho Code and Rule 150.02.a.(7-1-24)

c.An electrology apprentice may only work under the direct personal supervision of a licensed electrologist instructor. Instructors and supervisor licensees may teach or supervise work only within their licensed scope of practice. An apprentice cannot be permitted to render clinical services to patrons prior to completion of five percent (5%) of the required hours of instruction.(7-1-24)

d.An establishment or instructor under ongoing discipline may not supervise an apprentice. (7-1-24)

e.Recordkeeping. The establishment must maintain the daily work records for a period of five (5) years following the apprentice’s completion or termination. The apprentice must be provided access to the daily work records and be provided monthly progress reports.(7-1-24)

f.An apprentice who has discontinued an apprenticeship must apply for and receive a new registration prior to resuming instruction.(7-1-24)

g.Out of State Apprenticeship. An applicant who received instruction as an apprentice in another state must submit a summary or record of the out of state apprenticeship, including detailed information regarding operations and hours of instruction, which is certified by the relevant licensing agency or instructor(s).(7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.28.01.151 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.28.01.200 Practice Standards

01.Premises.( 7-1-24)

a. A primary establishment must have: (1) a clearly defined and designated working floor space that allows the safe and sanitary practice of cosmetology and/or barber-styling for all stations that may be in operation and provides safe access to restrooms and access areas; (2) a hot and cold running water source and drainage system that are within the perimeters of the primary establishment, separate from restroom facilities, and available to any contiguous establishment or facility that may exist; and (3) restrooms that are accessible from the building in which the primary establishment is located and from any contiguous establishments or facility that may exist and which contain hot and cold running water and drainage separate from the work area facilities. The license holder is responsible for complying with the safety and disinfection requirements and all other applicable statutes and rules for the designated licensed area of the primary establishment, including “common areas.”(7-1-24)

b. A contiguous establishment must operate only in the contiguous establishment designated areas within the associated primary establishment. The contiguous establishment license holder is responsible for complying with the safety and disinfection requirements and all other applicable statutes and rules for the contiguous designated area where it operates.(7-1-24)

c.Retail cosmetic dealers must have access to hot and cold running water; access to restroom facilities; disinfectants; single-use samples, wipes, spatulas or other dispensing techniques designed to prevent contamination of the cosmetic product; and a first-aid kit.(7-1-24)

02.Practice Outside of Licensed Establishment. Pursuant to Section 54-5804(2)(c), Idaho Code, a licensee or certificant can provide the following services outside of a licensed establishment:(7-1-24)

a.Hair Styling. Arranging, styling, and dressing of the hair. Trimming may be performed when incidental to the arranging, styling, or dressing, including facial hair such as beards, mustaches, and eyebrows.

b.Coloring. Wash out topical color, tinted powder, spray or chalk to temporarily camouflage hair.

c.Temporary Hair Removal. Tweezing of hairs on the face and neck.(7-1-24)

d.Cleansing. Cleansing the face for the limited purpose of removing makeup or debris and cosmetic preparations for the application of makeup.(7-1-24)

e.Nail Services. Application of nail polish by painting without the use of a lamp or light, removal of polish incidental to the painting of the nail, and shaping the nail with a single-use emery board.(7-1-24)

f.Makeup Application. Application of makeup.(7-1-24)

3. Safety And Disinfection for Establishments and Schools.(7-1-24)

a.Establishments and schools must be separated from living areas by substantial walls and/or closable doors. Floors, walls, ceilings, furniture, fixtures, and restrooms must be kept clean and in good repair at all times. A clearly identifiable first-aid kit must be readily accessible.(7-1-24)

b.All instruments and items used by operators must be thoroughly cleaned after each use and then disinfected with a disinfectant or sterilized with a sterilant after cleaning and prior to use on each patron. A disinfectant must be mixed and changed according to the manufacturer’s instructions. Disinfection methods of immersion, sprays, and wipes may be used. Contact time listed on the disinfectant’s label must be adhered to in all circumstances. Items or surfaces must remain completely immersed in disinfectant or visibly wet, if using sprays or wipes, for the full amount of contact time.(7-1-24)

c.Porous or single use instruments and items must be immediately disposed of in a trash container after each use on a patron or given to the patron to take home for personal use, provided that the instruments may not be brought back to the establishment for future use. Skin cutting instruments, including razor-type callus shavers, credo blades, or other rasps or graters which cut below the skin surface are not permitted in the establishment.

d.Paraffins, waxes and other multi-patron use products must be covered and maintained free of any foreign contaminants. Only disinfected or unused single-use items may be placed into a container that holds multipatron use products. These products must be portioned out for each patron in a container or dispensed in a manner that prevents contamination of the unused supply. All portions used on a patron must be disposed of immediately following use.(7-1-24)

e.Pedicure bowls, basins, tubs, drill bits, internal piping, and pumps must be cleaned and disinfected prior to each use as directed by the manufacturer.(7-1-24)

f. Operators and students must wash their hands with running water, soap and a single-use towel prior to providing service to any patron. When hand washing is not practicable, hand sanitizer of at least seventy percent (70%) alcohol may be used.(7-1-24)

g.No animals are allowed in shops or schools except service dogs, as defined by the U.S. Department of Justice Regulations, trained to do work or perform tasks for persons with disabilities.(7-1-24)

h.A current establishment and/or school license, valid operator license(s), a copy of these safety and disinfection rules, and a valid classification card must be conspicuously displayed in the work area of each establishment or school.(7-1-24)

04.Safety and Disinfection for Retail Cosmetics Dealer Facilities.(7-1-26)

a.Makeup that comes in a cake, loose, or liquid form must be transferred to a palette with a disinfected or single-use spatula for use with a single patron and in a manner to prevent any contamination. Excess make-up on the palette must be disposed of immediately following use.(7-1-24)

b.Make-up pencils that require a sharpener must be sharpened prior to each use. Sharpeners must be cleaned and disinfected in accordance with Rule 200.03.b. Eyeliner that does not require a sharpener must have a portion transferred to a palette with a disinfected or single-use spatula for use on a single customer.(7-1-24)

c.Single-use applicators must be used in the application of mascara.(7-1-24)

d. Implements and applicators, including brushes, used on customers or made available for use by customers must be stored, cleaned, and disinfected or discarded in accordance with Rule 200.03.b. and c.(7-1-24)

e. Make-up displays should be covered when not in use. When accessible for use by patrons, singleuse applicators must be readily available.(7-1-24)

f. A clearly identifiable first-aid kit must be readily accessible on the premises.(7-1-24)

g. A current license/registration, a copy of these safety and disinfection rules, and a valid classification card must be conspicuously displayed in the work area of each facility.(7-1-24)

05.Inspections.(7-1-26)

a.A facility, school, or establishment must make improvements within thirty (30) days of an unacceptable “C” classification inspection result. The Board may allow an establishment, school, or facility to continue to operate during that period. The Board may take action prior to any reinspection when the circumstances represent an immediate danger to the public health, safety, or welfare.(7-1-24)

b.Mobile establishments are subject to periodic and initial inspections by the Board. The license holder must permit the Board to inspect the mobile unit at any time during operating hours or as otherwise requested by the Board. A mobile salon shall submit to the Board, upon request, in a manner specified by the Board, an itinerary for a requested time period showing the dates, exact locations and times service is to be provided. Failure to provide accurate information may be determined to be a violation of Rule 200.06.h below.(7-1-26)

06.Unprofessional Conduct. The following practices constitute unprofessional conduct.(7-1-24)

a.Use of Methyl Methacrylate acid (MMA).(7-1-24)

b.Use of skin cutting instruments, including razor-type callus shavers, credo blades, or other rasps or graters which cut below the skin surface. The presence of such instruments creates a presumption of the instrument's

use.(7-1-24)

c.Use of ultraviolet (UV) sterilizers for disinfection. This does not prohibit the use of ultraviolet dryers or lamps used to dry or cure nail products.(7-1-24)

d.Use of roll-on wax, except that single-use roll-on wax cartridges are acceptable when they are limited to a single client service and disposed of immediately after use.(7-1-24)

e.Placing an item or instrument that has been used on a person or placing a person’s body part into a container that holds powder, wax, a compound, solution, or other cosmetic preparation that will be used for more than one (1) patron.(7-1-24)

f.Use of single-use or porous items on more than one (1) patron. The presence of used single-use or porous items, which have not been disposed of in a trash container, creates a presumption of the item’s use or intended use on more than one patron.(7-1-24)

g.Failure to adequately supervise, instruct, or train an apprentice.(7-1-24)

h.Interference with an inspection or investigation conducted by or on behalf of the Board.(7-1-24)

i.Performing a service on a patron who has an open sore or a known contagious disease of a nature that may be transmitted by performing the procedure.(7-1-24)

k.Performing services or using machines or devices outside the licensee’s area of training, expertise, competence, or scope of practice for the license held.(7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.28.01.201 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.28.01.400 Fees

All fees are non-refundable. Annual fees may be aggregated for biennial licensure.

(7-1-26)

IDAPA 24.28.01.401 (Reserved)

FEE TYPE

AMOUNT

(Not to Exceed)

ANNUAL

RENEWALFEE

(Not to Exceed)

Individual Original License or Certificate$30$30 Application$30 Instructor License$35$35 Establishment, Dealer, Facility License/Registration$25$25 School License$360$100 Apprentice Registration$30 Endorsement License$45 Reinstatement $35

24.04.01 Rules of the Board of Registration for Professional Geologists

IDAPA 24.04.01.000 Legal Authority

These rules are promulgated pursuant to Sections 54-2 808, 67-2604, 67-2614, 67-9409, and 67-9406, Idaho Code.

