chapter-875•OAR Chapter 875 — Veterinary Medical Examining Board
Division 1 PROCEDURAL RULES
Or. Admin. R. 875-001-0000 Notice
Prior to the adoption, amendment, or repeal of any permanent rule, the Veterinary Medical Examining Board shall give notice of the proposed adoption, amendment, or repeal:
(1) In the Secretary of State's Bulletin referred to in ORS 183.360, at least 15 days prior to the effective date.
(2) By providing a copy of the notice to persons on the Veterinary Medical Examining Board's mailing list established pursuant to ORS 183.335(7).
(3) By providing a copy of the notice to the following persons, organizations, or publications:
(a) Media services;
(b) Oregon Veterinary Medical Association;
(c) Oregon Humane Society;
(d) Oregon State University Extension Service;
(e) Animal control agencies.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 686.210
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 183.310 - 183.360
- VMEB 1-2006, f. & cert. ef. 2-8-06
- VME 2-1989, f. 8-29-89, cert. ef. 10-1-89
- VE 4, f. & ef. 5-3-76
Or. Admin. R. 875-001-0005 Model Rules of Procedure
The Veterinary Medical Examining Board adopts in its entirety the Attorney General's Model Rules of Procedure under the Administrative Procedures Act.
[ED. NOTE: The full text of the Attorney General’s Model Rules of Procedure is available from the office of the Attorney General or Veterinary Medical Examining Board.]
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 686.210
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 183
- VMEB 2-2006, f. & cert. ef. 5-11-06
- VMEB 1-2006, f. & cert. ef. 2-8-06
- VME 4-1992, f. & cert. ef. 12-10-92
- VME 2-1989, f. 8-29-89, cert. ef. 10-1-89
- VME 1-1987, f. & ef. 12-22-87
- VME 1-1982, f. & ef. 8-30-82
- VME 2-1980, f. & ef. 5-20-80
- VE 1-1979, f. & ef. 8-28-79
- VE 2-1978, f. & ef. 2-21-78
- VE 3, f. 9-25-74, ef. 10-25-74, Renumbered from 875-010-0005
- VE 2, f. 6-23-72, ef. 7-15-72
- VE 1, f. 7-29-60
Or. Admin. R. 875-001-0015 Hearing Requests, Answers, and Consequences of Failure to Answer
(1) A hearing request shall be made in writing to the Board by the party or his/her representative and shall include an answer, which includes the following:
(a) An admission or denial of each factual matter alleged in the notice;
(b) A short and plain statement of each relevant affirmative defense the party may have.
(2) Factual matters alleged in the notice and not denied in the answer shall be presumed admitted;
(3) Failure to raise a particular defense in the answer will be considered a waiver of such defense; and
(4) Affirmative defenses alleged in the answer shall be presumed to be denied by the Board.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 686.210
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 686.020, 686.045 & 686.065
- VMEB 1-2006, f. & cert. ef. 2-8-06
Or. Admin. R. 875-001-0040 Public Records and Materials
(1) All requests for copies of public records pertaining to the Veterinary Medical Examining Board available at the Board office shall be submitted in writing. Public records are also available for viewing in the Board office during regular office hours.
(2) Charges for copies, documents and services shall be as follows:
(a) For machine copies requested by other state agencies and the general public, the charge will be the accepted government agency rate per copy;
(b) For documents developed by the Board, the Charge will be an amount fixed by the Board or its Executive Officer not exceeding the actual preparation cost per copy;
(c) For both machine copies and documents, a charge for any additional amount set at the discretion of the Board or its Executive Officer for staff time required for search, handling, and copying.
(3) Charges for the general public shall be payable in cash. Charges to state agencies shall be payable in cash unless billing to such agencies is authorized by the Board or its Executive Officer.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 686.210
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 279.051
- VME 1-1994, f. & cert. ef. 4-13-94
Division 5 GENERAL
Or. Admin. R. 875-005-0000 Board Meetings
The Board shall hold regular meetings at least once each year, at such time and place as the Board may designate. The Chair of the Board may call special meetings for the Board at any time through the year as such meetings are necessary.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 686.210
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 686.210
- VMEB 1-2006, f. & cert. ef. 2-8-06
Or. Admin. R. 875-005-0005 Definitions
(1) “Agency”: Any animal control department, humane society, or facility which contracts with a public agency or arranges to provide animal sheltering services and is registered by the Oregon State Board of Pharmacy.
(2) “Board”: The Oregon State Veterinary Medical Examining Board (OVMEB).
(3) “Board of Pharmacy”: The Oregon State Board of Pharmacy (BOP).
(4) “Certified Euthanasia Technician (CET): A person who is employed by, or a volunteer at, a humane society or animal control agency and is certified by the Board pursuant to ORS 475.190(4).
(5) “Client”: An entity, person, group, or corporation, that has entered into an agreement with a veterinarian for the purpose of obtaining veterinary medical services.
(6) “Comprehensive”: Pertaining to all animal species.
(7) “Conviction of Cruelty to Animals”: For purposes of ORS 686.130(11), is defined to include but not limited to animal abuse in the first or second degree, aggravated animal abuse in the first degree, and animal neglect in the first degree.
(8) “Designated Agent”: A CET who is responsible for the withdrawal and return of sodium pentobarbital from the drug storage cabinet.
(9) “Diagnostics”: Imaging, testing, and samples collected used to provide information for patient care.
(10) “Facility Owner”: Any person, corporation, partnership, or other similar organization, private, or not-for-profit, holding title to a facility where licensed veterinarian(s) practice or where the practice of veterinary medicine occurs.
(11) “Facility Registration”: A registration issued by the Board to operate a veterinary medical facility when the premises meet minimum standards established by the Board. Premises includes, but is not limited to, any building, structure, unit, office, land, vehicle, motor or mobile home, utilized in the practice of veterinary medicine or where the practice of veterinary medicine occurs.
(12) “Good Standing and Repute”: As used in ORS 686.045(1), means:
(a) A university accredited by the American Veterinary Medical Association (AVMA); or
(b) A foreign school listed by the AVMA whose graduates are eligible to apply for a certificate through the Educational Commission for Foreign Veterinary Graduates (ECFVG) committee of the AVMA, or other programs approved by the Board.
(13) “Herd or Flock Animal”: Animals, (four or more, of the same species), managed as a group, including, but not limited to, breeding, sale, show, food production, or racing. The veterinarian shall have the discretion to determine 'herd or flock' status for provision of veterinary medical care and recordkeeping.
(14) “Licensee Portal”: Licensee access point for maintaining personal and facility information and for processing registrations and renewals. Located on the Oregon Veterinary Medical Examining Board website.
(15) “Managing Veterinarian”: An Oregon veterinarian, licensed in good standing, who has been designated by the facility owner to be accountable to the Board for the facility’s compliance with the laws and rules governing the practice of veterinary medicine in this state. Designation of a Managing Veterinarian shall be according to the procedures in OAR 875-010-0031(3).
(16) “Medical Records”: Systematic documentation of a single patient or patients’ medical history, physical examination, diagnosis, treatment, notes, and care across time, pursuant to OAR 875-015-0030.
(17) “Principal”: A person who has controlling authority over the licensed facility, including but not limited to:
(a) Managers or other persons who have decision-making authority and whose primary duties include control over the operation of the licensed facility;
(b) Officers or directors who have some degree of responsibility for the operation of the licensed facility;
(c) General Partners, limited and joint ventures;
(d) Sole proprietors;
(e) Stockholders holding a majority of outstanding shares of stock; and
(f) Members of a Limited Liability Company.
(18) “Satellite Unit” A mobile or house call facility operated under the license of a registered fixed location facility. Satellite Units do not require individual facility registration. A mobile satellite unit must maintain sufficient capacity to address medical emergencies.
(19) Surgery Procedure
(a) “Aseptic Surgery”: Aseptic surgical technique exists when everything that comes in contact with the surgical field is sterile and precautions are taken to ensure sterility during the procedure.
(b) “Antiseptic Surgery”: Antiseptic surgical technique exists when care is taken to avoid bacterial contamination.
(20) “Supervision” means that each act shall be performed by any employee or volunteer in the practice only after receiving specific directions from a licensed veterinarian.
(a) “Direct” supervision under this provision means both the certified veterinary technician and the licensed veterinarian are on the premises at the same time;
(b) “Immediate” supervision under this provision means that the supervising veterinarian is in the immediate vicinity of where the work is being performed and is actively engaged in supervising this work throughout the entire period it is being performed;
(c) “Indirect” supervision under this provision means that a CVT may, after receiving specific direction from an Oregon-licensed veterinarian, perform duties permitted under OAR 875-030-0040 at a client’s home or other location where the animal is kept. A valid VCPR must exist in order for a CVT to perform duties under indirect supervision.
(21) “Veterinary Client Patient Relationship (VCPR)”: Except where the patient is a wild or feral animal or its owner is unknown; a VCPR shall exist when the following conditions exist: The veterinarian must have sufficient knowledge of the animal to initiate at least a general or preliminary diagnosis of the medical condition of the animal. This means that the veterinarian has seen the animal within the last year and is personally acquainted with the care of the animal by virtue of a physical examination of the animal or by medically appropriate and timely visits to the premises where the animal is kept. The VCPR, once established, extends to other veterinarians licensed by the Board who are practicing within the same registered facility, and who have access to, and have reviewed, the medical history and records of the animal.
(22) “Veterinary Medical Facility”: Any premises, unit, structure, or vehicle where veterinary medicine is practiced, except when used for the practice of veterinary medicine pursuant to an exemption under ORS 686.040.
(a) “Fixed Location Facility”: A veterinary medical facility including but not limited to a building, unit or structure, at a fixed location, where animals are received and/or confined, and where the practice of veterinary medicine is practiced,
(b) “Mobile Facility”: A veterinary medical facility including but not limited to any vehicle, trailer, camper, motor, or mobile home, used in the practice of veterinary medicine. Mobile facilities must maintain sufficient capacity to address medical emergencies.
(c) “House Call Facility”: A veterinary medical facility at a non-fixed location where veterinarian(s) practice. It must include a designated location for drug and record storage..
(23) “Veterinary Technician”: a person licensed by the Board as a Certified Veterinary Technician.
(24) For purposes of meeting work experience eligibility requirements for intern, veterinarian and certified veterinary technician licensure, a year is defined as at least 2,000 hours in any 52-week period.
(25) “Pregnancy evaluation”: As used in ORS 686.030, an examination and judgment concerning whether an animal is or is not gestating. This includes but is not limited to the use of ultrasound, radiography, and hormone testing to determine if the animal is gestating.
(26) “Sterility evaluation”: As used in ORS 686.030, an examination and judgment concerning whether a male or female animal is capable or incapable of producing offspring. This includes but is not limited to:
(a) An examination to evaluate abnormalities in the reproductive organs, body condition and overall health;
(b) Testing and evaluation of the reproductive tract; and
(c) Semen analysis to evaluate semen quality.
(27) “Fertility evaluation”: As used in ORS 686.030, an examination and judgment regarding the animal’s likelihood to conceive or give birth to offspring. This includes but is not limited to:
(a) An examination to check for and evaluate abnormalities in the reproductive organs, body condition, and overall health;
(b) Any testing to evaluate hormone levels that assess reproductive cycle function;
(c) Any testing to determine the number of eggs available for fertilization;
(d) Cytology to evaluate cell samples from the reproductive tract to look for infections or abnormalities or determine the best time for breeding; and
(e) Any direct visualization or imaging to evaluate the reproductive organs.
(28) "Practitioner of allied health methods": As used in ORS 686.040(4), is a person actively licensed by an Oregon
Health Practitioner Board listed in ORS 676.150.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 686.210, ORS 475.190, 609.405, 686.130, 686.255 & 686.510
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 475.190, 609.405, 686.130, 686.255 & 686.510
- VMEB 8-2025, amend filed 12/31/2025, effective 12/31/2025
- VMEB 7-2025, amend filed 11/10/2025, effective 11/10/2025
- VMEB 3-2025, temporary amend filed 09/10/2025, effective 09/10/2025 through 03/08/2026
- VMEB 2-2025, amend filed 07/24/2025, effective 07/24/2025
- VMEB 1-2025, amend filed 04/11/2025, effective 04/11/2025
- VMEB 8-2024, amend filed 10/24/2024, effective 10/24/2024
- VMEB 6-2024, amend filed 09/03/2024, effective 09/03/2024
- VMEB 3-2021, amend filed 08/24/2021, effective 09/01/2021
- VMEB 2-2020, amend filed 02/10/2020, effective 02/10/2020
- VMEB 6-2018, amend filed 07/31/2018, effective 07/31/2018
- VMEB 3-2018, minor correction filed 02/14/2018, effective 02/14/2018
- VMEB 8-2017, amend filed 11/07/2017, effective 11/08/2017
- VMEB 1-2015, f. & cert. ef. 11-13-15
- VMEB 1-2014, f. & cert. ef. 1-17-14
- VMEB 3-2012, f. & cert. ef. 8-28-12
- VMEB 1-2012, f. & cert. ef. 6-25-12
- Reverted to VMEB 7-2008, f. & cert. ef. 7-22-08
- VMEB 5-2011(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 12-12-11 thru 6-9-12
- VMEB 7-2008, f. & cert. ef. 7-22-08
- VMEB 6-2008, f. & cert. ef. 5-21-08
- VMEB 1-2008, f. & cert. ef. 2-11-08
- VMEB 2-2006, f. & cert. ef. 5-11-06
- VMEB 1-2006, f. & cert. ef. 2-8-06
Or. Admin. R. 875-005-0006 Fees
(1) The Board adopts the following fees:
(a) Veterinarian/Intern License Fee: $225.00
(b) Veterinarian/Intern Renewal Fee: $225.00
(c) Veterinarian/Intern Inactive License Fee: $150.00
(d) CVT Initial Fee: $52.50
(e) CVT Renewal Fee: $52.50
(f) CET Initial Fee: $37.50
(g) CET Renewal Fee: $22.50
(h) Facility Registration Initial Fee: $225.00
(i) Facility Registration Renewal Fee: $225.00
(j) Oregon Jurisprudence Exam / Regional Disease Test fee: $112.50
(k) Late fees:
(A) Late renewal fee; veterinarian license: $75.00 per month, to a maximum of $225.00.
(B) Late renewal fee; veterinarian intern: up to $225.00 per month.
(C) Late fee, CVT, postmarked January 1st - 31st: $15.00.
(D) Late fee, CVT, postmarked February 1st - 29th/29th: $37.50.
(E) Late fee, CVT, postmarked March 1st - April 30th: $52.50.
(2) Fees must be paid at the time of application or renewal.
(3) Fees are not refundable or transferable.
(4) Fees are not prorated.
(5) The Board shall not refund moneys under $5.01 received in excess of amounts due or to which the Board has no legal interest unless the person who made the payment or the person's legal representative requests a refund in writing within one year of payment to the Board.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 686.255
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 686.255
- VMEB 5-2025, adopt filed 09/12/2025, effective 10/01/2025
Or. Admin. R. 875-005-0010 Licensee’s Duty to Cooperate
Every licensee of the Board shall:
(1) Cooperate with the Board and respond fully and truthfully to inquiries from and comply with any request from the Board, subject only to the exercise of any applicable right or privilege.
(2) Undergo practice competency or other evaluations requested by the Board.
(3) Provide a home address and telephone number in addition to business location and contact information.
(4) Notify the Board within 30 days if contact information changes.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 686.210
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 686.020, 686.045 & 686.065
- VMEB 8-2024, amend filed 10/24/2024, effective 10/24/2024
- VMEB 2-2006, f. & cert. ef. 5-11-06
- VMEB 1-2006, f. & cert. ef. 2-8-06
Division 10 PERMITS AND LICENSES
Or. Admin. R. 875-010-0000 Qualifications for Veterinary Licenses and Permits
Applicants for Oregon veterinary licenses shall meet the following requirements:
(1) Graduate from a veterinary college or veterinary department of a university or college of good standing and repute as defined in OAR 875-005-0005(9)(a)(b) or, if a graduate of an unaccredited veterinary school, completion of all requirements of the Education Commission for Foreign Veterinary Graduates (ECFVG) program or the Program for the Assessment of Veterinary Education (PAVE); and
(2) Pass the North American Veterinary Licensing Exam (NAVLE) or the National Board Exam (NBE) and Oregon Jurisprudence Exam/Regional Disease Test as required by OAR 875-010-0015(3).
(3) Temporary and active licenses may be issued to applicants who have at least one year experience, as set out in ORS 686.045(3) and 686.065(1)(b).
(4) The Board may conduct background checks on intern, initial and renewing license applicants. Applicants and licensees shall be required to provide any police and court records for any arrests and convictions.
(5) The Board may refuse to issue a license or permit to an applicant for any of the following:
(a) Violations of veterinary practice laws and rules in other states, provinces or countries;
(b) Evidence of previous veterinary incompetence or negligence;
(c) Violations of other laws substantially related to the qualifications, functions or duties of veterinary medicine;
(d) The sale or use of illegal drugs or substance abuse; or
(e) Making a misrepresentation or omission on application or otherwise to the Board.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 686.210
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 686.045 & 686.065
- VMEB 4-2022, amend filed 06/28/2022, effective 07/01/2022
- VMEB 2-2022, amend filed 06/28/2022, effective 07/01/2022
- VMEB 3-2019, amend filed 10/28/2019, effective 10/28/2019
- VMEB 3-2014, f. & cert. ef. 1-17-14
- VMEB 2-2006, f. & cert. ef. 5-11-06
- VMEB 1-2006, f. & cert. ef. 2-8-06
Or. Admin. R. 875-010-0006 Procedures for Obtaining License or Permit
(1) Graduate from a veterinary college or veterinary department of a university or college as defined in OAR 875-005- 0000(8).
(2) To apply for a veterinary license, the applicant must complete an application form available on the Board website or from the Board office. A completed application includes:
(a) An application form completed and signed by the applicant and the Oregon Jurisprudence Exam / Regional Disease Test fee;
(b) A copy of a college diploma or a letter from the graduate's school verifying satisfactory graduation, or, if a graduate of an unaccredited foreign veterinary school, certification of satisfactory completion of requirements of the Educational Commission for Foreign Veterinary Graduates (ECFVG), or verification of completion of other foreign graduate equivalency programs approved by the Board;
(c) A completed Oregon Jurisprudence Exam/Regional Disease Test;
(d) Verification of veterinary experience and certification of status of license(s)in other states if applicable.
(3) Pass the North American Veterinary Licensing Exam (NAVLE) or the National Board Exam (NBE).
(a) To register for the NAVLE, the candidate shall apply to the National Board of Veterinary Medical Examiners (NBVME), www.nbvme.org;
(b) The applicant may take the NAVLE in another state. For licensing in Oregon, NAVLE scores must be directly transferred to the Board through the Veterinary Information Verifying Agency (VIVA).
(4) Neither NAVLE nor the National Board Exam (NBE) requirement shall be waived.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 686.210
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 686.075 & 686.255
- VMEB 5-2025, amend filed 09/12/2025, effective 10/01/2025
- VMEB 5-2022, amend filed 10/31/2022, effective 11/15/2022
- VMEB 1-2011, f. & cert. ef. 3-2-11
- VMEB 2-2006, f. & cert. ef. 5-11-06
- VMEB 1-2006, f. & cert. ef. 2-8-06
Or. Admin. R. 875-010-0016 Veterinary License Examinations
"North American Veterinary Licensing Examination (NAVLE)": The National Board of Veterinary Medical Examiners (NBVME) provides this examination to test a candidate's qualification for entry-level clinical practice and comprehensive veterinary knowledge. Effective November 2000, the NAVLE replaces the National Board Examination (NBE) and Clinical Competency Test (CCT).
(1) NBVME is the sole provider of the NAVLE. The NBVME will report the scores of NAVLE to the Board.
(2) The passing score for NAVLE shall be 425. If the National Board Examination (NBE) and/or Clinical Competency (CCT) were taken December 1992, or later, the candidate must receive a passing score according to the criterion-referenced scoring method implemented by the Professional Exam Service in December 1992.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 686.210
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 686.075
- VMEB 3-2014, f. & cert. ef. 1-17-14
- VMEB 1-2011, f. & cert. ef. 3-2-11
- VMEB 1-2006, f. & cert. ef. 2-8-06
Or. Admin. R. 875-010-0021 Recalculation, Review and Appeal of Examination Results
(1) The Jurisprudence Exam/Regional Disease Test may be taken more than once, however, applicants who fail the JPE/RDT three times may be required to make further attempts to pass in the presence of a Board staff or member.
(2) An applicant may request a review of the NAVLE examination results according to the review procedures of the NBVME.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 686.210
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 686.075
- VMEB 2-2025, amend filed 07/24/2025, effective 07/24/2025
- VMEB 3-2014, f. & cert. ef. 1-17-14
- VMEB 1-2011, f. & cert. ef. 3-2-11
- VMEB 1-2006, f. & cert. ef. 2-8-06
Or. Admin. R. 875-010-0026 Intern, Active and Inactive Licenses
Upon approval of all required application materials, the applicant may then apply for an intern or active license to practice veterinary medicine in Oregon. License activation forms are available from the Board office or on its website.
(1) The applicant shall pay the intern or active license fee.
(2) If the applicant has satisfactorily completed one year’s experience in the United States or its territories or provinces, an active veterinary license will be issued and will expire at the end of the next renewal cycle following December 31st. Licensee shall renew the license according to OAR 875-010-0065.
(3) If applicant has less than one year’s experience, an Intern Permit (intern license) will be issued. The intern license will expire following the total number of days necessary to complete one year’s practice experience, under supervision of an Oregon licensed veterinarian, pursuant to ORS 686.085 and OAR 875-010-0050:
(a) Upon completion of the internship, the intern may apply for an active license, pursuant to OAR 875-010-0065. Late fees will apply for each month the application is late if the intern has continued to practice veterinary medicine in Oregon after expiration of the intern license;
(b) The supervising veterinarian shall complete an experience verification form attesting that the intern has satisfactorily completed the internship and the intern shall submit this form with the application for an active license.
(4) An inactive license may be issued to any applicant who does not meet Continuing Education requirements. Inactive licensees may practice veterinary medicine in Oregon for up to 30 days. Inactive licensees must pay the inactive license fee for each renewal cycle.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 686.210
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 686.095 & 686.255
- VMEB 5-2025, amend filed 09/12/2025, effective 10/01/2025
- VMEB 3-2023, amend filed 12/13/2023, effective 12/13/2023
- VMEB 3-2022, amend filed 06/28/2022, effective 07/01/2022
- VMEB 2-2013, f. & cert. ef. 10-29-13
- VMEB 1-2013, f. & cert. ef. 10-4-13
- VMEB 1-2008, f. & cert. ef. 2-11-08
- VMEB 1-2006, f. & cert. ef. 2-8-06
Or. Admin. R. 875-010-0031 Registration of Veterinary Facilities; Managing Veterinarian; Registration Denial, Suspension, Revocation; Inspection
(1) Each veterinary medical facility in Oregon as defined in 875-005-0005 must register with the Board and designate a Managing Veterinarian with the following exceptions:
(a) Any locations owned and operated by a local, regional, state or federal government agency
(b) Locations where privately owned animals are housed and where mobile veterinarians or mobile veterinary clinics may routinely come to provide veterinary services, e.g., private barn, home, boarding stable or animal event location
(c) Locations where animals are undergoing a medical crisis and conditions preclude transport to a veterinary facility (accident site)
(d) Temporary facilities established under a declared emergency
(e) Teaching facilities as established by AVMA-accredited schools of veterinary science or veterinary technology.
(2) Requirements for registered Veterinary Facilities
(a) Each facility registration expires on December 31st or upon a change in facility ownership.
(b) Each facility identified by a separate physical address will be considered a separate facility requiring registration.