(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.04.01.001 Scope

These rules govern the practice of geology in Idaho.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.04.01.002 Definitions

01.Geologist-in-Training.

An individual who has met the academic qualifications established by the Board, who has successfully passed a written examination demonstrating knowledge of the Fundamentals of Geology, and who has been enrolled as a Geologist-in-Training by the Board.(7-1-25)

02.Responsible Position. A position in which a person, has independent control, direction, or supervision of a geological project, and who investigates and interprets geologic features.(7-1-25)

03.Responsible Charge. Control and direction of geology work, requiring initiative, professional skill, independent judgment, and professional knowledge of the content of relevant documents during their preparation.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.04.01.003 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.04.01.100 Licensure

1. Examination. Except as otherwise provided in statute, every Applicant for registration as a professional geologist shall take and pass the ASBOG Fundamentals of Geology and Practice of Geology Examinations. Applicants who have completed the educational requirements of Section 54-2812, Idaho Code, may be eligible to take the Fundamentals of Geology examination prior to graduation.(7-1-25)

a.Authorization.(7-1-25)

i.Not less than ninety (90) days prior to the examination date, the Applicant shall give written notice to the Board of the applicant’s intent to take the examination. Not less than thirty (30) days prior to the examination date, the Board shall notify each Applicant in writing of the acceptance or rejection of the application, and, if rejected by the Board, the reason for the rejection.(7-1-25)

b.Reexamination. An Applicant failing their first examination may apply for reexamination without filing a new Application and shall be entitled to such reexamination on payment of the reexamination fee.(7-1-25)

c.Scores. An Applicant for registration by examination must successfully pass both the Fundamentals of Geology examination and the Practice of Geology examination. The passing score is determined by ASBOG. An Applicant who has passed only the Fundamentals of Geology examination is eligible to receive a certificate as a Geologist-in-Training. An Applicant who has passed the Practice of Geology examination is eligible to apply for registration as a professional geologist.(7-1-25)

02.Geologist-In-Training. An Applicant who has passed the Fundamentals of Geology examination will receive a certificate of completion designating the Applicant as a Geologist-in-Training. A Geologist-in-Training shall not practice without supervision. Certification as a Geologist-in-Training is limited to ten (10) years.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.04.01.101 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.04.01.200 Practice Standards

01.Certificates. Certificates of registration are issued to each Registrant on forms adopted by the Board.(7-1-25)

02.Seals. The seal may be a rubber stamp, crimp, or electronically generated image. The Registrant’s signature and date are also included. A signature may be a handwritten or digital signature. If the signature is handwritten, it will be adjacent to or across the seal. No further words or wording are required. (See “Appendix A” at end of this Chapter.)(7-1-25)

a.The seal, signature, and date must be placed on all final specifications, reports, information, and calculations. A document that is not final and does not contain a seal, signature, and date will be marked as “Preliminary,” “Draft,” or “Not for Construction.”(7-1-25)

b.The seal, signature, and date must be placed on all original documents. The application of the Registrant’s seal, signature, and date constitutes certification that the work was done by the Registrant or under the Registrant’s supervision. Each plan or drawing sheet is sealed and signed by the Registrant or Registrants responsible for each sheet. In the case of a business entity, each plan or drawing sheet is sealed and signed by the Registrant or Registrants involved. The supervising professional geologist signs and seals the title or first sheet. Only the title page of reports, specifications, and like documents need bear the seal, signature, and date.(7-1-25)

c.In the event a Registrant in responsible charge of a project is not available to seal, sign, and date final documents, the duty of responsible charge for the project is accomplished by successor Registrant by becoming familiar with and reviewing, in detail, and retaining the project documents to date. Subsequent work on the project must clearly and accurately reflect the successor Registrant’s responsible charge. The successor Registrant must seal, sign, and date all work product.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.04.01.201 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.04.01.400 Fees

(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.04.01.401 (Reserved)

FEE TYPEAMOUNT

Application$100 Initial Certificate$20 Annual Renewal$100 Annual Renewal for Registrants  Seventy (70) Years of Age or Older One-half (1/2) of renewal fee Reinstatement$200, pursuant to Section 54-2816, Idaho Code Duplicate Certificate$20

APPENDIX A

SEAL OF REGISTERED PROFESSIONAL GEOLOGIST

Diameter of Outer Ring:1 1/2 Inches Diameter of Inner Ring:1 Inch

24.10.01 Rules of the State Board of Optometry

IDAPA 24.10.01.000 Legal Authority

These rules are promulgated pursuant to Section 54-1509, Idaho Code.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.10.01.001 Scope

These rules govern the practice of optometry in Idaho.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.10.01.002 Definitions

01.Low Vision.

Refer to Section 54-1501(5), Idaho Code, correcting defects may include low vision but is not limited to low vision rehabilitation.(3-28-23)

02.Opticianry. The professional practice of filling prescriptions from a licensed optometrist or ophthalmologist for ophthalmic lenses, contact lenses, and any other ophthalmic device used to improve vision.

Opticianry does not include prescriptive authority.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.10.01.003 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.10.01.100 Licensure and Registration

01.Method of Application- Examination of Applicants. Applications for license shall be made on forms approved by the Board.(3-28-23)

02.Application. The application must be accompanied by the required fee, a complete transcript of credits from any college of optometry attended, a photocopy of any diplomas granted by any college of optometry, and a copy of certified results establishing successful passage of the required examinations.(3-28-23)

03.Approved Exam. The written and the practical portions of the Idaho examination shall be parts one through three (1-3) of the National Board of Examiners in Optometry Examination (NBEOE). A passing grade for the NBEOE shall be that established by the test provider.(3-28-23)

04.Licensure by Endorsement. The right to be granted a license to practice optometry in Idaho is subject to the following conditions set out below:(3-28-23)

a.The submission of a completed application meeting the requirements of Subsection 100.02 including the applicable fee.(3-28-23)

b.That the license or certificate of registration of the applicant shall be in good standing with any state or country or not subject to any pending or unresolved licensure action in any state or country.(3-28-23)

c.For those licensed in another state the applicant must document to the Board for approval, the education, training, and examination for diagnostic and therapeutic privileges in the other state.(3-28-23)

05.Continuing Education In Optometry.(3-28-23)

a.Hours Required. Each optometrist licensed by the state of Idaho shall attend in each calendar year prior to license renewal, a minimum of eighteen (18) full hours of approved optometric continuing education courses or meetings. Licensees are responsible for choosing quality continuing education programs that focus on protecting the health and safety of the public and/or contributing to their germane profession.(3-28-23)

b.Courses. The Board allows credits to be asynchronous and synchronous that are germane to the practice of optometry. No more than nine (9) hours of continuing education shall be asynchronous.(3-28-23)

c.Audit. The Board may conduct audits to confirm that the continuing education requirements have been met. In the event a licensee fails to provide the Board with acceptable documentation of the hours attested to on the renewal application, the license will not be renewed.(3-28-23)

d.Documentation of Attendance. It shall be necessary for each licensed Idaho optometrist to provide documentation verifying attendance or completion of continuing education by securing authorized signatures, documentation, or electronic verification from the course instructors, providers, or sponsoring institution substantiating any hours attended by the licensee. This documentation must be maintained by the licensee and provided upon request by the Board or its agent.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.10.01.101 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.10.01.150 Approval of Schools of Optometry

The State Board of Optometry recog nizes as reputable and in good standing, the schools and colleges of optometry that have met the standards set by the Accreditation Council on Optometric Education, or its successor agency, a list of which may be obtained from the Division of Occupational and Professional Licenses website.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.10.01.151 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.10.01.200 Practice Standards

01.Standards of Professional Conduct. Li censees must comply with the following standards of professional conduct:(3-28-23)

a.Practicing optometry in a manner which meets the standard of optometric care provided by other qualified licensees in the same or similar community, taking into account education, training, and experience.

b.Employing only those techniques or methods of practice in treating or prescribing to a patient for which the licensee has the necessary education, training, and experience.(3-28-23)

c.Referring a patient suffering from any apparent or suspected pathological condition to a person competent and licensed to properly treat or diagnose the condition.(3-28-23)

d.Verifying the specifications of all lenses provided to a patient and advising a patient of possible danger when a lens provided to the patient does not meet impact resistant standards set forth in 21 CFR 801.410.

02.Vision Therapy. Any person who assesses, diagnoses, treats, or prescribes treatment for conditions of the visual system or manages a patient with vision therapy, visual training, visual rehabilitation, orthoptics or eye exercises or who holds him/herself out as being able to do so for the rehabilitation and/or treatment of physical, physiological, sensorimotor, neuromuscular or perceptual anomalies of the eyes or vision system or who prescribes or utilizes lenses, prisms, filters, occlusion or other devices for the enhancement, rehabilitation and/or treatment of the visual system or prevention of visual dysfunctions, except under the supervision and management of a licensed optometrist, is engaged in the practice of optometry.(3-28-23)

03.Prescriptions for Spectacles and Contact Lenses. Eyeglasses and contact lenses, including plano or cosmetic contact lenses, may only be dispensed upon a current prescription issued by an optometrist or medical physician. Every prescription written or issued by an optometrist practicing in Idaho shall contain at least the following information:(3-28-23)

a.Prescription for Spectacles. Prescriptions for spectacles must contain the following: Sphere, cylinder, axis, prism power, and additional power, if applicable. The standard expiration date of the prescription must be at least one (1) year from the date the prescription was originally issued.(3-28-23)

b.All Prescriptions for Rigid/Soft Contact Lenses. All prescriptions for contact lenses must contain at least the following information: base curve, lens manufacturer or “brand” name, overall diameter, power; and the standard expiration date of the prescription must be at least one (1) year from date the prescription was originally issued. A shorter prescription period may be allowed when based upon a documented medical condition.(3-28-23)

04.Expired Contact Lens Prescription. A person may not fill an expired contact lens prescription.