(c) Mobile facilities, unless operated as a satellite of a registered fixed facility, will require individual registration.
(d) Temporary facilities, providing only spay/neuter, vaccinations, micro-chipping and examinations may operate up to 15 days per year at any one location under the registration of an Oregon fixed-location facility and under the oversight of the fixed-location’s Managing Veterinarian, unless otherwise approved by the Board.
(3) Requirements for the Managing Veterinarian.
(a) Provide the Board with documented authority from the facility owner to maintain the facility within the standards set forth by this chapter.
(b) Ensure facilities maintain and post a valid facility registration issued by the Board.
(c) Ensure timely provision of medical record copies from the facility when requested.
(d) A veterinary intern (OAR 875-010-0026) may not be designated as Managing Veterinarian.
(e) A licensee with a relevant disciplinary history or who has been or currently is under a disciplinary order of the Board may be denied designation as Managing Veterinarian.
(4) Procedures for any change in the Managing Veterinarian. The Managing Veterinarian on record with the Board as responsible for a facility remains responsible for that facility until one of the following occurs:
(a) The Board is notified in writing of a new Managing Veterinarian that has accepted responsibility.
(b) The Board is notified in writing that the Managing Veterinarian wishes to be relieved of the position and associated responsibilities.
(c) The Managing Veterinarian is incapacitated to the extent that they cannot provide oversight of any facility.
(5) Applicants for facility registration must complete an application form available from the Board.
(6) A completed application will include payment of the $225 registration fee, inspector’s or self-certification of compliance with minimum standards of OAR 875-015-0020 and 875-015-0030, and designation of a Managing Veterinarian as defined in 875-015-0065.
(7) Denial of Facility Registration Application. The Board may deny an application for facility registration or renewal if:
(a) The application is incomplete or the registration fee is not submitted.
(b) The facility fails to meet minimum standards or fails to correct deficiencies within an appropriate time frame following inspection.
(c) The designated Managing Veterinarian fails meet the minimum facility standards listed in OAR 875-015-0020 and 875-015-0030.
(d) No Managing Veterinarian, meeting all requirements of this chapter, has been designated.
(8) Suspension or Revocation of a Facility Registration. The Board may withhold, suspend or revoke a facility registration if:
(a) No Managing Veterinarian is designated for the facility for more than 15 consecutive days. An interim Managing Veterinarian may be designated for a period not to exceed 30 days total.
(b) When it has been determined by the Board that the managing Veterinarian has failed to meet all the minimum facility standards as provided for in the rules of this act.
(c) Investigation or inspection has revealed unresolved public health and safety risks or other conditions noncompliant with OAR 875-015-0020 and 875-015-0030.
(9) All Facility Registrations terminate upon a change in the facility owner.
(10) Inspection of Facilities: The purpose of inspection is to ensure that public health and safely is maintained by meeting the minimum facility standards listed in OAR 875-015-0020 and 875-015-0030. The Board may designate or employ qualified persons to do the inspections and may delegate inspections to other state or federal agency regulators. Prior to January 2017 the Board may accept self-certification of compliance by the Managing Veterinarian in-lieu-of inspection. This self-certification shall be submitted using a form provided by the Board.
(a) The Board may inspect each veterinary facility:
(A) Before a new facility receives an initial facility registration
(B) Periodically, at least once every three years
(b) The board may inspect any veterinary facility:
(A) At any time upon receipt of a complaint or if it has cause to believe the facility is noncompliant with OAR 875-015-0020 or 875-015-0030.
(B) Upon a change in ownership or a change in the Managing Veterinarian
(C) As follow-up at any time after an inspection has found non-compliant conditions.
(c) Initial and periodic facility inspections may be waived for facilities holding a current American Animal Hospital Association (AHAA) certification.
(d) Inspections may be documented in writing and by audio, video and still picture recording.
(e) Upon an inspection finding of non-compliance with OAR 875-015-0020 or 875-015-0030, the Board or its representative may do any or all of the following:
(A) Establish a reasonable time line for bringing the facility into compliance
(B) Issue a civil penalty or citation
(C) Restrict facility operations when the failure to meet minimum facility standards poses an unresolved risk to public health and safety or other conditions noncompliant with OAR 875-015-0020 or 875-015-0030.
(11) Facility closure. In the event that a registered facility will be closed and no longer providing patient care:
(a) Within 15 days of the closure, the Board must be notified in writing by the facility of the closure, including the effective date, and a plan for the disposition of any patient records, if applicable.
(b) The facility must notify all clients of the closure, including the effective date, and instructions for obtaining patient records as required by (c), if applicable.
(c) The facility must make arrangements for any patient records to be made available to clients for a period of three years after clinic closure date. Patient records may be released directly to clients, transferred to the custody of another veterinary facility, or stored appropriately and released promptly upon receipt of client request as required by OAR 875-011-0010.
(d) The managing veterinarian at the time of closure shall be responsible for ensuring that all requirements of the Veterinary Practice Act are met.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 686.210
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 686.130
- VMEB 4-2026, amend filed 07/31/2026, effective 07/31/2026
- VMEB 2-2026, temporary amend filed 06/18/2026, effective 06/18/2026 through 12/14/2026
- VMEB 6-2025, temporary amend filed 10/01/2025, effective 10/01/2025 through 03/29/2026
- VMEB 5-2025, amend filed 09/12/2025, effective 10/01/2025
- VMEB 1-2025, amend filed 04/11/2025, effective 04/11/2025
- VMEB 5-2017, f. & cert. ef. 5-16-17
- Suspended by VMEB 5-2016(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 12-12-16 thru 6-9-17
- VMEB 1-2015, f. & cert. ef. 11-13-15
Or. Admin. R. 875-010-0045 Student Interns
(1) Any person wishing to work in Oregon as a student intern may do so if he or she is engaged in a student intern program administered by a veterinary college or university, or a veterinary technology program, approved by the Board or the American Veterinary Medical Association.
(2) Supervision of veterinary school student interns. All acts which a student intern may perform must be under the direct supervision of a licensed veterinarian. “Direct supervision” means that each act shall be performed by the student intern only after receiving specific directions from and in the presence of an Oregon licensed veterinarian. Certified Veterinary Technician student interns may work under direct supervision of a licensed veterinarian or Certified Veterinary Technician.
(3) Student interns enrolled in programs listed under (1) may perform the following acts:
(a) Obtaining and Recording Information. Student interns may obtain and record the following information:
(A) Complete admission records, including recording the statements made by the client concerning the patient’s problems and history. Student interns may also record their own observations of the patient. However, student interns cannot state or record their opinion concerning diagnosis of the patient;
(B) Maintain daily progress records, surgery logs, X-ray logs, Drug Enforcement Agency logs, and all other routine records as directed by the supervising veterinarian.
(b) Veterinary school student interns may perform surgery, if relevant coursework has been successfully completed, and if determined by the supervising veterinarian to be competent in basic surgical techniques;
(c) Preparation of patients, instruments, equipment, and medications for surgery. Student interns may:
(A) Prepare and sterilize surgical packs;
(B) Clip, surgically scrub, and disinfect the surgical site in preparation for surgery;
(C) Administer preanesthetic drugs as prescribed by the supervising veterinarian;
(D) Position the patient for anesthesia;
(E) Administer anesthesia as prescribed by the supervising veterinarian;
(F) Operate anesthetic machines, oxygen equipment, and monitoring equipment.
(G) Place an endotracheal tube for the purpose of delivering oxygen and anesthetic gas to the patient requiring inhalant anesthesia.
(d) Collection of specimens and performance of laboratory procedures. Student Interns may:
(A) Collect urine, feces, sputum, and all other excretions for laboratory analysis;
(B) Collect blood samples for laboratory;
(C) Collect skin scrapings;
(D) Perform routine laboratory procedures including urinalysis, fecal analyses, hematological, and serological examinations.
(e) Assisting the veterinarian in diagnostic medical and surgical procedures. Student interns may assist supervising veterinarians in the following diagnostic, medical, and surgical proceedings:
(A) Take the patient’s temperature, pulse and respiration;
(B) Medically bathe the patient;
(C) Administer topical, oral, hypodermic, and intravenous medication as directed by the supervising veterinarian;
(D) Operate diagnostic imaging equipment;
(E) Perform dental prophylaxis, including operating ultrasonic dental instruments.
(f) Veterinary School student interns may perform other acts not specifically enumerated herein under the supervision of a veterinarian licensed to practice veterinary medicine in the State of Oregon, however, a student intern may not administer rabies vaccine.
(4) Certified Veterinary Technician student interns may perform all the acts enumerated in OAR 875-030-0040(2) and may not perform the acts prohibited in 875-030-0040(3). Certified Veterinary Technician student interns may not administer rabies vaccine.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 686.210
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 686.040(13)
- VMEB 8-2024, amend filed 10/24/2024, effective 10/24/2024
- VMEB 6-2017, f. & cert. ef. 5-16-17
- VMEB 3-2017, f. & cert. ef. 1-12-17
- VMEB 10-2016(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 12-14-16 thru 6-11-17
- VMEB 8-2016, f. & cert. ef. 12-13-16
- VMEB 4-2016(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 12-12-16 thru 6-9-17
- VMEB 1-2016(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 8-4-16 thru 1-4-17
- VMEB 3-2014, f. & cert. ef. 1-17-14
- VMEB 1-2010, f. & cert. ef. 5-6-10
- VMEB 1-2006, f. & cert. ef. 2-8-06
- VME 2-1994, f. & cert. ef. 11-30-94
- VE 7-1978, f. & ef. 7-10-78
Or. Admin. R. 875-010-0050 Supervision of Interns
An intern license is issued for the purpose of providing supervised training and mentorship to veterinarians who have less than one (1) year experience following graduation from a veterinary school or college as defined in OAR 875-005-0005(8).
(1) "Supervision," as used in ORS 686.085, requires an Oregon licensed veterinarian to provide supervision of the Intern as follows:
(a) Direct supervision of the Intern for each and every procedure until such time as the supervising veterinarian reasonably concludes that the Intern has sufficient training and experience to competently conduct a particular procedure, or class of procedures, independently;
(b) The supervising veterinarian shall document and make available to the Board, if requested, the documentation used in making the decision to allow the Intern to work independently.
(c) The supervising veterinarian need not continue to directly supervise that procedure or class of procedures, upon the supervisor's determination that competency has been achieved by the Intern; however, the supervising veterinarian shall continue to reasonably monitor the results thereof;
(d) The supervising veterinarian shall continue to directly supervise all procedures for which the supervisor has not yet made a competency determination.
(2) The supervising veterinarian may not:
(a) Be absent from the veterinary clinic for more than 14 consecutive days, or more than 21 total days, in a six month period, exclusive of weekends; or
(b) Conduct the supervision from a separate clinic, unless and until such time as the supervising veterinarian reasonably concludes that the Intern has sufficient training and experience to competently conduct a particular procedure or class of procedures independently.
(3) The supervising veterinarian shall notify the Board within 10 calendar days if an Intern is no longer under that veterinarian’s supervision. Notification may be via electronic mail.
(4) An Intern shall notify the Board within 10 calendar days of any change in supervision. Notification may be via electronic mail.
(5) An Intern may have more than one supervisor during the internship.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 686.210
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 686.085
- VMEB 8-2018, amend filed 07/31/2018, effective 07/31/2018
- VMEB 12-2017, amend filed 11/07/2017, effective 11/08/2017
- VMEB 3-2014, f. & cert. ef. 1-17-14
- VMEB 1-2008, f. & cert. ef. 2-11-08
- VMEB 1-2006, f. & cert. ef. 2-8-06
- VME 2-1994, f. & cert. ef. 11-30-94
- VE 6-1978, f. & ef. 7-10-78
Or. Admin. R. 875-010-0065 License and Facility Registration Renewal Procedures
(1) At each renewal cycle, the applicant shall pay the renewal fee for all veterinary licenses.
(2) A renewal application is timely if the completed application together with the correct renewal fee is postmarked or electronically filed by December 31st of the current renewal cycle. The licensee has the burden of proving that the application was mailed or filed timely. If the renewal application is not timely, the applicant must pay delinquent fees for each month or part of a month after December 31st, up to a set maximum.
(a) In the event a licensee’s renewal application is not received by January 31st, notice from the Board will be sent by April 1st, advising the licensee of his or her delinquency and that practicing veterinary medicine in Oregon without a valid license is a violation of ORS 686.020. It is the licensee’s responsibility to provide the Board with a current address;
(b) If the delinquency in license renewal exceeds three months, the Board may require the applicant to appear before the Board and/or may attach other conditions to the renewal, e.g. community service, additional continuing education, etc.;
(c) If the delinquency in license renewal exceeds 21 months, the Board may assess an extended delinquency renewal fee, and/or require re-qualification by examination.
(3) Board staff will review renewal applications. If the application is complete with the following requirements, staff will issue a license which expires on December 31st of the next renewal cycle:
(a) The renewal application is completed;
(b) The renewal fee is enclosed;
(c) Any delinquent fees are enclosed;
(d) Continuing Education (CE) requirements must have been met; and
(e) The license is not suspended, revoked or otherwise encumbered under the provisions of ORS 686.120 and 686.130.
(4) Board staff will refer for Board review any license renewal that fails to respond fully to questions in the application.
(5) A veterinarian who submits a completed renewal application postmarked or electronically filed no later than December 31st, and has complied with all requirements under section (3) of this rule, may continue to practice veterinary medicine in Oregon pending notification of renewal or notification that the application is incomplete. A veterinarian who submits a renewal application postmarked after December 31st, or who knows the application is incomplete, or has not fulfilled the continuing education requirement, will be subject to delinquent fees and may not lawfully continue to practice veterinary medicine in Oregon until notified that the license has been renewed.
(6) If the veterinarian’s license lapses, a 21-month grace period begins. The veterinarian may renew the license within the 21-month period by paying the maximum delinquent fee and the current license renewal fee, and by providing documentation of veterinary activities, including completed Continuing Education, during the interim. After 21 months, the license may be revoked and the veterinarian may have to re-qualify for licensure by taking an examination determined by the Board.
(7) The facility registration fee shall be paid upon initial application for facility registration, and again at each renewal. The Managing Veterinarian shall renew each facility registration by December 31st of the current renewal cycle. Failure to renew a facility registration may be grounds for the Board to suspend practice of veterinary medicine in the facility.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 686.210
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 686.110 & 686.255
- VMEB 5-2025, amend filed 09/12/2025, effective 10/01/2025
- VMEB 8-2024, amend filed 10/24/2024, effective 10/24/2024
- VMEB 1-2015, f. & cert. ef. 11-13-15
- VMEB 1-2013, f. & cert. ef. 10-4-13
- VMEB 2-2006, f. & cert. ef. 5-11-06
- VMEB 1-2006, f. & cert. ef. 2-8-06
- VME 2-1994, f. & cert. ef. 11-30-94
- VME 1-1992, f. & cert. ef. 10-9-92
- VME 3-1991, f. & cert. ef. 12-9-91
- VME 2-1989, f. 8-29-89, cert. ef. 10-1-89
- VME 1-1987, f. & ef. 12-22-87
- VME 3-1986(Temp), f. & ef. 10-23-86
Or. Admin. R. 875-010-0090 Continuing Education Requirements (CE)
(1) All active licensees, including veterinarians and certified veterinary technicians, must comply with the CE, as defined in OAR 875-005-0005, and as provided in this rule in order to renew their licenses.
(2) Licensees wishing to renew their license must complete the minimum required number of CE hours every two years. Veterinarians shall report 30 hours of CE to the Board with license renewals for every odd-numbered year. Certified veterinary technicians shall report 15 hours of CE to the Board for every even-numbered year. The required hours may be obtained online and be satisfied with any combination of the following continuing education activities:
(a) Attendance at scientific workshops or seminars approved by the Board or by the American Association of Veterinary Boards Registry of Approved Continuing Education (RACE).
(b) A maximum of four hours for veterinarians or two hours for certified veterinary technicians reading approved scientific journals. One subscription to an approved journal is equal to one hour of credit.
(c) A maximum of six hours for veterinarians or three hours for certified veterinary technicians of workshops or seminars on non-scientific subjects relating to the practice of veterinary medicine such as communication skills, practice management, stress management, or chemical impairment. This includes one hour of CE for each meeting when attending the public portion of a meeting of the Oregon Veterinary Medical Examining Board, so long as the licensee attends for at least one hour of the meeting.
(d) A minimum for veterinarians of one hour each in judicious antibiotic use and appropriate analgesic and anesthetic methods.
(3) Workshops, seminars, and prepared materials on scientific and non-scientific subjects relating to veterinary medicine sponsored by the following organizations are approved:
(a) American Veterinary Medical Association (AVMA) and Canadian Veterinary Medical Association (CVMA);
(b) Specialty and allied groups of the American Veterinary Medical Association and Canadian Veterinary Medical Association;
(c) Regional meetings such as the Inter-Mountain Veterinary Medical Association, Central Veterinary Conference, and Western Veterinary Conference;
(d) Any state or province veterinary medical association;
(e) Any local or regional veterinary medical association;
(f) The American Animal Hospital Association;
(g) American and Canadian Veterinary Schools accredited by the American Veterinary Medical Association;
(h) All federal, state or regional veterinary medical academies or centers;
(i) Other programs receiving prior approval by the Board.
(4) The Board may approve other sponsors for lectures or prepared materials upon written request by the attending veterinarian or the sponsor.
(5) Scientific journals and publications relating to veterinary medicine are approved by the Board to satisfy a maximum of four hours of non-lecture CE activities.
(6) Study in a graduate resident program at an AVMA-approved veterinary school will satisfy the CE requirements for the year in which the veterinarian is enrolled in such program.
(7) Postgraduate coursework in veterinary science or veterinary public health at an AVMA- or Board-approved educational institution will satisfy CE requirements on a semester or credit hour basis for the reporting period in which the coursework occurs.
(8) Reporting CE credits.
(a) At the time of making application for license renewal in years when CE reporting is required, the veterinarian shall certify on the application form that 30 hours of CE, and the veterinary technician shall certify on the application form that 15 hours of CE, as set forth in this rule have been satisfied. Proof of participation in such CE programs must be kept by the licensee for a period of at least two years, and the licensee must permit the Board to inspect CE records. Failure to keep or provide these records to the Board shall constitute grounds for non-renewal of the license, or, if the license has been issued for that year, for revocation of the license;
(b) Proof of compliance with the CE requirement of this rule may be supplied through registration forms at lectures, certificates issued by the sponsors of lectures, subscriptions to journals, and other documentation approved by the Board.
(9) The Board may approve CE programs presented by non-veterinarians, if program content is pertinent or complementary to veterinary medicine.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 686.210
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 686.410 - 686.420
- VMEB 9-2025, amend filed 12/31/2025, effective 12/31/2025
- VMEB 6-2024, amend filed 09/03/2024, effective 09/03/2024
- VMEB 14-2017, minor correction filed 11/09/2017, effective 11/09/2017
- VMEB 4-2017, f. & cert. ef. 1-12-17
- VMEB 6-2016, f. & cert. ef. 12-12-16
- VMEB 3-2014, f. & cert. ef. 1-17-14
- VMEB 2-2013, f. & cert. ef. 10-29-13
- VMEB 1-2009, f. & cert. ef. 4-20-09
- VMEB 13-2008, f. & cert. ef. 12-15-08
- Reverted to VMEB 1-2008, f. & cert. ef. 2-11-08
- VMEB 2-2008(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 2-11-08 thru 8-9-08
- VMEB 1-2008, f. & cert. ef. 2-11-08
- VMEB 2-2006, f. & cert. ef. 5-11-06
- VMEB 1-2006, f. & cert. ef. 2-8-06
Or. Admin. R. 875-010-0095 Fee Waivers for Licenses or Permits
The Board may waive a category of fees if, in its judgment, such waiver is necessary to ensure that the fees charged do not exceed the cost of administering the Board's regulatory program pursuant to ORS 656.255(c).
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 686.210
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 686.020, 686.045 & 686.065
- VMEB 1-2006, f. & cert. ef. 2-8-06
Or. Admin. R. 875-010-0100 Criminal Conviction Determination Process
(1) Prior to beginning required education or training, a person who was convicted of a crime may petition the Board for a determination as to whether a criminal conviction will prevent the person from receiving a license issued by the Board.
(2) To be complete, a petition must include the following:
(a) a complete and signed determination request form;
(b) the following records related to the final judgment of each criminal conviction:
(A) a certified copy of the judgment of criminal conviction;
(B) any charging document(s);
(C) the arrest report(s);
(D) probation and parole records, if they exist;
(c) a written statement from the petitioner regarding the facts underlying the criminal conviction, and any intervening circumstances.
(d) a written statement or other document listing all criminal convictions, including dates of conviction and a summary of the facts, if the petitioner has more than one.
(3) A separate completed petition and fee must be filed for each criminal conviction for which the petitioner is requesting a determination.
(4) If any of the records in (3)(c) no longer exist, have been sealed or are otherwise unavailable to the petitioner, petitioner must provide evidence from the agency that held the record that the record no longer exists.
(5) If any of the documents required under subsections (2) and (4) are not provided, petitioner will have 60 days to provide the required documents or information. Upon failure to comply, the petition will be deemed incomplete and will be closed.
(6) The petition and the Board’s determination are subject to Oregon’s public records laws, and unless an exemption applies, the information in the petition and determination are subject to public disclosure.
(7) The Board will reconsider a determination that a criminal conviction prevents the person from obtaining a license when the person submits a completed application for a license.
(8) Upon reconsideration, the Board may rescind a previous determination that a criminal conviction does not prevent the person from obtaining a license if the applicant:
(a) Has allegations or charges pending in criminal court;
(b) Has failed to disclose a previous criminal conviction;
(c) Has been convicted of another crime during the period between the determination and the person’s submission of a completed application for an occupational or professional license; or
(d) Has been convicted of a crime that, during the period between the determination and the person’s submission of a completed application for an occupational or professional license, became subject to a change in state or federal law that prohibits licensure for an occupational or professional license because of a conviction of that crime.
(9) Failure to disclose a previous criminal conviction includes any misrepresentation or a prior criminal conviction, any concealment or failure to disclose a material fact about a prior criminal conviction, or any other misinformation regarding a prior criminal conviction.
(10) Nothing in this rule prohibits the Board from denying licensure when the person submits a completed application for a reason other than conviction of a crime.
(11) A determination under this rule is not considered a final determination of the Board.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: Oregon Laws 2024, chapter 95, section 44 (SB 1552). & ORS 686
- Statutes/Other Implemented: Oregon Laws 2024, chapter 95, section 44 (SB 1552).
- VMEB 1-2026, adopt filed 02/17/2026, effective 02/17/2026
Division 11 DISCIPLINE AND CITATIONS
Or. Admin. R. 875-011-0005 Gross Ignorance, Incompetence, or Inefficiency in the Profession
Under ORS 686.130(14), any veterinarian may have his or her license revoked or suspended by the Board for gross ignorance, incompetence, or inefficiency in the profession, among other causes. "Gross ignorance, incompetence, or inefficiency" in the profession within the meaning of this provision shall be defined to include:
(1) Failure to comply with current standards on isolation of patients with serious infectious, contagious diseases.
(2) Keeping animals with known serious infectious, contagious diseases in the same area with animals who do not have serious infectious, contagious diseases when current standards require isolation.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 686.210
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 686.130
- VMEB 1-2006, f. & cert. ef. 2-8-06
Or. Admin. R. 875-011-0010 Unprofessional or Dishonorable Conduct
The Board interprets "unprofessional or dishonorable conduct" to include, but is not limited to:
(1) Gross negligence in the practice of veterinary medicine.
(2) A pattern, practice, or continuous course of negligence, ignorance, incompetence, or inefficiency in the practice of veterinary medicine. The incidents may be dissimilar.