05.Fitting and Dispensing Contact Lenses.(3-28-23)

a.Contact lenses may be fitted only by an optometrist, or licensed physician.(3-28-23)

b.An ophthalmic dispenser may dispense contact lenses on a fully written contact lens prescription issued by an optometrist or licensed physician.(3-28-23)

c.Notwithstanding Subsection 200.05.b., an optometrist, or licensed physician who issues a contact lens prescription remains professionally responsible to the patient.(3-28-23)

06.Preceptorship Program. An optometrist may use a student of optometry in their office under their direct supervision for educational purposes.(3-28-23)

07.The Right to Obtain and Use Pharmaceutical Agents. The right to obtain and use pharmaceutical agents for use in diagnosis and/or treatment of another in the practice of optometry as defined by Section 54-1501, Idaho Code, is subject to the following conditions set out below:(3-28-23)

a.Optometrists can prescribe, administer, and dispense therapeutic pharmaceutical agents, and use only those listed below:(3-28-23)

i.All medications for use in the diagnosis of and/or conditions of the human eye and/or eyelid.

ii.All over-the-counter agents.(3-28-23)

b.In order to prescribe, administer and dispense the therapeutic medications a person must meet the requirements set out below:(3-28-23)

i.License in good standing, and successful passage of the “Treatment and Management of Ocular Diseases” exam.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.10.01.201 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.10.01.300 Discipline

In addition to the grounds for discipline set forth in Idaho Code, every person licensed by the Board is subject to discip line upon any of the following grounds:(3-28-23)

01.Gross Incompetence. Engaging in practice or behavior which demonstrates a manifest inability or unreasonable lack of professional skill to practice his or her profession, including performing procedures without having successfully completed the necessary education, training, or certification.(3-28-23)

02.Failing to Comply with Standards of Professional Conduct as set forth in these Rules.

03.Failing to Maintain Adequate Records. Adequate records mean legible records which contain, at a minimum, evidence of examination and treatment plan, copies of prescriptions issued to the patient or client and copies of statements of charges delivered or provided to the patient or client. Must be in compliance with the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPPA).(3-28-23)

04.Illegal Prescription Sale, Administration, Distribution, or Use of Drugs. Prescribing, selling, administering, distributing, giving, or using drugs legally classified as a controlled substance or as an addictive or dangerous drug for other than accepted diagnostic or therapeutic purposes.(3-28-23)

05.Other Discipline. Inability to obtain or renew a license or disciplinary action against a license to practice optometry by any other state or jurisdiction unless it can be shown that such action was not related to the competence of the person to practice optometry or to any conduct which constitutes grounds for discipline by the Board.(3-28-23)

06.Confidentiality. Failing to safeguard the confidentiality of patient records or other medical information pertaining to identifiable patients, except as required or authorized by law.(3-28-23)

07.Prescription and Records. Failure to release a spectacle or contact lens prescription to a patient or to transfer patient records to another provider when requested to do so by the patient or the patient’s legally designated representative.(3-28-23)

08.Failure to Cooperate. Failing to cooperate with the Board during any investigation or disciplinary proceeding, even if such investigation or disciplinary proceeding does not personally concern the particular licensee.

IDAPA 24.10.01.301 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.10.01.400 Fees

IDAPA 24.10.01.401 (Reserved)

FEE TYPE

AMOUNT

(Not to Exceed)

License Application$100 Annual Fund$75 Annual Renewal$75 Reinstatement As provided in Section 67-2614, Idaho Code

24.21.01 Rules of the Idaho State Contractors Board

IDAPA 24.21.01.000 Legal Authority

These rules are promulgated pursuant to Sections 54-5 206, 67-2604, 67-2614, 67-9409, and 67-9406 Idaho Code.

(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.21.01.001 Scope

These rules govern the practice and registration of construction and contractors in Idaho.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.21.01.002 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.21.01.100 Registration

The applicant must provide or facilitate the provision of any supplemental third-party documents that may be required.(7-1-25)

01.Additional Qualifications for Registration. Applicants for registration must meet the following qualifications in addition to those set forth in Section 54-5210, Idaho Code and these rules.(7-1-25)

a.Felony Conviction. Not have been convicted of any felony in a state or federal court; provided the applicant may make written request to the board for an exemption review to determine the applicant's suitability for registration, which the board determines in accordance with the following:(3-28-23)

b.Exemption Review. The exemption review consists of a review of any documents relating to the felony and any supplemental information provided by the applicant bearing upon his suitability for registration. The board may, at its discretion, grant an interview of the applicant. The applicant bears the burden of establishing suitability for registration.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.21.01.101 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.21.01.400 Fees

Annual fees may be aggregated for biennial licensure.

(7-1-26)

IDAPA 24.21.01.401 (Reserved)

FEE TYPE

AMOUNT

(Not to Exceed)

Application (includes original registration)$60 Reciprocal$60 Renewal$60 Reinstatement$40 Inactive$0 Inactive to Active License The difference between the inactive fee and active license renewal fee

24.31.01 Rules of the Idaho Board of Dentistry

IDAPA 24.31.01.000 Legal Authority

This Chapter is adopted under the legal authority of Chapter 9, Title 54, Idaho Code.(7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.31.01.001 Scope

The rules constitute the minimum requirements for licensure an d regulation of dentists, dental hygienists, and dental therapists.(7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.31.01.002 Incorporation by Reference

Pursuant to Section 67-5229, Idaho Code, this chapter incorporates by reference the following documents available on the Board’s website:(7-1-24)

01.Professional Standards.(7-1-24)

a.AAOMS, Office Anesthesia Evaluation Manual, 8th Edition, 2012.(7-1-24)

b.CDC, Guidelines for Infection Control in Dental Health-Care Settings, 2003.(7-1-24)

c.ADA, Principles of Ethics, Code of Professional Conduct and Advisory Opinions, January 2009.

d.ADHA Hygienists’ Association, Standards for Clinical Dental Hygiene Practice, 2016.(7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.31.01.003 Abbreviations

01.ADA. American Dental Association.(7-1-24)

02.ADHA. American Dental Hygienists Association.(7-1-24)

03.AAOMS. American Association of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgeons.(7-1-24)

04.BLS. Basic Life Support.(7-1-24)

05.CDC. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention.(7-1-24)

06.CODA. Commission on Dental Accreditation.(7-1-24)

07.INBDE. Integrated National Board Dental Examination.(7-1-24)

08.NBDHE. National Board Dental Hygiene Examination.(7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.31.01.004 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.31.01.100 Licensure

01.Requirements For Licensure.

a.Applicants for licensure must furnish proof of graduation from a program in dentistry, dental hygiene, or dental therapy accredited by CODA at the time of applicant's graduation.(7-1-24)

b.Applicants for initial licensure will provide proof of current BLS certification. Practicing licensees must maintain current BLS certification.(7-1-24)

02.Examinations For Licensure.(7-1-24)

a.Written Examination. Applicants for dentistry and dental hygiene are required to pass the INBDE or NBDHE. Dental therapists must successfully complete a board-approved written examination.(7-1-24)

b.Clinical Examination. Applicants for general dentistry, dental hygiene or dental therapy are required to pass a Board-approved clinical examination upon such subjects as specified by the Board. Applicants for dental hygiene and dental therapy must pass a board-approved clinical local anesthesia examination. Clinical examination results will be valid for licensure by examination for a period of (5) five years from the date of successful completion of the examination.(7-1-24)

03.Dental Hygienists – License Endorsements. The Board may grant license endorsements to qualified dental hygienists as follows:(7-1-24)

a. Restorative Endorsement. Notwithstanding any other provision of these rules, a qualified dental hygienist holding a restorative endorsement may perform specified restorative functions under the direct supervision of a dentist. Permissible restorative functions under this endorsement are limited to the placement of a direct restoration into a tooth prepared by a dentist and the carving, contouring and adjustment of the contacts and occlusion of the restoration. Upon application, the Board may grant a restorative endorsement to a person holding an unrestricted active status dental hygienist's license issued by the Board who provides satisfactory proof that the following requirements are met:(7-1-24)

i.The person has successfully completed a clinical restorative examination approved by the Board; and(7-1-24)

ii.The person has not been disciplined by the Board or another licensing authority.(7-1-24)

b.Renewal. A person meeting all other requirements for renewal of a license to practice dental hygiene is also entitled to renewal of a license endorsement for the effective period of the license. An endorsement immediately expires and is cancelled at such time as a person no longer holds an unrestricted active status dental hygienist's license issued by the Board.(7-1-24)

04.Licensure Of Dental Specialists.(7-1-24)

a.Requirements for Specialty Licensure. Each applicant for specialty licensure must have graduated from a CODA accredited dental school and successfully completed a CODA accredited postdoctoral advanced dental education program of at least two full-time academic years.(7-1-24)

b.Examination. Examination requirements for applicants who have met the requirements for licensure as a specialist:(7-1-24)

i.Passed a general licensure examination acceptable to the Board or,(7-1-24)

ii.If passed a general licensure examination not acceptable to the Board, passed a specialty examination or, (7-1-24)

iii.Be certified by the American Board of that particular specialty as of the date of application for specialty licensure.(7-1-24)

05.Moderate Sedation, General Anesthesia And Deep Sedation. Dentists licensed in the state of Idaho may administer moderate sedation, general anesthesia, or deep sedation once they have obtained a permit from the Board. A dentist may not administer moderate sedation to children under sixteen (16) years of age and one hundred (100) pounds unless they have qualified for and been issued a moderate parenteral sedation permit. A moderate enteral sedation permit authorizes dentists to administer sedation by either enteral or combination inh alation-enteral routes of administration. A moderate parenteral, general anesthesia, or deep sedation permit authorizes a dentist to administer sedation by any route of administration. The qualified dentist is responsible for the sedative management, adequacy of the facility and staff, diagnosis and treatment of emergencies related to the administration of moderate sedation, general anesthesia, or deep sedation and providing the equipment, drugs and protocol for patient rescue.(7-1-24)

a.Training Requirements. For Moderate Sedation Permits, completion of training in the administration of moderate sedation to a level consistent with requirements established by the Board within the five (5) year period immediately prior to the date of application. For General Anesthesia and Deep Sedation Permits, completion of an advanced education program accredited by CODA that affords comprehensive training necessary to administer and manage deep sedation or general anesthesia within the five (5) year period immediately preceding the date of application. The five (5) year requirement is not applicable to applicants who hold an equivalent permit in another state which has been in effect for the twelve (12) month period immediately prior to the application date.