(3) Failure to obtain and maintain documented consent of the owner or owner’s agent prior to performing diagnostics, treatment, or surgery, except in emergency circumstances. Permission may be reasonably implied under some circumstances.
(4) Failure to perform, without good cause, a specific surgery or treatment in a timely manner after agreeing to perform the surgery or treatment.
(5) Failure to properly prepare an animal for surgery or treatment.
(6) Failure to use sterile instruments and equipment when performing surgery, when the circumstances require the use of sterile instruments and equipment.
(7) Failure to use generally accepted diagnostic procedures and treatments without good cause.
(8) Failure to obtain the client's written permission before using unorthodox or non-standard methods of diagnosis or treatment. Acupuncture, chiropractic, or herbal medicine is not considered unorthodox or non-standard.
(9) Failure to advise a client of home care or follow-up treatment required after a particular diagnosis or treatment.
(10) Handling animals in an inhumane manner or with unnecessary force.
(11) Charging for services not rendered.
(12) Altering or falsifying medical records.
(13) Failure to maintain records as required under OAR 875-015-0030(1).
(14) Failure to provide to a client, or another veterinarian retained by the client, upon request by either, a copy of the patient’s medical record (including copies of imaging) within 3 business days or immediately for emergencies. A reasonable copying fee, e.g., comparable to local commercial copying rates, may be charged; however, copy requests may not be denied for nonpayment of fees or outstanding bills.
(15) Failure to comply with the requirements of OAR 875-015-0040.
(16) Violation of any state or federal law relating to controlled substances, as defined in ORS 475.005(6), which the veterinarian obtained under the authority of the veterinary license.
(17) Non-veterinary prescribing, use, theft, or diversion of legend or controlled drugs.
(18) Failure to respond or appear as requested, without good cause, within the time required by the Board.
(19) Failure to comply with any rule or Order of the Board or as required by OAR 875-005-0010.
(20) Providing false, misleading, or deceptive information to the Board.
(21) Making a misrepresentation or omission on a license renewal application.
(22) Violations of veterinary laws in other states that would constitute violations of Oregon law.
(23) Violations of other laws that relate to the practice of veterinary medicine, including violations of the Oregon Racing Commission statutes and administrative rules.
(24) Failure to meet minimum facility standards as defined in OAR 875-015-0020 or OAR 875-015-0030 following inspection and findings of noncompliance.
(25) Failure to post valid facility registration in a place conspicuous to the public.
(26) Failure to notify the Board within 10 days, without good cause, of any change in facility ownership.
(27) Failure to notify the Board within 15 days, without good cause, of any change in Managing Veterinarian. An interim Managing Veterinarian may be designated.
(28) Practicing veterinary medicine in a facility without a valid registration unless subject to an exception in OAR 875-010-0031(1).
(29) Failure to report uncorrected, noncompliant facility conditions if registered as a Managing Veterinarian.
(30) Providing false, misleading, or deceptive information to the Board or its designated inspector as part of a facility inspection or investigation.
(31) Failing to perform the required duties of a managing veterinarian under OAR 875-010-0031. A Managing Veterinarian shall not be held liable for noncompliant facility conditions demonstrably beyond the control of the Managing Veterinarian.
(32) Allowing an unlicensed, uncertified, or non-registered individual to perform duties that require a license, certification, or registration from the Board.
(33) Failure to report prohibited or unprofessional conduct as described in ORS 676.150.
(a) “Prohibited conduct” means conduct by a licensee that:
(A) Constitutes a criminal act against a patient or client; or
(B) Constitutes a criminal act that creates a risk of harm to a patient or client.
(b) “Unprofessional conduct” means conduct unbecoming a licensee or detrimental to the best interests of the public, including conduct contrary to recognized standards of ethics of the licensee’s profession or conduct that endangers the health, safety or welfare of a patient or client.
(c) Unless state or federal laws relating to confidentiality or the protection of health information prohibit disclosure, a licensee who has reasonable cause to believe that another licensee has engaged in prohibited or unprofessional conduct shall report the conduct to the Board. The reporting licensee shall report the conduct without undue delay, but no later than 10 working days after the reporting licensee learns of the conduct.
(d) A licensee who is convicted of a misdemeanor or felony or who is arrested for a felony crime shall report the conviction or arrest to the Board within 10 days after the conviction or arrest.
(e) The Board may not require a licensee to report the licensee’s criminal conduct except as part of an application for a license or for renewal of a license and except as provided in section (d) of this rule.
(f) The Board shall investigate in accordance with the Board’s rules. If the Board has reasonable cause to believe that the licensee has engaged in prohibited conduct, the Board shall present the facts to an appropriate law enforcement agency without undue delay, but in no event later than 10 working days after the Board finds reasonable cause to believe that the licensee engaged in prohibited conduct.
(g) A licensee who fails to report prohibited or unprofessional conduct as required by section (c) of this rule or the licensee’s conviction or arrest as required by section (d) of this rule is subject to discipline by the Board.
(h) A licensee who fails to report prohibited conduct as required by section (c) of this rule commits a Class A violation.
(i) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, a report under subsection (c) of this rule is confidential under ORS 676.175. A board may disclose a report as provided in ORS 676.177.
(j) The obligations imposed by this section are in addition to, and not in lieu of, other obligations to report unprofessional conduct as provided by statute.
(k) A licensee who reports to the Board in good faith as required by section (c) of this rule is immune from civil liability for making the report.
(l) The Board and the members, employees, and contractors of the Board are immune from civil liability for actions taken in good faith as a result of a report received under section (c) of this rule.
(34) Failure to comply with the requirements of OAR 875-010-0031(11) regarding facility closure and disposition of patient records.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 686.210
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 686.130
- VMEB 1-2025, amend filed 04/11/2025, effective 04/11/2025
- VMEB 2-2021, amend filed 04/30/2021, effective 05/01/2021
- VMEB 5-2019, amend filed 10/28/2019, effective 10/28/2019
- VMEB 2-2019, minor correction filed 08/13/2019, effective 08/13/2019
- VMEB 5-2018, amend filed 05/01/2018, effective 05/01/2018
- VMEB 15-2017, minor correction filed 12/11/2017, effective 12/11/2017
- VMEB 9-2017, amend filed 11/07/2017, effective 11/08/2017
- VMEB 1-2015, f. & cert. ef. 11-13-15
- VMEB 2-2009, f. & cert. ef. 10-15-09
- VMEB 8-2008, f. & cert. ef. 7-22-08
- VMEB 3-2008, f. & cert. ef. 3-19-08
- VMEB 1-2006, f. & cert. ef. 2-8-06
Or. Admin. R. 875-011-0012 Citation and Fine
If an investigation or inspection reveals noncompliance with any requirements of the Veterinary Practice Act (ORS ch. 676, OAR ch. 875) that do not relate to risk of harm to animals or the public, the Board may propose a non-disciplinary citation and fine not to exceed $100 for each noncompliant instance.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 686.210
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 686.130
- VMEB 1-2018, minor correction filed 01/24/2018, effective 01/24/2018
- VMEB 1-2015, f. & cert. ef. 11-13-15
Or. Admin. R. 875-011-0015 Compliance with Governor's Emergency Executive Orders and Guidance
(1) During a declared emergency, unprofessional or dishonorable conduct includes failing to comply with any applicable provision of a Governor’s Emergency Executive Order or any provision of this rule.
(2) Failing to comply as described in subsection (1) includes, but is not limited to:
(a) Operating a business required by an Emergency Executive Order to be closed;
(b) Providing services at a business required by an Emergency Executive Order to be closed;
(c) Failing to comply with Oregon Health Authority (OHA) guidance implementing an Emergency Executive Order, including but not limited to:
(A) Failing to satisfy required criteria in OHA guidance prior to resuming elective and non-emergent procedures;
(B) Failing to implement a measured approach when resuming elective and non-emergent procedures in accordance with OHA guidance;
(d) Failing to comply with any Board guidance implementing an Emergency Executive Order.
(3) Failure to abide by the requirements of this rule may result in disciplinary action by the Board.
(4) No disciplinary action or penalty action shall be taken under this rule if the Emergency Executive Order alleged to have been violated is not in effect at the time of the alleged violation.
(5) Penalties for violating this rule are those authorized under ORS 686.150. Any such penalties shall be imposed in accordance with ORS Ch. 183.
(6) This rule shall remain in effect so long as an associated declared state of emergency is in effect. When the declared state of emergency is not in effect, this rule will not be effective.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 686.210
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 686
- VMEB 1-2021, adopt filed 04/30/2021, effective 05/01/2021
Division 15 MINIMUM STANDARDS FOR VETERINARY MEDICAL FACILITIES AND VETERINARY PRACTICE
Or. Admin. R. 875-015-0005 Responsibilities for Veterinary Medical Practices
(1) Each veterinarian who holds any interest in a veterinary medical practice, unless exempted by ORS 686.040, shall be jointly and severally professionally responsible for all aspects of all activities conducted at and conditions of each veterinary medical facility at which the veterinarian's practice is conducted, including all acts and omissions of all the vet's partners, joint venturers, fellow shareholders, employees, representatives, agents and contractors, unless the veterinarian can establish:
(a) In the case of a non-complying condition, that the condition was under the sole control of one or more other licensed partners, joint venturers, Managing Veterinarians or shareholders, and was not utilized by the first veterinarian directly, or indirectly by someone under the first veterinarians's supervision or direction; and
(b) In the case of a non-complying activity, that the act or omission was committed by one or more other licensed employees, contractors, partners, joint venturers, Managing Veterinarians or shareholders, and the first veterinarian exercised no supervision or direction over the act or omission of the other licensed employee, contractor, partner, joint venturer or shareholder, and the first veterinarian had no duty to supervise.
(2) A licensed veterinarian shall not be relieved of responsibility for his or her own acts and omissions because another person also has some responsibility.
(3) Each facility owner who has any interest in a veterinary medical practice shall provide to the Board, upon request, the following information:
(a) The name and address (or vehicle license number) of each veterinary medical facility in which they have any ownership interest or responsibility;
(b) The name and address of each person having any legal or equitable interest in each of the veterinary medical facilities, and the form and amount of each interest;
(c) The name and address of each person having any interest in the ownership, operation, management or control of the veterinary medical practice conducted in each veterinary medical facility and the form and amount of each interest;
(d) A description of the services provided at or from each veterinary medical facility;
(e) The names and titles of each licensed professional employed or retained as a contractor at each veterinary medical facility;
(f) The names of each shareholder and officer of each professional corporation having any interest in the veterinary medical practice; and
(g) Any other relevant information which the Board representative requests.
(6) The Board considers that:
(a) Any person who violates section (1) or (2) of this rule thereby violates ORS 686.020(1), unlicensed practice of veterinary medicine; and
(b) Any licensee who participates in the same veterinary medical practice thereby commits unprofessional or dishonorable conduct in violation of ORS 686.130(6), having a professional connection with an illegal practitioner.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 686.210, ORS 686.040, 686.020 & 686.130
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 686.040, 686.020 & 686.130
- VMEB 10-2017, amend filed 11/07/2017, effective 11/08/2017
- VMEB 1-2015, f. & cert. ef. 11-13-15
- VMEB 1-1998, f. & cert. ef. 7-1-98
- VME 2-1996, f. & cert. ef. 11-6-96
- VME 5-1992, f. & cert. ef. 12-10-92
Or. Admin. R. 875-015-0020 Minimum Requirements for Veterinary Medical Facilities and Veterinary Licensees
Each veterinary medical facility and veterinary licensee shall comply with the following:
(1) Air Quality: Adequate heating and cooling must be provided for the comfort and well-being of the animals, and the facility must have sufficient ventilation in all areas to prevent mildew and condensation, and to exhaust toxic and/or nauseous fumes and/or odors.
(2) Lighting: Sufficient lighting must be provided in all areas sufficient for the safety of personnel and the intended use of this area.
(3) Water: Potable water must be provided.
(4) Waste Disposal: Waste disposal equipment shall be so operated as to minimize insect or other vermin infestation, and to prevent odor and disease hazards or other nuisance conditions. The veterinary medical facility shall have sanitary and aesthetic disposal of dead animals and other wastes which complies with all applicable federal, state, county and municipal laws, rules, ordinances and regulations.
(5) Storage: All supplies, including food and bedding, shall be stored in a manner that adequately protects such supplies against infestation, contamination or deterioration. Adequate refrigeration shall be provided for all supplies that are of a perishable nature, including foods, drugs and biologicals.
(6) Examination Area: Examination and surgery tables shall have impervious surfaces.
(7) Laboratory: May be either in the veterinary medical facility or through consultative services, adequate to render diagnostic information. An in-house laboratory shall meet the following minimum standards:
(a) The laboratory shall be clean and orderly with provision for ample storage;
(b) Adequate refrigeration shall be provided;
(c) Any tests performed shall be properly conducted by currently recognized methods to assure reasonable accuracy and reliability of results.
(d) Laboratory equipment must provide results of diagnostic quality. Protocols must be in place and followed regularly to assure the quality and reproducibility of the diagnostic information produced.
(8) Radiology: Equipment for diagnostic radiography must be available either on or off the veterinary medical facility. Such equipment must be on the premises if orthopedic or open thoracic procedures are performed. The equipment must meet federal and state protective requirements and be capable of producing, reading and labeling good quality diagnostic radiographs, including imaging diagnosis and findings. Equipment for providing diagnostic oral radiography must be available to the veterinary medical facility whenever surgical dental services are offered.
(9) Animal Housing Areas: Each veterinary medical facility confining animals must have individual cages, pens, exercise areas or stalls to confine said animals in a comfortable, sanitary and safe manner. Animals that are hospitalized for treatment of contagious diseases must be isolated physically and procedurally so as to prevent the spread of disease.
(10) Licenses: Licenses of every veterinarian or veterinary technician practicing in the veterinary medical facility shall be displayed in a place conspicuous to the public. Relief or temporary licensees may post legible photocopies of licenses. Mobile practice licensees shall have their license or a legible copy available for verification upon client request.
(11) Prescriptions: If requested, a written prescription shall be provided to a client for medications prescribed by the veterinarian under a valid VCPR. The facility shall post in a place conspicuous to the public a notice indicating availability of written prescriptions. The facility shall use, or replicate the specifications of, a notice template provided by the Board.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 686.210
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 686.130
- VMEB 4-2018, amend filed 04/19/2018, effective 04/19/2018
- VMEB 2-2018, amend filed 01/24/2018, effective 01/24/2018
- VMEB 2-2014, f. & cert. ef. 1-17-14
- VMEB 9-2008, f. & cert. ef. 7-22-08
- VMEB 1-2006, f. & cert. ef. 2-8-06
- VME 5-1992, f. & cert. ef. 12-10-92
Or. Admin. R. 875-015-0030 Minimum Veterinary Practice Standards
Each veterinary medical facility shall comply with the following:
(1) Medical Records: A legible individual record shall be maintained for each animal. However, the medical record for a litter may be recorded either on the dam's record or on a litter record until the individual animals are permanently placed or reach the age of three months. Records for herd or flock animals may be maintained on a group or client basis. All records shall be readily retrievable and must be kept for a minimum of three (3) years following the last treatment or examination. Records shall include, but are not limited to, the following information:
(a) Name or initials of the veterinarian responsible for entries; any written entry to a medical record that is made subsequent to the date of treatment or service must include the date that the entry was added.
(b) Name, address and telephone number of the owner and/or client.
(c) Name, number or other identification of the animal and/or herd or flock.
(d) Species, breed, age, sex, and color or distinctive markings, where applicable, each individual animal.
(e) Vaccination history, if known, shall be part of the medical record.
(f) Beginning and ending dates of custody of the animal.
(g) Pertinent history and presenting complaint.
(2) Required examinations. Unless exempted under (1) of this section or the animal’s temperament precludes examination, a physical examination is required:
(a) To establish or maintain a VCPR.
(b) Each time an animal is presented with a new health problem.
(c) Within 24 hours of scheduled anesthesia. And;
(d) If an animal is presented for euthanasia. (May be limited to elements necessary for the humane application of the procedure, such as a weight estimate and visual assessment if necessary due to the patient’s condition or temperament.)
(e) Examinations waived due to exemption or temperament must be noted in the record. The veterinarian may waive examinations not required by this section.
(f) For each physical exam the following conditions shall be evaluated and findings documented when applicable by species, even if such condition is normal.
(A) Temperature;
(B) Current weight or weight estimate for large animals;
(C) Body condition or score;
(D) Eyes, ears, nose and throat;
(E) Oral cavity;
(F) Cardiovascular and respiratory systems including heart rate and pulse, auscultation of the thorax, trachea, as species appropriate, and respiratory rate;
(G) Evaluation of the abdomen by palpation and/or auscultation if applicable by species;
(H) Lymph nodes;
(I) Musculoskeletal system;
(J) Neurological system;
(K) Genito/urinary system;
(L) Integumentary system
(M) All data obtained by instrumentation;
(N) Diagnostic assessment;
(O) If relevant, a prognosis of the animal's condition;
(P) Diagnosis or tentative diagnosis at the beginning of custody of animal;
(Q) Treatments and intended treatment plan, medications, immunizations administered, dosages, frequency and route of administration;
(R) All prescription or legend drugs dispensed, ordered or prescribed shall be recorded including: dosage, frequency, quantity and directions for use. Any changes made by telecommunications shall be recorded. Legend drugs in original unopened manufacturer's packaging dispensed or ordered for herd use are exempt from this rule. Legend and prescription drugs are as defined by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration in 'FDA and the Veterinarian'.
(S) Surgical procedures shall be described including name of the surgeon, suture material used, and diagnostic findings;
(T) Progress of the case while in the veterinary medical facility;
(U) Exposed radiographs shall have permanent facility and animal identification;
(V) If a client declines an examination, it shall be noted in the medical records.
(W) If a client consents to or declines any diagnostics, tests, or other recommended treatments, it shall be noted in the medical records.
(3) Surgery: Surgery shall be performed in a manner compatible with current veterinary practice with regard to anesthesia, asepsis or antisepsis, life support and monitoring procedures, and recovery care. The minimum standards for surgery shall be:
(a) Aseptic surgery shall be performed in a room or area designated for that purpose and isolated from other activities during the procedure. A separate, designated area is not necessarily required for herd or flock animal surgery or antiseptic surgery;
(b) The surgery room or area shall be clean, orderly, well-lighted and maintained in a sanitary condition:
(c) All appropriate equipment shall be sterilized:
(A) Chemical disinfection ("cold sterilization") shall be used only for field conditions or antiseptic surgical procedures;
(B) Provisions for sterilization shall include a steam pressure sterilizer (autoclave) or gas sterilizer (e.g. ethylene oxide) or equivalent.
(d) For each aseptic surgical procedure, a separate sterile surgical pack shall be used for each animal. Surgeons and surgical assistants shall use aseptic technique throughout the entire surgical procedure;
(e) Minor surgical procedures shall be performed at least under antiseptic surgical techniques;
(f) All animals shall be prepared for surgery as follows:
(A) Clip and surgically prepare the surgical area for aseptic surgical procedures;
(B) Loose hair must be removed from the surgical area;
(C) Scrub the surgical area with appropriate surgical soap;
(D) Disinfect the surgical area;
(E) Drape the surgical area appropriately.
(4) A veterinarian shall use appropriate and humane methods of anesthesia, analgesia and sedation to minimize pain and distress during any procedures or conditions and shall comply with the following standards:
(a) Animals shall have a documented physical exam conducted within 24 hours prior to the administration of a sedative or anesthetic, which is necessary for veterinary procedures, unless the temperament of the patient precludes an exam prior to the use of chemical restraint;
(b) An animal under general anesthesia for a medical or surgical procedure shall be under direct observation throughout the anesthetic period and during recovery from anesthesia until the patient is awake and in sternal recumbency;
(c) A method of cardiac monitoring shall be employed to assess heart rate and rhythm repeatedly during anesthesia and may include a stethoscope or electronic monitor;
(d) A method of monitoring the respiratory system shall be employed to assess respiratory rate and pattern repeatedly during anesthesia and may include a stethoscope or electronic monitor.
(e) Where general anesthesia is performed in a hospital or clinic for companion animal species (excluding farm animals), anesthetic equipment available shall include an oxygen source, equipment to maintain an open airway and a stethoscope;
(f) Anesthetic and sedation procedures and anesthetic and sedative medications used shall be documented, including agent used, dosage, route of administration, and strength, if available in more than one strength;
(g) Adequate means for resuscitation including intravenous catheter and fluids shall be available;
(h) Emergency drugs shall be immediately available at all times;
(i) While under sedation or general anesthesia, materials shall be provided to help prevent loss of body heat;
(j) Analgesic medications, techniques and/or husbandry methods shall be used to prevent and minimize pain in animals experiencing or expected to experience pain, including but not limited to all surgical procedures;
(k) Chemical restraint may be used in conjunction with, but not in lieu of, analgesic therapy;
(l) Appropriate analgesic therapy shall be guided by information specific to each case, including but not limited to species, breed, patient health and behavioral characteristics, the procedure performed, and the expected degree and duration of pain.
(5) Library: A library of appropriate and current veterinary journals and textbooks or access to veterinary internet resources shall be available for ready reference.
(6) Laboratory: Veterinarians shall have the capability for use of either in-house or outside laboratory service for appropriate diagnostic testing of animal samples.
(7) Biologicals and drugs: The minimum standards for drug procedures shall be:
(a) All biological substances shall be stored, maintained, administered, dispensed and prescribed in compliance with federal and state laws and manufacturers' recommendations;
(b) Controlled substances and legend drugs shall be dispensed, ordered or prescribed based on a VCPR and shall be labeled with the following:
(A) Name of client and identification of animal(s);
(B) Date dispensed;
(C) Complete directions for use;
(D) Name, strength, dosage and the amount of the drug dispensed;
(E) Manufacturer's expiration date;
(F) Name of prescribing veterinarian and veterinary medical facility.
(c) No biological or drug shall be administered or dispensed after the expiration date, for a fee.
(d) Rabies vaccine shall be administered only by an Oregon-licensed veterinarian, a Certified Veterinary Technician under direct supervision of an Oregon-licensed veterinarian, or a person authorized by the Oregon Public Health Veterinarian pursuant to OAR 333-019-0017.
(e) If requested, a prescription shall be provided to a client for medications prescribed by the veterinarian under a valid VCPR.
(8) A veterinarian shall not use, or participate in the use of, any form of advertising or solicitation which contains a false, deceptive or misleading statement or claim.
(a) Specialty Services: Veterinarians shall not make a statement or claim as a specialist or specialty practice unless the veterinarian is a diplomate of a recognized specialty organization of the American Veterinary Medical Association;
(b) The public shall be informed if an animal will be left unattended in the veterinary facility.
(9) The veterinarian shall be readily available or has arranged for emergency coverage or follow-up evaluation in the event of adverse reaction or the failure of the treatment regimen.
(10) Euthanasia: Documented consent shall be obtained and a physical exam conducted prior to performing euthanasia. The exam may be limited to the elements necessary for the humane application of the procedure, such as a weight estimate and visual assessment if necessary due to the patient’s condition or temperament. When ownership and identification of an animal cannot be reasonably established, the medical record for euthanasia shall contain a physical description of the animal.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 686.210
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 686.040 & ORS 686.370
- VMEB 5-2021, amend filed 08/24/2021, effective 09/01/2021
- VMEB 13-2017, minor correction filed 11/09/2017, effective 11/09/2017
- VMEB 11-2017, amend filed 11/07/2017, effective 11/08/2017
- VMEB 7-2017, f. & cert. ef. 5-16-17
- VMEB 3-2016(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 12-12-16 thru 6-9-17
- VMEB 2-2014, f. & cert. ef. 1-17-14
- VMEB 4-2011, f. & cert. ef. 8-5-11
- VMEB 2-2010, f. & cert. ef. 5-6-10
- VMEB 1-2008, f. & cert. ef. 2-11-08
- VMEB 2-2006, f. & cert. ef. 5-11-06
- VMEB 1-2006, f. & cert. ef. 2-8-06
- VME 5-1992, f. & cert. ef. 12-10-92
Or. Admin. R. 875-015-0035 Minimum Standards for Veterinary Telemedicine
(1) Veterinary Telemedicine (VTM) occurs in Oregon when either the animal who is receiving the care is located in Oregon when receiving VTM or the person providing the care to the animal is located in Oregon when providing VTM, pursuant to the provisions of ORS 686.020. VTM may be provided only under a valid VCPR.