Qualifying training courses must be sponsored by or affiliated with a dental school accredited by CODA, or be approved by the Board.(7-1-24)

b.Permit Renewal. Before the expiration date of a permit, the board will provide notice of renewal to the licensee. Failure to timely submit a renewal application and permit fee shall result in expiration of the permit and termination of the licensee's right to administer sedation. Failure to submit a complete renewal application and permit fee within thirty (30) days of expiration of the permit shall result in cancellation of the permit. Renewal of the permit will be required every five (5) years. Proof of a minimum of twenty-five (25) continuing education credit hours in sedation which may include training in medical/office emergencies will be required to renew a permit.(7-1-24)

c.Reinstatement. A dentist may apply for reinstatement of a canceled or surrendered permit issued by the Board within five (5) years of the date of the permit's cancellation or surrender. Applicants for reinstatement of a sedation permit must satisfy the facility and personnel requirements and verify they have obtained an average of five (5) continuing education credit hours in sedation for each year subsequent to the date upon which the permit was canceled or surrendered. A fee for reinstatement will be assessed.(7-1-24)

06.Continuing Education Requirements. A licensee renewing an active status license shall report 30 oral health/health-related continuing education hour credits to the Board of verifiable CE or volunteer practice.

IDAPA 24.31.01.101 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.31.01.200 Practice Standards

01.Dental Hygienists – Practice. D ental hygienists are authorized under the supervision of a licensed dentist to perform dental hygiene services for which they are educated and trained unless prohibited by these rules.

02.Dental Hygienists – Prohibited Practice.(7-1-24)

a.Diagnosis and Treatment. Definitive diagnosis and dental treatment planning.(7-1-24)

b.Operative Preparation. The operative preparation of teeth for the placement of restorative materials.

c.Intraoral Placement or Carving. The intraoral placement or carving of restorative materials unless authorized by issuance of a restorative endorsement.(7-1-24)

d.Anesthesia. Administration of any general anesthesia or moderate sedation.(7-1-24)

e.Final Placement. Final placement of any fixed or removable appliances.(7-1-24)

f.Final Removal. Final removal of any fixed appliance.(7-1-24)

g.Cutting Procedures. Cutting procedures utilized in the preparation of the coronal or root portion of the tooth, or cutting procedures involving the supportive structures of the tooth.(7-1-24)

h.Root Canal. Placement of the final root canal filling.(7-1-24)

i.Occlusal Equilibration Procedures. Occlusal equilibration procedures for any prosthetic restoration, whether fixed or removable.(7-1-24)

j.Other Final Placement. Final placement of prefabricated or cast restorations or crowns.(7-1-24)

03.Dental Assistants – Practice. Dental assistants are authorized to perform dental services for which they are trained unless prohibited by these rules. Dental assistants must be directly supervised by a dentist when performing intraoral procedures except when providing palliative care as directed by the supervising dentist. (7-1-24)

a.Prohibited Duties. A dental assistant is prohibited from performing the following duties:(7-1-24)

i.The intraoral placement or carving of permanent restorative materials.(7-1-24)

ii.Any irreversible procedure.(7-1-24)

iii.The administration of any sedation or local injectable anesthetic.(7-1-24)

iv.Removal of calculus.(7-1-24)

v.Use of an air polisher.(7-1-24)

vi.Any intra-oral procedure using a high-speed handpiece, except for the removal of orthodontic cement or resin.(7-1-24)

vii.Any dental hygiene prohibited duty.(7-1-24)

04.Dental Therapists – Practice. Dental therapists are authorized to perform activities specified by the supervising dentist who practices in the same practice setting in conformity with a written collaborative practice agreement at the supervision levels set forth in the agreement.(7-1-24)

05.Dental Therapists – Prohibited Practice.(7-1-24)

a.Sedation. Administration of minimal, moderate or deep sedation or general anesthesia except as otherwise allowed by these rules;(7-1-24)

b.Cutting Procedures. Cutting procedures involving the supportive structures of the tooth including both the soft and hard tissues.(7-1-24)

c.Periodontal Therapy. Periodontal scaling and root planing, including the removal of subgingival calculus.(7-1-24)

d.All Extractions with Exception. All extractions except:(7-1-24)

i.Under direct supervision.(7-1-24)

ii.Non-surgical extractions.(7-1-24)

e.Under general supervision or as specified in Subsection 200.04.(7-1-24)

i.Removal of periodontally diseased teeth with class III mobility.(7-1-24)

ii.Removal of coronal remnants of deciduous teeth.(7-1-24)

f.Root Canal Therapy.(7-1-24)

g.All Fixed and Removable Prosthodontics (except stainless steel crowns).(7-1-24)

h.Orthodontics.(7-1-24)

06.Limitation of Practice. No dentist may announce or otherwise hold himself out to the public as a specialist unless he has been issued a specialty license. Any individual granted a specialty license must limit his practice to the specialty(s) in which he is licensed.(7-1-24)

07.Specialty Advertising. The specialty advertising rules are intended to allow the public to be informed about dental specialties and to require appropriate disclosures to avoid misperceptions on the part of the public. An advertisement may not state that a licensee is a specialist unless the licensee has been granted a license in that specialty area of dental practice by the Board. A licensee who has not been granted a specialty license by the Board may advertise as being qualified in a recognized specialty area of dental practice so long as each such advertisement, regardless of form, contains a prominent, clearly worded disclaimer that the licensee is “licensed as a general dentist”. A licensee may not advertise as being a specialist in or as specializing in any area of dental practice which is not a Board recognized and licensed specialty area unless the advertisement, regardless of form, contains a prominent, clearly worded disclaimer that the advertised area of dental practice is not recognized as a specialty area of dental practice by the Idaho Board of Dentistry. Any disclaimer in a written advertisement shall be in the same font style and size as that in the listing of the specialty area.(7-1-24)

08.Patient Records. A record must be maintained for each person receiving dental services, regardless of whether any fee is charged. Records must be in the form of an acronym such as “PARQ” (Procedure, Alternatives, Risks and Questions) or “SOAP” (Subjective Objective Assessment Plan) or their equivalent. Patient records must be maintained for no less than seven (7) years from the date of last entry unless: the patient requests the records be transferred to another dentist who will maintain the records, the dentist gives the records to the patient, or the dentist transfers the dentist's practice to another dentist who will maintain the records.(7-1-24)

09.Infection Control. Licensees and dental assistants must comply with current CDC infection control guidelines related to personal protective equipment, instrument sterilization, sterilizing device testing, disinfection of non-critical and clinical contact surfaces, and contaminated waste disposal. Heat sterilizing devices must be tested each calendar week in which patients are treated. Testing results must be retained by the licensee for the current calendar year and the two preceding calendar years.(7-1-24)

10.Emergency Medications Or Drugs. The following emergency medications or drugs are required in all sites where anesthetic agents of any kind are administered: anti-anaphylactic agent, antihistaminic, aspirin, bronchodilator, coronary artery vasodilator, and glucose.(7-1-24)

11.Local Anesthesia. Dental offices in which local anesthesia is administered to patients shall, at a minimum, have and maintain suction equipment capable of aspirating gastric contents from the mouth and pharynx, a portable oxygen delivery system including full face masks and a bag-valve mask combination capable of delivering positive pressure, oxygen-enriched ventilation to the patient, a blood pressure cuff of appropriate size and a stethoscope.(7-1-24)

12.Nitrous Oxide/Oxygen. Persons licensed to practice and dental assistants trained in accordance wit h these rules may administer nitrous oxide/oxygen to patients. Dental offices where nitrous oxide/oxygen is administered to patients must have the following: a fail-safe nitrous oxide delivery system that is maintained in working order; a scavenging system; and a positive-pressure oxygen delivery system suitable for the patient being treated.(7-1-24)

13.Minimal Sedation. Persons licensed to practice dentistry may administer minimal sedation to patients of sixteen (16) years of age or older. When the intent is minimal sedation, the appropriate dosing of a single enteral drug is no more than the maximum FDA-recommended dose for unmonitored home use. In cases where the patient weighs less than one hundred (100) pounds, or is under the age of sixteen (16) years, minimal sedation may be administered without a permit by use of nitrous oxide, or with a single enteral dose of a sedative agent administered in the dental office.(7-1-24)

14.Use of Other Anesthesia Personnel. A dentist who does not hold a sedation permit may perform dental procedures in a dental office on a patient who receives sedation induced by an anesthesiologist, a certified registered nurse anesthetist, or another dentist with a sedation permit. The qualified sedation provider who induces sedation will monitor the patient's condition until the patient is discharged. The sedation record must be maintained in the patient's dental record and is the responsibility of the dentist who is performing the dental procedures. A dentist who intends to use the services of a qualified sedation provider must notify the Board in writing of his intent. Such notification need only be submitted once every licensing period. (7-1-24)

15.Incident Reporting. Dentists must report to the Board, in writing, within seven (7) days after the death or transport to a hospital or emergency center for medical treatment for a period exceeding twenty-four (24) hours of any patient.(7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.31.01.201 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.31.01.300 Discipline

01.Suspension, Revocation Or Restriction Of Sedation Permit.