(2) VTM may be used when a veterinarian has a VCPR only when it is possible to make a diagnosis and create a treatment plan without a new physical exam.
(3) VTM may be used prior to an initial visit when there has not been a previous physical examination for the purpose of prescribing sedation for an aggressive or fractious patient.
(4) Prescriptions may only be issued when VTM occurs if the veterinarian has evaluated the safety of doing so via VTM, and in compliance with all state and federal laws.
(5) A veterinarian shall not substitute VTM for a physical exam when a physical exam is warranted or necessary for an accurate diagnosis of any medical condition or creation of an appropriate treatment plan.
(6) When practicing VTM in Oregon, licensees must conform to all minimum standards of practice and applicable laws. Licensees are fully responsible and accountable for their conduct when using VTM under the Board’s statutes and rules.
(7) Whenever VTM is practiced in Oregon, a veterinarian must:
(a) Ensure that any technology used in the provision of VTM is sufficient and of appropriate quality to provide accuracy of remote assessment and diagnosis.
(b) Ensure that medical information obtained via VTM is recorded completely in the patient medical record and meets all applicable requirements of OAR 875-015-0030(1).
(8) A veterinarian may only delegate the provision of VTM to a Certified Veterinary Technician who is acting under direct or indirect supervision and in accordance with OAR 875-030-0040. A valid VCPR must exist for the CVT to provide VTM services.
(9) Veterinarians and CVTs providing VTM shall at the time of service provide their contact information to the client or practice using the service. All VTM records shall be provided to the client or practice and are subject to the provisions of 875-011-0010 (12), (13).
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 686.210 & ORS 686.370
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 686.210, ORS 686.370 & IRS 686.040
- VMEB 3-2026, amend filed 06/18/2026, effective 06/18/2026
- VMEB 7-2025, amend filed 11/10/2025, effective 11/10/2025
- VMEB 4-2025, temporary amend filed 09/12/2025, effective 09/12/2025 through 03/10/2026
- VMEB 2-2025, amend filed 07/24/2025, effective 07/24/2025
- VMEB 1-2020, adopt filed 02/10/2020, effective 02/10/2020
Or. Admin. R. 875-015-0040 Minimum Standards for Veterinary Drugs
(1) Definitions:
(a) Administer’ means the direct application of a drug or device whether by injection, inhalation, ingestion or any other means, to the body of an animal patient by:
(A) A veterinarian, Certified Veterinary Technician or employee under the veterinarian's supervision; or
(B) A client or their authorized agent at the direction of the veterinarian.
(b) Dispense' or Dispensing' means, under a lawful prescription of a veterinarian, the preparation and delivery of a prescription drug, in a suitable container appropriately labeled for subsequent veterinary patient administration, to a client or other individual entitled to receive the prescription drug. Controlled substances and legend drugs shall be dispensed, ordered or prescribed based on a VCPR.
(c) "Pharmacy Self-Inspection Form": The Oregon Veterinary Medical Examining Board Dispensing Practitioner Drug Outlet Self-Inspection form. The pharmacy self-inspection form will be available from the Board on its website or upon request.
(2) Policies and Procedures, Acquisition and Inspection: The veterinary facility and managing veterinarian must:
(a) Maintain written policies and procedures for drug procurement and management, including storage, security, integrity, access, dispensing, disposal, record keeping and accountability.
(b) All records of receipt and disposal of drugs must be retained for a minimum of three years;
(c) All records required by these rules or by other state or federal law must be readily retrievable and available for inspection by the Board's inspector or inspectors from other agencies having jurisdiction.
(d) The veterinary facility and managing veterinarian must verify that prescription drugs are acquired from a source registered with the Board of Pharmacy;
(e) Inspection: Veterinary facilities will be periodically inspected to ensure compliance with these rules. The Managing Veterinarian of a veterinary facility must annually complete the pharmacy self-inspection form. The completed pharmacy self-inspection form shall be submitted with the application for a veterinary facility license and with the annual application to renew a veterinary facility license. All drug records and storage areas shall be made available for inspection.
(f) Managing veterinarians are responsible for ensuring that all licensees, agents and employees of the facility, and the facility as applicable, maintain compliance with the rules and regulations set forth in section (3) or this rule.
(3) Drug Dispensing, Security, Storage and Recordkeeping: All licensees, managing veterinarians and facilities must:
(a) Comply with all federal and state laws regarding veterinary drugs.
(b) All drugs must be kept in a locked drug cabinet or designated drug storage area that is sufficiently secure to deny access to unauthorized persons. Controlled drugs must be kept in a locked cabinet with access limited to persons authorized by the Managing Veterinarian.
(c) In accordance with 21 CFR 11301.75, controlled substances listed in Schedule I, II III, IV and IV shall be stored in a securely locked, substantially constructed cabinet.
(d) Drugs that are outdated, damaged, deteriorated, misbranded, or adulterated must be quarantined and physically separated from other drugs until they are destroyed or returned to the supplier.
(e) All drugs, including drug samples, must be stored according to manufacturer's published guidelines and in appropriate conditions of temperature, light, humidity, sanitation, ventilation and space.
(f) Prescription Labeling. A prescription must be labeled with the following information:
(A) Name of patient.
(B) Name of prescriber.
(C) Name, address, and phone number of the facility.
(D) Identification of the animal, herd or flock, (if appropriate).
(E) Date of dispensing.
(F) Name and strength of the drug,
(G) Quantity dispensed.
(H) Dosage and frequency.
(I) Withdrawal time, (if appropriate).
(J) Any other Directions for use.
(K) Manufacturer's expiration date, or an earlier date if preferable, after which the drug should not be administered to the patient. And;
(L) Cautionary information as required for patient safety and required precautionary information regarding controlled substances: In accordance with 21 CFR 1290.5, the label of any drug listed as a 'controlled substance' in Schedule II, III or IV of the Federal Controlled Substances Act must, when dispensed to or for a patient, contain the following warning: "Caution: Federal law prohibits the transfer of this drug to any person other than the patient for whom it was prescribed." This statement is not required to appear on the label of a controlled substance dispensed for use in clinical investigations which are 'blind.'
(g) Dispensing and Drug Delivery:
(A) The veterinarian or their representative must orally counsel the client concerning all new drugs prescribed unless circumstances would render oral counseling ineffective.
(B) If requested, a prescription shall be provided to a client for drugs and medications prescribed by the veterinarian under a valid VCPR.
(C) Rabies vaccine shall be administered only by an Oregon-licensed veterinarian, a Certified Veterinary Technician under direct supervision of an Oregon-licensed veterinarian, or a person authorized by the Oregon Public Health Veterinarian pursuant to OAR 333-019-0017.
(D) Drugs must be dispensed in a new container that complies with the current provisions of the Federal Consumer Packaging Act (Public Law 91-601, 91st Congress, S. 216216 CFR 500) and rules or regulations and with the current United States Pharmacopoeia/National Formulary monographs for preservation, packaging, storage and labeling.
(E) Disposal of Drugs: Drugs that are outdated, damaged, deteriorated, misbranded, or adulterated must be quarantined and physically separated from other drugs until they are destroyed or returned to the supplier. At the discretion of the veterinarian, outdated drugs may be dispensed as long as the client is informed and there is no fee charged for the drugs.
(h) Record Keeping - For all drugs, a dispensing record must be maintained separately from the patient chart and retained for a minimum of three years. The record must show, at a minimum, the following:
(A) Name of patient.
(B) Dose, dosage form, quantity dispensed.
(C) Directions for use.
(D) Date of dispensing. And;
(E) Name of person dispensing the prescription.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 686.210, ORS 686.040, ORS 686.370 & ORS 686.130
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 686.210, ORS 686.040, ORS 686.370 & ORS 686.130
- VMEB 7-2024, minor correction filed 09/12/2024, effective 09/12/2024
- VMEB 4-2021, amend filed 08/24/2021, effective 09/01/2021
- VMEB 5-2020, minor correction filed 07/14/2020, effective 07/14/2020
- VMEB 4-2020, minor correction filed 06/22/2020, effective 06/22/2020
- VMEB 3-2020, adopt filed 05/18/2020, effective 05/18/2020
Or. Admin. R. 875-015-0050 Veterinary Dentistry
(1) A veterinary dental operation or procedure is the application or use of any instrument or device to any portion of an animal's tooth, gum, or related tissue for the prevention, cure, or relief of any wound, fracture, injury, disease, or other condition of an animal's tooth, gum, or related tissue. Dental operations or procedures shall be performed only by licensed veterinarians, except for those veterinary dental procedures set out in section (3) of this rule.
(2) Minimum Standards:
(a) Where preventive dental cleanings are offered, appropriate polishing equipment shall be available;
(b) Dental diagnostic radiograph capability shall be available when surgical dental services are offered;
(c) Records of dental work performed shall be kept and become part of the animal’s permanent record.
(3) Preventive veterinary dental procedures including, but not limited to, the removal of calculus, soft deposits, plaque, and stains, or the smoothing, filing, or polishing of tooth surfaces shall be performed only by licensed veterinarians, certified veterinary technicians or veterinary assistants under the direct supervision of a licensed veterinarian.
(4) This rule does not prohibit any person from utilizing cotton swabs, gauze, dental floss, dentifrice, toothbrushes, or similar items to maintain an animal's oral hygiene.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 686.210
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 686.040 & 686.370
- VMEB 1-2006, f. & cert. ef. 2-8-06
- VME 5-1992, f. & cert. ef. 12-10-92, Renumbered from 875-015-0010
- VME 1-1990, f. & cert. ef. 1-26-90
Division 30 CERTIFIED VETERINARY TECHNICIANS
Or. Admin. R. 875-030-0000 Introduction
Prior to the adoption of these rules, OAR 875-030-0000 through 875-030-0050, the Board referred to the license issued to animal health technicians, pursuant to ORS 686.350 through 686.370 and OAR 875-010-0025, as certificate and to the holders as certified animal health technicians. The Board shall continue to refer to such licenses as certificates, but, from now on, shall refer to the holders as certified veterinary technicians. All individuals who were certified animal health technicians immediately prior to the adoption of these rules shall be considered to be certified veterinary technicians hereafter.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 686.210
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 686.350 - 686.370
- VMEB 1-2024, minor correction filed 03/21/2024, effective 03/21/2024
- VME 3-1992, f. & cert. ef. 10-9-92, Renumbered from 875-010-0025
- VME 3-1991, f. & cert. ef. 12-9-91
- VME 1-1991, f. & cert. ef. 1-24-91
- VME 2-1989, f. 8-29-89, cert. ef. 10-1-89
- VME 3-1983, f. & ef. 1-21-83
- VE 5, f. & ef. 8-3-76
Or. Admin. R. 875-030-0010 Criteria for Becoming a Certified Veterinary Technician (CVT)
In order to be licensed as a CVT, an individual must:
(1) Pass the examinations referred to in OAR 875-030-0020; and
(2) Hold a certificate in veterinary technology (or a comparable certificate) from a college accredited by the American Veterinary Medical Association, or other program approved by the Board; or
(3) Have been actively licensed or registered in good standing as a veterinary technician in another state or states for a minimum of four years within the last eight years of application, and:
(a) Worked as a licensed veterinary technician or instructor of veterinary technology performing duties substantially equivalent to those in OAR 875-030-0040 for a minimum of four years within the last eight years of application; and
(b) Pass the examinations referred to in OAR 87-030-0020; and
(c) Provide notarized letters confirming clinical competency as a veterinary technician or instructor from at least a veterinarian or college official who supervised the applicant pursuant to (a) of this section; and
(d) Provide W2 federal tax forms or other Board-approved proof of employment or experience as a licensed veterinary technician or instructor; and
(e) Provide proof of CE as required in OAR 875-010-0090 that is current at the time of application.