The Board may, at any time and for just cause, institute proceedings to revoke, suspend, or otherwise restrict a sedation permit. If the Board determines that emergency action is necessary to protect the public, summary suspension may be ordered pending further proceedings. Proceedings to suspend, revoke or restrict a permit shall be subject to applicable statutes and rules governing administrative procedures before the Board.(7-1-24)

02.Unprofessional Conduct. A licensee shall not engage in unprofessional conduct in the course of their practice. Unprofessional conduct by a person licensed under the provisions of Title 54, Chapter 9, Idaho Code, is defined as, but not limited to, any of the following:(7-1-24)

a.Fraud. Obtaining fees by fraud or misrepresentation, or over-treatment either directly or through an insurance carrier.(7-1-24)

b.Unlicensed Practice. Employing directly or indirectly any suspended or unlicensed individual as defined in Title 54, Chapter 9, Idaho Code.(7-1-24)

c.Unlawful Practice. Aiding or abetting licensed persons to practice unlawfully.(7-1-24)

d.Dividing Fees. A dentist shall not divide a fee for dental services with another party, who is not a partner or associate in their practice of dentistry, unless:(7-1-24)

i.The patient consents to employment of the other party after a full disclosure that a division of fees will be made;(7-1-24)

ii.The division is made in proportion to the services performed and responsibility assumed by each dentist or party.(7-1-24)

e.Prescription Drugs. Prescribing or administering prescription drugs not reasonably necessary for, or within the scope of, providing dental services for a patient. A dentist may not prescribe or administer prescription drugs to themself. A dentist shall not use controlled substances as an inducement to secure or maintain dental patronage or aid in the maintenance of any person's drug addiction by selling, giving or prescribing prescription drugs.(7-1-24)

f.Harassment. The use of threats or harassment to delay or obstruct any person in providing evidence in any possible or actual disciplinary action, or other legal action; or the discharge of an employee primarily based on the employee's attempt to comply with the provisions of Title 54, Chapter 9, Idaho Code, or the Board's Rules, or to aid in such compliance.(7-1-24)

g.Discipline in Other States. Conduct themself in such manner as results in a suspension, revocation, or other disciplinary proceedings with respect to their license in another state.(7-1-24)

h.Altering Records. Alter a patient's record with intent to deceive.(7-1-24)

i.Office Conditions. Unsanitary or unsafe office conditions, as determined by the customary practice and standards of the dental profession in the state of Idaho and CDC guidelines as incorporated by reference in these rules.

j.Aban donment of Patients. Abandonment of patients by licensees before the completion of a phase of treatment, as such phase of treatment is contemplated by the customary practice and standards of the dental profession in the state of Idaho, without first advising the patient of such abandonment and of further treatment that is necessary.(7-1-24)

k.Use of Intoxicants. Practicing while under the influence of an intoxicant or controlled substance where the same impairs the licensee’s ability to practice with reasonable and ordinary care.(7-1-24)

l.Mental or Physical Condition. The inability to practice with reasonable skill and safety to patients by reason of age, illness, or as a result of any mental or physical condition.(7-1-24)

m.Consent. Revealing personally identifiable facts, data or information obtained in a professional capacity without prior consent of the patient, except as authorized or required by law.(7-1-24)

n.Scope of Practice. Practicing or offering to practice beyond the scope permitted by law, or accepting and performing professional responsibilities that the licensee knows or has reason to know that he or she is not competent to perform.(7-1-24)

o.Delegating Duties. Delegating professional responsibilities to a person when the licensee delegating such responsibilities knows, or with the exercise of reasonable care and control should know, that such a person is not qualified by training or by licensure to perform them.(7-1-24)

p.Unauthorized Treatment. Performing professional services that have not been authorized by the patient or his legal representative.(7-1-24)

q.Supervision. Failing to exercise appropriate supervision over persons who are authorized to practice only under the supervision of a licensed professional.(7-1-24)

r.Legal Compliance. Failure to comply with any provisions of federal, state or local laws, statutes, rules, and regulations governing or affecting the practice of dentistry, dental hygiene, or dental therapy.(7-1-24)

s.Exploiting Patients. Exercising undue influence on a patient in such manner as to exploit a patient for the financial or personal gain of a practitioner or of a third party.(7-1-24)

t.Misrepresentation. Willful misrepresentation of the benefits or effectiveness of dental services.

u.Disclosure. Failure to advise patients or their representatives in understandable terms of the treatment to be rendered, alternatives, the name and professional designation of the provider rendering treatment, and disclosure of reasonably anticipated fees relative to the treatment proposed.(7-1-24)

v.Sexual Misconduct. Making suggestive, sexual or improper advances toward any person or committing any lewd or lascivious act upon or with any person in the course of dental practice.(7-1-24)

w.Patient Management. Use of unreasonable and/or damaging force to manage patients, including but not limited to hitting, slapping or physical restraints.(7-1-24)

x.Compliance Professional Standards. Failure to comply with professional standards applicable to the practice of dentistry, dental hygiene, or dental therapy as incorporated by reference in this chapter.(7-1-24)

y.Failure to Provide Records to a Patient or Patient's Legal Guardian. Refusal or failure to provide a patient or patient's legal guardian with records within five (5) business days. A patient or patient's legal guardian may not be denied a copy of his records for any reason, regardless of whether the person has paid for the dental services rendered.

A person may be charged for the actual cost of providing the records but in no circumstances may a person be charged an additional processing or handling fee or any charge in addition to the actual cost.(7-1-24)

z.Failure to Cooperate with Authorities. Failure to cooperate with authorities in the investigation of any alleged misconduct or interfering with a Board investigation by willful misrepresentation of facts, willful failure to provide information upon request of the Board, or the use of threats or harassment against any patient or witness to prevent them from providing evidence.(7-1-24)

aa.Advertising. Advertise in a way that is false, deceptive, misleading or not readily subject to verification.(7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.31.01.301 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.31.01.400 Fees

01.Application and License Fees. Fee s are as follows:

(7-1-26)

IDAPA 24.31.01.401 (Reserved)

License/Permit TypeApplication FeeLicense/Permit Fee Dentist/Dental SpecialistNot more than $300Not more than $375 Dental HygienistNot more than $150Not more than $175 Dental TherapistNot more than $200Not more than $250 Sedation PermitNot more than $300$300

24.33.07 Rules of the Licensure Of Dietitians

IDAPA 24.33.07.000 Legal Authority

These rules are promulgated pursuant to Sectio n 54-3505 and 54-3509, Idaho Code.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.33.07.001 Scope

These rules govern the practice of dietetics in Idaho.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.33.07.002 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.33.07.100 Licensure

01.Provisional License.

The Board may issue a provisional license to a person who has met all the other requirements set forth in Title 54, Chapter 35, Idaho Code but who has not yet passed the examination conducted by the Commission on Dietetic Registration. All provisional licenses will expire one (1) year after issuance. The Board may grant an extension for one (1) additional year upon request. The provisionally licensed dietitian must obtain an affidavit signed by an Idaho licensed dietitian affirming and attesting that they will be responsible for the activities of the provisionally licensed dietitian and will review and countersign all patient documentation signed by the provisionally licensed dietitian. The supervising monitor need not be physically present or on the premises at all times but must be available for telephonic consultation. The extent of communication between the monitor and the provisionally licensed dietitian will be determined by the competency of the individual, the treatment setting, and the diagnostic category of the patients.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.33.07.101 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.33.07.400 Fees

Fees are as follows:

( 7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.33.07.401 (Reserved)

Fees – Table (Non-Refundable)

Initial Licensure Fee -Not more than $150 Annual Renewal Fee-Not more than $100 Reinstatement Fee-$50 plus unpaid renewal fees

24.38.01 Rules of the State of Idaho Board of Veterinary Medicine

IDAPA 24.38.01.000 Legal Authority

This chapter is adopted under the legal authority of Title 54, Chapter 21, Idaho Code.(7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.38.01.001 Scope

The rules govern the licensing procedures, supervision requirements, standards of practice, inspections, and grounds for discipline of veterinarians, veterinary technicians, Committee on Humane Euthanasia members, and certified euthanasia technicians and agencies.(7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.38.01.002 Incorporation by Reference

The Principles of Veterinary Medical Ethics of the American Veterinary Medical Association (AVMA), as adopted and revised April 2016, is incorporated herein by reference in accordance with the provisions of Section 67-5229, Idaho Code.(7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.38.01.003 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.38.01.100 Licensure

01.Certification Of Veterinary Technicians.

a.Certificate Required. Any person representing themselves as a licensed, registered, or certified veterinary technician, shall hold a valid, unexpired certificate to practice veterinary technology in Idaho.(7-1-24)

b.Application for Certification. An individual desiring to be certified as a veterinary technician shall make written application, available online, to the Board.(7-1-24)

02.Foreign Veterinary Graduate. The Board may issue a license to applicants who are graduates of nonaccredited foreign colleges of veterinary medicine who possess a certificate issued by the American Veterinary Medical Association Educational Commission for Foreign Veterinary Graduates (ECFVG) or a certificate issued by the Program for the Assessment of Veterinary Education Equivalence (PAVE) as administered by the American Association of Veterinary State Boards (AAVSB).(7-1-24)

03.Certified Euthanasia Agency. In order to be certified to purchase and store approved drugs, certified euthanasia agencies shall be inspected by the Board in accordance with the standards promulgated by the Committee on Humane Euthanasia and approved by the Board. The approved standards will be made available online to the public.(7-1-24)

04.Certified Euthanasia Technician.(7-1-24)

a.Training and Examinations. Qualifying training courses must be sponsored by or affiliated with a veterinary medicine school accredited by the AVMA or be approved by the Board.(7-1-24)

05.Continuing Education. A renewing a licensee shall report fifteen (15) hours of completed continuing education to the Board.(7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.38.01.101 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.38.01.200 Practice Standards

01.Supervising Veterinarians:

a.Provide direct supervision for all procedures pertaining to the practice of veterinary medicine with the exception of:(7-1-24)

i.Routine procedures in the practice of veterinary technology performed under indirect supervision of the veterinarian.(7-1-24)

ii.Previously prescribed medications and vaccines, administered, dispensed, and delivered under the indirect supervision of the veterinarian. This does not include injectable controlled substances, injectable tranquilizers, injectable sedatives, and injectable or inhalant anesthetics, which may only be administered under the direct supervision of the veterinarian.(7-1-24)

iii.Emergency situations in which the veterinarian, while en route to the location of the distressed animal, may prescribe treatment and delegate appropriate procedures.(7-1-24)

b.Examines the patient prior to the delegation of any animal health care task. The examination shall be conducted at such times as acceptable veterinary medical practice dictates, consistent with the particular delegated animal health care task.(7-1-24)

c.May delegate to a certified veterinary technician under direct supervision to perform tooth extraction procedures.(7-1-24)

02.Veterinarian/Client/Patient Relationship. A veterinarian shall establish a valid veterinarian/ client/patient relationship. Such relationship will exist when:(7-1-24)

a.The veterinarian has assumed the responsibility for making medical judgments regarding the health of the animal and the need for medical treatment.(7-1-24)

b.There is sufficient knowledge of the animal by the veterinarian to initiate at least a general or preliminary diagnosis of the medical condition of the animal, either by virtue of an examination of the animal, or by medically appropriate visits to the premises where the animals are maintained within a minimum of the last twelve (12) months.(7-1-24)

03.Record Keeping. Every veterinarian shall maintain detailed daily medical records. Medical records shall include, at a minimum: the name, address, and phone number of the animal’s owner or other caretaker; the name and description, sex (if readily determinable), breed, and age of the animal, or description of the group; dates (beginning and ending of custody of the animal; a short history of the animal’s condition as it pertains to the animal’s condition and diagnosis suspected; all medications, treatments, prescriptions, or prophylaxis given, including amount, frequency, and route of administration for both inpatient and outpatient care; diagnostic and laboratory tests or techniques utilized, and results of each; written documented evidence of continuous monitoring of all anesthetized animals. Records shall be readily retrievable to be inspected, duplicated, or submitted when requested by the Board. All records shall be safeguarded against loss, defacement, tampering, and use by unauthorized personnel. If changes are made to any records the records must clearly reflect what the change is, who made the change, when the change was made, and why. Records shall be maintained for a period of three (3) years following the last treatment or examination. Patient medical records shall be maintained for every animal accepted and treated as an individual patient by a veterinarian, or for every animal group (for example, herd, litter, and flock) treated by a veterinarian. (7-1-24)

04.Preservation of Patient's Body. Where possible preserve for twenty-four (24) hours the body of any patient that dies while in the veterinarian’s care until the owner can be contacted, except as otherwise provided by law. The time of contact or attempted contact with the owner shall be documented in the medical record. The veterinarian is allowed to use the usual manner of disposal if the owner has not made pick-up arrangements within twenty-four (24) hours of the documented contact time.(7-1-24)

05.Consent for Treatment or Transporting. A veterinarian shall obtain written consent from a patient’s owner or other caretaker before treating or transporting a patient to another facility for veterinary medical care or any other reason, unless circumstances qualifying as an emergency do not permit obtaining such consent.

06.Refusal to Render Services. A veterinarian has the right to refuse to render veterinary medical services for any reason, or refuse an owner’s request to euthanize a healthy or treatable animal.(7-1-24)

07.Immunization. When the primary objective is to protect the patient’s health and a professionally acceptable immunization procedure is being sought, an examination is required, unless the animal has been examined within the twelve (12) months, except in the practice of large animal medicine where mass immunizations of animal herds is involved or when immunization is performed by the patient’s owner. (7-1-24)

08.Procurement And Administration Of Euthanasia Drugs. In order for a certified euthanasia agency to obtain approved drugs for euthanizing animals and a certified euthanasia technician to administer such drugs:(7-1-24)

a.A certified euthanasia agency (CEA) shall appoint a person who will be responsible for ordering the approved drugs and who shall submit an application for the agency’s registration to the Drug Enforcement Agency (DEA). The CEA shall also designate a certified euthanasia technician (CET) who will be responsible for the security of the agency’s approved drugs.(7-1-24)

b.Each CET employed by the agency shall apply for a controlled substance registration from the Idaho Board of Pharmacy under their individual name and using the CEA’s DEA registration number.(7-1-24)

09.Ownership of Medical Records. Medical records including diagnostic images are the personal property of the hospital or the proprietor of the practice that prepares them. Other veterinarians, including those providing subsequent health needs for a patient, and the patient’s owner may receive a copy of the patient’s medical record, upon the request of the patient’s owner or other caretaker. A diagnostic image shall be released upon the request of another veterinarian who has the authorization of the owner of the animal or to the Board. Records shall be supplied within three (3) business days, counting the day of the request if a business day and shall be returned within a reasonable time to the veterinarian who originally ordered them prepared.(7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.38.01.201 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.38.01.300 Discipline

01.Grounds For Discipline Of Veterinary Technicians.

The Board may take administrative action or other discipline against certified veterinary technicians, certified euthanasia agencies, or certified euthanasia technicians for any action that would otherwise constitute grounds for discipline for a veterinarian under any applicable provision under Section 54-2115, Idaho Code, or Section 54-2118, Idaho Code.(7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.38.01.301 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.38.01.400 Fee Schedule

01.Fees Are As Follows:

( 7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.38.01.401 (Reserved)

New Active Renewal Inactive Renewal Late/ Reinstatement Inactive to Active Fee Veterinary License$275$175$50$200$150 Certified Veterinary Technician $125$75$25$50$50 Certified Euthanasia Agency $100$200-$50- Certified Euthanasia Technician $100$100-$50- Duplicate Wall License/ Certificate $25 Veterinary License Verification $20

24.13.01 Rules Governing the Physical Therapy Licensure Board

IDAPA 24.13.01.000 Legal Authority

These rules are promulgated pursuant to Sections 54-2 206, 54-2207, 54-2209, and 54-2221 Idaho Code.(7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.13.01.001 Scope

These rules govern the practice of physical therapy in Idaho.(7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.13.01.002 Incorporation by Reference

The documents titled “Code of Ethics for the Physical Therapist” and “Standards of Ethical Conduct for the Physical Therapist Assistant” published by the American Physical Therapy Association, effective August 12, 2020, are adopted and incorporated by reference and available on the APTA website. (Code of Ethics for the Physical Therapist | APTA) and (Standards of Ethical Conduct for the Physical Therapist Assistant | APTA).(7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.13.01.003 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.13.01.100 Licensure

01.Examinations:

An applicant must successfully pass the National Physical Therapy Examination (NPTE), with a minimum score set by the Federation of State Boards of Physical Therapy. Foreign-educated applicants whose native language is not English must also successfully pass either: (a) the Test of English as a Foreign Language (TOEFL) with a minimum passing score of two hundred twenty (220) for the computer test and five hundred sixty (560) for the paper test; or (b) the Test of English as a Foreign Language – Internet-Based Test (TOEFL IBT) with a minimum passing score of twenty-four (24) in writing, twenty-six (26) in speaking, twenty-one (21) in reading, and eighteen (18) in listening.(7-1-24)

02.Continuing Education.(7-1-24)

a.Renewal of License. Every person holding a license issued by the Board must complete thirty-two (32) contact hours of continuing education every two years.(7-1-24)

b.Reinstatement of License. Any license canceled for failure to renew may be reinstated in accordance with Section 67-2614, Idaho Code, with the exception that the applicant must submit proof of having met the following continuing education requirements:(7-1-24)

i.For licenses expired for three (3) years or less, sixteen (16) hours of continuing education; or

ii.For licenses expired for more than three (3) years, thirty-two (32) hours of continuing education.

c.Contact Hours. The contact hours of continuing education must be obtained in areas of study germane to the practice of physical therapy, and for which the licensee is issued a certificate of completion or transcript.(7-1-24)

d.Documentation of Attendance. The applicant must maintain documentation verifying attendance by securing authorized signatures or other documentation from the course instructors, providers, or sponsoring institution substantiating any hours attended by the licensee. This documentation must be provided to the Board upon request by the Board or its agent.(7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.13.01.101 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.13.01.200 Practice Standards

1. Scope of Practice. Physical Therapists and Physical Therapist Assistants must possess the education, training, and experience within their scope of practice to perform physical therapy tasks.(7-1-24)

02.Supervision. Supervision is oversight of a person by a licensed physical therapist when the licensed physical therapist is immediately available in person, by telephone, or by electronic communication to assist the person. A physical therapist shall supervise and be responsible for patient care given by physical therapist assistants, supportive personnel, physical therapy students, and physical therapist assistant students.(7-1-24)

a.Procedures and Interventions Performed Exclusively by Physical Therapists. The following procedures and interventions shall be performed exclusively by a physical therapist:(7-1-24)

i.Interpretation of a referral for physical therapy if a referral has been received.(7-1-24)

ii.Performance of the initial patient evaluation and problem identification including a diagnosis for physical therapy and a prognosis for physical therapy.(7-1-24)

iii.Development or modification of a treatment plan of care which is based on the initial evaluation, and which includes long-term and short-term physical therapy treatment goals.(7-1-24)

iv.Assessment of the competence of physical therapist assistants, physical therapy students, physical therapist assistant students, and supportive personnel to perform assigned procedures, interventions, and routine tasks.(7-1-24)

v.Selection and delegation of appropriate portions of treatment procedures, interventions, and routine physical therapy tasks to the physical therapist assistants, physical therapy students, physical therapist assistant students, and supportive personnel.(7-1-24)

vi.Performance of a re-evaluation when any change in a patient’s condition occurs that is not consistent with the physical therapy treatment plan of care, patient’s anticipated progress, and physical therapy treatment goals.(7-1-24)

vii.Performance and documentation of a discharge evaluation and summary of the physical therapy treatment plan.(7-1-24)

03.Supervision of Physical Therapist Assistants. A physical therapist assistant must be supervised by a physical therapist by no less than telecommunication.(7-1-24)

a.A physical therapist assistant must not change a procedure or intervention unless such change of procedure or intervention has been included within the treatment plan of care as set forth by a physical therapist.

b.A physical therapist assistant may not continue to provide treatment as specified under a treatment plan of care if a patient’s condition changes such that further treatment necessitates a change in the established treatment plan of care, unless the physical therapist assistant has consulted with the supervising physical therapist prior to the patient’s next appointment for physical therapy, and a re-evaluation is completed by the supervising physical therapist.(7-1-24)

c.The supervising physical therapist must provide direct personal contact with the patient and assess the plan of care on or before every ten (10) visits or once a week if treatment is performed more than once per day but no less often than once every sixty (60) days. The supervising physical therapist’s assessment must be documented in the patient record. (7-1-24)

d.A physical therapist assistant may refuse to perform any procedure, intervention, or task delegated by a physical therapist when such procedure, intervention, or task is beyond the physical therapist assistant’s skill level or scope of practice standards.(7-1-24)

e.A physical therapist is not required to co-sign any treatment related documents prepared by a physical therapist assistant, unless required to do so in accordance with law, or by a third party.(7-1-24)

04.Supervision of Supportive Personnel. Any routine physical therapy tasks performed by supportive personnel requires a physical therapist’s or physical therapist assistant’s direct and continuous physical presence and availability to render direction, in person on the premises where physical therapy is being provided. The physical therapist or physical therapist assistant must have direct contact with the patient during each session and assess patient response to delegated treatment.(7-1-24)

05.Supervision of Physical Therapist and Physical Therapist Assistant Students. Supervision of physical therapist students and physical therapist assistant students requires availability of the physical therapist or physical therapist assistant to render direction in person and on the premises where physical therapy is being provided. (7-1-24)

a.A physical therapy student is required to sign all treatment notes with the designation “SPT” after their name, and all such signatures require the co-signature of the supervising physical therapist.(7-1-24)

b.A physical therapist assistant student is required to sign all treatment notes with the designation “SPTA” after their name, and all such signatures require the co-signature of the supervising physical therapist or supervising physical therapist assistant.(7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.13.01.201 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.13.01.300 Discipline

01.Civil Fine.

The Board may impose a civil fine not to exceed one thousand dollars ($1,000.00) for each violation upon anyone licensed under Title 54, Chapter 22, Idaho Code who is found by the Board to be in violation of Section 54-2219, Idaho Code.(7-1-24)

IDAPA 24.13.01.301 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.13.01.400 Fees

All fees are non-refundable. The examinati on or reexamination fee are in addition to the application fee and must accompany the application.

IDAPA 24.13.01.401 (Reserved)

FEE TYPEAMOUNTRENEWAL

Physical Therapist License$25$25 Physical Therapist Assistant License$20$20 Examination Established by examination entity plus an administrative fee not to exceed $20 Application$25

24.33.02 Rules for Licensure of Physician Assistants

IDAPA 24.33.02.000 Legal Authority

These rules are promulgated pursuant to Sections 54-1806 and 54-1807A, 54-1810A Idaho Code.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.33.02.001 Scope

These rules govern the practice of p hysician assistants and graduate physician assistants.(3-28-23)

IDAPA 24.33.02.002 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.33.02.100 Licensure

01.Graduate Physician Assistant.

IDAPA 24.33.02.104 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.33.02.200 Practice Standards

01.Collaborative Practice Agreement.

A collaborative practice agreement, in addition to complying with Section 54-1807A(2), Idaho Code, will contain the following elements:(7-1-25)

a.The parties to the agreement;(3-28-23)

b.The authorized scope of practice for each licensed physician assistant or graduate physician assistant;(3-28-23)

c.If necessary, any monitoring parameters.(3-28-23)

02.Advertise. No physician assistant or graduate physician assistant may advertise or represent himself either directly or indirectly, as a physician.(3-28-23)

03.Emergency or Disaster Care. A collaborative practice agreement is not necessary for a licensed physician assistant or graduate physician assistant to render medical services to an ill or injured person at the scene of an emergency or disaster (not to be defined as an emergency situation which occurs in the place of one’s employment) and while continuing to care for such person.(3-28-23)

04.Continuing Education Requirements. Prior to renewal of a license physician assistants shall attest to current certification by the National Commission on Certification of Physician Assistants or a similar certifying agency approved by the Board. Any person who substantially meets the requirements set forth in Section 54-1803(10)(a), Idaho Code, may apply to the Board for licensure as a graduate physician assistant for six (6) months, provided:(7-1-25)

a.The applicant will submit to the Board a copy of acknowledgment of sitting for the national certification examination. Upon primary source verification of passing the examination by the Board, the graduate physician assistant’s license will be converted to a permanent license and he may apply for prescribing authority.

05.Graduate Physician Assistant Prescribing Authority. Graduate physician assistants shall not be entitled to issue any written or oral prescriptions.(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.33.02.201 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.33.02.400 Fees

Nonrefundable fees are as follows:

IDAPA 24.33.02.401 (Reserved)

Fees – Table (Non-Refundable)

Licensure Fee - Physician Assistant & Graduate Physician Assistant-Not more than $250 Annual License Renewal Fee-Not more than $150

24.39.60 Rules Governing Uniform School Building Safety

IDAPA 24.39.60.000 Legal Authority

The rules are promulgated pursuant to Sectio n 39-8007, Idaho Code.(3-31-22)

IDAPA 24.39.60.001 Scope

The rules prescribe the Idaho Uniform Sch ool Building Safety Code and provide for enforcement and administration of the Idaho Uniform School Building Safety Act.(3-31-22)

IDAPA 24.39.60.002 Incorporation by Reference

01.Uniform Codes.

The uniform codes adopted by the appropriate governing authority for the state of Idaho pursuant to applicable Idaho Code.(7-1-25)

a.Idaho Building Code, as in IDAPA 24.39.30;(7-1-25)

b.International Mechanical Code;(3-31-22)

c.International Fuel Gas Code;(3-31-22)

d.Safety Code for Elevators and Escalators (ASME/ANSI A17.1), as adopted in IDAPA 24.39.40;

(7-1-25)

e.International Energy Conservation Code;(3-31-22)

f.Accessible and Usable Buildings and Facilities (ICC/ANSI A117.1);(3-31-22)

g.Idaho Fire Code (IFC);(3-31-22)

h.National Electrical Code (NEC), as adopted in IDAPA 24.39.10;(7-1-25)

i.Idaho State Plumbing Code (UPC), as adopted in IDAPA 24.39.20;(7-1-25)

j.Pacific NW AWWA Manual for Backflow Prevention and Cross Connection Control; and (3-31-22)

k.Idaho Safety and Occupational Health Standards.(3-31-22)

02.Idaho Uniform School Building Safety Code. The codes set forth in Subsection 002.01 of this rule, together with the definitions contained therein constitute the Idaho Uniform School Building Safety Code.

(7-1-25)

IDAPA 24.39.60.003 Definitions

01.Act.

The Idaho Uniform School Building Safety Act.(3-31-22)

02.Building Code. The Building Code specified in Paragraph 002.01.a. of these rules.(3-31-22)

03.Code. The Idaho Uniform School Building Safety Code.(3-31-22)

04.School Building or Building. Any school building, including its structures and appurtenances necessary for the operation of the school building, and subject to the provisions of the Act.(3-31-22)

IDAPA 24.39.60.004 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.39.60.300 Violation of Code

01.Imminent Safety Hazard.

Code violations that constitute an imminent safety hazard, include, but are not limited to, whenever the following are observed:(3-31-22)

a.Any door, aisle, passageway, stairway or other means of exit is not of sufficient width or size or is not so arranged as to provide safe and adequate means of exit in case of fire or panic;(3-31-22)

b.The walking surface of any aisle, passageway, stairway or other means of exit is so warped, worn, loose, torn or otherwise unsafe as to not provide safe and adequate means of exit in case of fire or panic;(3-31-22)

c.The stress in any materials, member or portion thereof, due to all dead and life loads, is more than one and one half (1-1/2) times the working stress or stresses allowed in the Building Code for new buildings of similar structure, purpose or location;(3-31-22)

d.Any portion thereof has been damaged by fire, earthquake, wind, flood or by any other cause, to such an extent that the structural strength or stability thereof is materially less than it was before such catastrophe and is less than the minimum requirements of the Building Code for new buildings of similar structure, purpose or location;(3-31-22)

e.Any portion or member or appurtenance thereof is likely to fail, or to become detached or dislodged, or to collapse and thereby injure persons or damage property;(3-31-22)

f.Any portion of a building, or any member, appurtenance or ornamentation on the exterior thereof is not of sufficient strength or stability, or is not so anchored, attached or fastened in place so as to be capable of resisting a wind pressure of one-half (1/2) of that specified in the Building Code for new buildings of similar structure, purpose or location without exceeding the working stresses permitted in the Building Code for such buildings;(3-31-22)

g.Any portion thereof has wracked, warped, buckled or settled to such an extent that walls or other structural portions have materially less resistance to winds or earthquakes than is required in the case of similar new construction;(3-31-22)

h.The building or structure, or any portion thereof, because of:(3-31-22)

i.Dilapidation, deterioration or decay;(3-31-22)

ii.Faulty construction;(3-31-22)

iii.The removal, movement or instability of any portion of the ground necessary for the purpose of supporting such building;(3-31-22)

iv.The deterioration, decay or inadequacy of its foundation; or(3-31-22)

v.Any other cause, is likely to partially or completely collapse;(3-31-22)

i.Any building or structure has been constructed, exists or is maintained in violation of any specific requirement or prohibition applicable to such building or structure provided by the building regulations of this jurisdiction, as specified in the Building Code, or of any law or ordinance of this state or jurisdiction relating to the condition, location or structure of buildings;(3-31-22)

j.Any building or structure which, whether or not erected in accordance with all applicable laws and ordinances, has in any nonsupporting part, member or portion less than fifty percent (50%), or in any supporting part, member or portion less than sixty-six percent (66%) of the:(3-31-22)

i.Strength;(3-31-22)

ii.Fire-resisting qualities or characteristics; or(3-31-22)

iii.Weather-resisting qualities or characteristics required by law in the case of a newly constructed building of like area, height and occupancy in the same location;(3-31-22) k.

Any building or structure, because of obsolescence; dilapidated condition; deterioration; damage; inadequate exits; lack of sufficient fire-resistive construction; faulty electric wiring, gas connections or heating apparatus; or other cause, is determined by the state fire marshal to be a fire hazard;(3-31-22)

l.A building or structure, because of inadequate maintenance; dilapidation; decay; damage; faulty construction or arrangement; inadequate light, air or sanitation facilities; or otherwise, is determined to be unsanitary, unfit for human occupancy or habitation, or in such a condition that is likely to cause accidents, sickness, or disease;

(3-31-22)

m.Any building or structure, because of dilapidated condition; deterioration; damage; inadequate exits; lack of sufficient fire-resistive construction; faulty electric wiring, gas connections, or heating apparatus; or other cause, is determined by the state fire marshal to be a fire or life safety hazard; and(3-31-22)

n.There is, within the building, the presence of vapors, fumes, smoke, dusts, chemicals, or materials in any form (natural or man made) in quantities that have been established by national health organizations to be a threat to the health or safety of the building occupants. This does not include materials stored, used, and processed in accordance with nationally recognized safety standards for the materials in question.(3-31-22)

IDAPA 24.39.60.301 (Reserved)

24.41.01 Rules of the Board of Long-Term Care Administrators

IDAPA 24.41.01.000 Legal Authority

Section 54 -1604, Idaho Code.(7-1-26)

IDAPA 24.41.01.001 Scope

These rules govern the practice of long-term care facilit y administration in Idaho.(7-1-26)

IDAPA 24.41.01.002 Incorporation by Reference

The document titled “ACHCA Code of Ethics,” published by the American College of Health Care Administrators (ACHCA), current as of May, 2024, is herein adopted and incorporated by reference and is available from the Board’s office and on the Board web site, as well as at: https://achca.memberclicks.net/assets/ code%20of%20ethics_achca%20non-member_140430.pdf.(7-1-26)

IDAPA 24.41.01.003 Definitions

01.Long-Term Care Administrator. Resid ential Facility Administrators and Nursing Home Administrators licensed under Title 54 Chapter 16, Idaho Code.(7-1-26)

IDAPA 24.41.01.004 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.41.01.100 Licensure

01.Application.

Applications must be submitted on forms approved by the Board. No application will be considered for any action unless accompanied by the appropriate fees and all required supporting documentation.

Supporting documentation may include, but is not limited to, educational transcripts, proof of training or credentials, and examination results.(7-1-26)

02.Common Licensure Requirements. To be granted a license as either a Residential Care Facility Administrator or a Nursing Home Administrator as set forth in Section 54-1606, Idaho Code, an applicant must:

a.Pass the applicable NAB examination(s) or another examination approved by the Board; (7-1-26)

b.Document completion of a Board-approved specialized course of study relevant to the type of license sought; and(7-1-26)

c.If applicable, submit a written statement and supporting documentation regarding any past professional discipline or convictions. Disciplinary history includes license actions in any state, territory, or country.

Conviction history includes felony convictions or other offenses affecting fitness to practice, as outlined in Section 67-9411, Idaho Code.(7-1-26)

03.Residential Care Facility Administrator Licensure. In addition to the common requirements listed in Subsection 100.02, an applicant for a Residential Care Facility Administrator license must:(7-1-26)

a.Submit documentation of a completed criminal background check from the Idaho Department of Health and Welfare. The applicant must obtain and include the results; the Board does not submit fingerprint cards on behalf of applicants; and(7-1-26)

b.Complete the Certification Program for Residential Care Facility Administrators administered by the Idaho Health Care Association (IHCA), or an equivalent course approved by the Board.(7-1-26)

c.However, an individual holding a current Idaho Nursing Home Administrator license may qualify for a Residential Care Administrator license by passing the Board-approved residential care examination. This exam requirement may be waived if the applicant provides satisfactory evidence of at least one (1) year of leadership or management experience in a residential care or nursing home facility within the five (5) years preceding the application.(7-1-26)

04.Nursing Home Administrator Licensure. In addition to the common requirements listed in Subsection 100.02, an applicant for a Nursing Home Administrator license must:(7-1-26)

a.Pass both the NAB Core and Nursing Home Administrators Line of Service exams, or other examination as approved by the Board; and(7-1-26)

b.Demonstrate completion of a specialized course of study in nursing home long-term health care administration approved by the Board.(7-1-26)

05.Nursing Home Administrator-in-Training.(7-1-26)

a.Trainees must work full time in an Idaho-licensed nursing home. “Full time” means at least thirtytwo (32) hours per week, allowing for normal leave.(7-1-26)

b.Trainees shall submit with their application a declaration signed by the supervising Nursing Home Administrator who shall serve as the preceptor. This declaration shall certify that the supervising administrator has licensure in good standing with the State of Idaho and two (2) or more years of consecutive employment as a nursing home administrator.(7-1-26)

c.Training must include experience in all four (4) domains of nursing home administration: (7-1-26)

i.Care, services, and supports;(7-1-26)

ii.Operations;(7-1-26)

iii.Environment and quality; and(7-1-26)

iv.Leadership and strategy.(7-1-26)

d.Trainees must spend no less than thirty-two (32) hours per month directly with the preceptor, in addition to full-time work hours, unless serving in a full-time designated trainee role. Reports must be submitted after every five hundred (500) hours of training, reflecting instruction in all domains.(7-1-26)

06.Administrator Designee Qualification. To practice as an Administrator Designee, an individual must:(7-1-26)

a.Provide proof of at least one (1) year of management experience in a skilled nursing facility; and

b.Submit an agreement signed by an Idaho-licensed Nursing Home Administrator, in good standing, who will serve as a consultant to assist the designee in the administration of the facility.(7-1-26)

07.Health Services Executive. Any applicant holding a Health Services Executive credential issued by NAB has met all educational and training requirements for licensure of either profession in Idaho.(7-1-26)

IDAPA 24.41.01.101 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.41.01.104 Continuing Education Requirements

01.Educational Requirements. In order to qualify as continuing education, a seminar or course of study must be sponsored by an accredited university or college, State or National health related associations, and/or approved by NCERS (National Continuing Education Review Service), or as otherwise approved by the Board.

02.Renewal of License. Applicants for renewal of license are required to complete, in a twenty-four (24) month renewal cycle, twelve (12) job-related continuing education hours relevant to long-term care administration.(7-1-26)

03.Waiver. The Board may waive the requirements of this rule for reasons of individual hardship including health or other good cause. The licensee shall request the waiver in advance of renewal and will provide any information requested by the Board to assist in substantiating hardship cases. This waiver is granted at the sole discretion of the Board.(7-1-26)

IDAPA 24.41.01.105 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.41.01.300 Discipline

01.Costs and Fees.

The Board may order a licensed long-term care administrator to pay the costs and fees incurred by the Board in the investigation or prosecution of the licensee for violation of any section of the practice act or these rules, as set forth in Section 54-1615(1), Idaho Code.(7-1-26)

IDAPA 24.41.01.301 (Reserved)

IDAPA 24.41.01.400 Fees

The following annual fees may be aggregated for biennial licensure.

IDAPA 24.41.01.401 (Reserved)

FEE AMOUNT

(Not to Exceed)

Original Application$200 License $400 Biennial Renewal$400 Endorsement Application$200 Administrator-in-Training$200 Provisional Permit$200 Reinstatement As provided in Section 67-2614, Idaho Code