(4) A graduate of a veterinary school that is not AVMA-accredited may be eligible for licensure as a CVT if the individual:
(a) Provides notarized documentation of graduation with the doctor of veterinary medicine degree or its equivalent in the country where the degree was conferred; and
(b) Passes the examinations referred to in OAR 875-030-0020.
(5) The Board may conduct background checks on initial and renewing CVT license applicants. Applicants and licensees shall be required to provide any police and court records for any arrests and convictions.
(6) The Board may refuse to issue a license or permit to an applicant for any of the following:
(a) Violations of veterinary practice laws and rules in Oregon and other states, provinces or countries;
(b) Violations of other laws substantially related to the qualifications, functions or duties of veterinary medicine;
(c) Evidence of previous incompetence or negligence in the care of animals[;
(d) Performing duties limited to CVTs prior to licensure;
(e) Impairment as defined in ORS 676.303;
(f) Conviction of a crime, subject to ORS 670.280; or
(g) Making a misrepresentation or material omission on application or otherwise to the Board.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 686.210
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 686.350 - 686.370
- VMEB 4-2019, amend filed 10/28/2019, effective 10/28/2019
- VMEB 1-2019, amend filed 05/22/2019, effective 05/23/2019
- VMEB 1-2017, f. & cert. ef. 1-12-17
- VMEB 9-2016, f. & cert. ef. 12-13-16
- VMEB 6-2014, f. & cert. ef. 10-20-14
- VMEB 4-2014, f. & cert. ef. 1-17-14
- VMEB 2-2011, f. & cert. ef. 3-2-11
- VMEB 3-2010, f. & cert. ef. 5-6-10
- VMEB 3-2009, f. & cert. ef. 10-15-09
- VMEB 15-2008, f. & cert. ef. 12-15-08
- VMEB 10-2008, f. & cert. ef. 7-22-08
- VMEB 2-2006, f. & cert. ef. 5-11-06
- VMEB 1-2006, f. & cert. ef. 2-8-06
- VMEB 2-2000, f. & cert. ef. 6-21-00
- VME 3-1992, f. & cert. ef. 10-9-92, Renumbered from 875-010-0025
- VME 3-1991, f. & cert. ef. 12-9-91
- VME 1-1991, f. & cert. ef. 1-24-91
- VME 2-1989, f. 8-29-89, cert. ef. 10-1-89
- VME 3-1983, f. & ef. 1-21-83
- VE 5, f. & ef. 8-3-76
Or. Admin. R. 875-030-0020 Examinations for Certified Veterinary Technicians
(1) Applicants for licensure as CVTs shall pass the Veterinary Technician National Examination (VTNE) with a criterion score of 425 or greater. The Board will accept VTNE scores transferred to Oregon through the Veterinary Information Verifying Agency (VIVA) if the examination was taken in another state.
(2) In addition to the VTNE, applicants must successfully complete an open book examination on the Oregon Veterinary Practice Act (ORS 686) with a passing score of at least 95 percent, and the Regional Disease Test, with a passing score of 100 percent.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 686.210
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 686.350 - 686.370
- VMEB 4-2014, f. & cert. ef. 1-17-14
- VMEB 2-2011, f. & cert. ef. 3-2-11
- VMEB 3-2009, f. & cert. ef. 10-15-09
- VMEB 1-2006, f. & cert. ef. 2-8-06
- VME 2-1996, f. & cert. ef. 11-6-96
- VME 3-1992, f. & cert. ef. 10-9-92, Renumbered from 875-010-0025
- VME 3-1991, f. & cert. ef. 12-9-91
- VME 1-1991, f. & cert. ef. 1-24-91
- VME 2-1989, f. 8-29-89, cert. ef. 10-1-89
- VME 3-1983, f. & ef. 1-21-83
- VE 5, f. & ef. 8-3-76
Or. Admin. R. 875-030-0025 Application for Certified Veterinary Technicians
(1) Applications for certification shall include:
(a) An application form available from the Board office completed by the applicant;
(b) The application fee payable to the Board;
(c) An official transcript or verification of standing and impending graduation from school.
(d) Completion of the Oregon Jurisprudence Exam and Regional Disease Test;
(e) The VTNE score report if the examination was taken in another state; and
(f) Letters of good standing from any other state the applicant is or has been licensed in as a veterinary or animal health technician.
(2) All applications for the VTNE must be made directly to the American Association of Veterinary State Boards (AAVSB, www.aavsb.org). The application fee for certification if the VTNE was taken in another state is a fee payable to the Board.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 686.210
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 686.225 & 686.350 - 686.370
- VMEB 5-2025, amend filed 09/12/2025, effective 10/01/2025
- VMEB 5-2014, f. & cert. ef. 4-22-14
- VMEB 2-2013, f. & cert. ef. 10-29-13
- VMEB 1-2013, f. & cert. ef. 10-4-13
- VMEB 2-2011, f. & cert. ef. 3-2-11
- VMEB 3-2009, f. & cert. ef. 10-15-09
- VMEB 2-2006, f. & cert. ef. 5-11-06
- VMEB 1-2006, f. & cert. ef. 2-8-06
- VME 3-1992, f. & cert. ef. 10-9-92, Renumbered from 875-010-0025
- VME 3-1991, f. & cert. ef. 12-9-91
- VME 1-1991, f. & cert. ef. 1-24-91
- VME 2-1989, f. 8-29-89, cert. ef. 10-1-89
- VME 3-1983, f. & ef. 1-21-83
- VE 5, f. & ef. 8-3-76
Or. Admin. R. 875-030-0030 Issuance of Licenses, Fees, Renewals for Certified Veterinary Technicians
(1) Upon filing a complete application and meeting all the criteria of OAR 875-030-0010, the Board will issue the applicant a Certified Veterinary Technician (CVT) license.
(2) Each CVT license shall expire on December 31st of each renewal cycle.
(3) Prior to the expiration of the CVT license, the Board will send renewal instructions to the mailing address and/or email address of the CVT on file with the Board. CVTs shall keep the Board advised of their address at all times. The Board shall be entitled to rely on its records, regardless of whether the CVT keeps the Board so advised.
(4) CVTs may be renewed without re-examination upon timely application. A renewal application accompanied by the fee must be submitted to the Board postmarked no later than December 31st of each renewal cycle in order to be considered timely filed.
(a) Renewal forms received or postmarked between January 1st and 31st will incur a late fee.
(b) Renewal forms received or postmarked between February 1st and February 28th or 29th will incur additional late fees.
(c) Renewal forms received or postmarked between March 1st and April 30th will incur additional late fees.
(d) If the CVT license lapses, a 21-month grace period begins. The CVT may renew the license within the 21-month period by paying the maximum delinquent fee and the current renewal fee, and by providing documentation of veterinary technician activities, including having completed 15 hours of approved continuing education, during the interim. After 21 months, the license may be revoked and the CVT may have to re-qualify for licensure by taking an examination specified by the Board.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 686.210
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 686.255 & 686.350 - 686.370
- VMEB 5-2025, amend filed 09/12/2025, effective 10/01/2025
- VMEB 8-2024, amend filed 10/24/2024, effective 10/24/2024
- VMEB 4-2014, f. & cert. ef. 1-17-14
- VMEB 1-2008, f. & cert. ef. 2-11-08
- VME 3-1992, f. & cert. ef. 10-9-92, Renumbered from 875-010-0025
- VME 3-1991, f. & cert. ef. 12-9-91
- VME 1-1991, f. & cert. ef. 1-24-91
- VME 2-1989, f. 8-29-89, cert. ef. 10-1-89
- VME 3-1983, f. & ef. 1-21-83
- VE 5, f. & ef. 8-3-76
Or. Admin. R. 875-030-0040 Supervision of Certified Veterinary Technicians
(1) All duties of CVTs must be performed under the supervision of a licensed veterinarian.
(2) CVTs may perform the following acts:
(a) Obtain and record information:
(A) Complete admission records, including recording the statements made by the client concerning the patient's problems and history. The CVT may also record the technician's own observations of the patient. However, the CVT cannot state or record his or her opinion concerning diagnosis of the patient;
(B) Maintain daily progress records, surgery logs, X-ray logs, Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) logs, and all other routine records as directed by the supervising veterinarian.
(b) Prepare patients, instruments, equipment and medicant for surgery:
(A) Prepare and sterilize surgical packs;
(B) Clip, surgically scrub, and disinfect the surgical site in preparation for surgery;
(C) Administer preanesthetic drugs as prescribed by the supervising veterinarian;
(D) Position the patient for anesthesia;
(E) Induce anesthesia as prescribed by the supervising veterinarian;
(F) Operate anesthetic machines, oxygen equipment, and monitoring equipment.
(G) Place an endotracheal tube for the purpose of delivering oxygen and anesthetic gas to the patient requiring inhalant anesthesia.
(c) Collect specimens and perform laboratory procedures:
(A) Collect urine, feces, sputum, and all other excretions and secretions for laboratory analysis;
(B) Collect blood samples for laboratory analysis;
(C) Collect skin scrapings;
(D) Perform routine laboratory procedures including urinalysis, fecal analyses, hematological and serological examinations.
(d) Apply and remove wound and surgical dressings, casts, and splints;
(e) Assist the veterinarian in diagnostic, medical, and surgical proceedings:
(A) Monitor and record the patient's vital signs;
(B) Medically bathe the patient;
(C) Administer topical, oral hypodermic, and intravenous medication as directed by the supervising veterinarian;
(D) Operate X-ray equipment and other diagnostic imaging equipment;
(E) Take electrocardiograms, electroencephalograms, and tracings;
(F) Perform dental prophylaxis, including operating ultrasonic dental instruments pursuant to OAR 875-015-0050.
(G) Perform extractions under the immediate supervision of a licensed veterinarian.
(H) Administer rabies vaccine under the direct supervision of a licensed veterinarian.
(I) Administer a permanent identification device.
(J) Under indirect supervision, carry out an Oregon-licensed veterinarians’ home care instructions for duties permitted under OAR 875-030-0040. A valid VCPR must exist in order for a CVT to perform duties under indirect supervision.
(3) CVTs may perform other acts not specifically enumerated herein under the supervision of a veterinarian licensed to practice veterinary medicine in the State of Oregon. However, nothing in this section shall be construed to permit a CVT to do the following:
(a) Make any diagnosis;
(b) Prescribe any treatments;
(c) Perform surgery, except as an assistant to the veterinarian;
(d) Sign a rabies vaccination or any other animal health certificate.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 686.210
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 686.350 - 686.370
- VMEB 1-2022, amend filed 02/25/2022, effective 03/01/2022
- VMEB 4-2014, f. & cert. ef. 1-17-14
- VMEB 11-2008, f. & cert. ef. 7-22-08
- VMEB 1-2008, f. & cert. ef. 2-11-08
- VMEB 2-2006, f. & cert. ef. 5-11-06
- VMEB 1-2006, f. & cert. ef. 2-8-06
- Reverted to VME 3-1992, f. & cert. ef. 10-9-92, Renumbered from 875-010-0025
- VMEB 1-2002(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 4-23-02 thru 10-20-02
- VME 3-1992, f. & cert. ef. 10-9-92, Renumbered from 875-010-0025
- VME 3-1991, f. & cert. ef. 12-9-91
- VME 1-1991, f. & cert. ef. 1-24-91
- VME 2-1989, f. 8-29-89, cert. ef. 10-1-89
- VME 3-1983, f. & ef. 1-21-83
- VE 5, f. & ef. 8-3-76
Or. Admin. R. 875-030-0045 Unprofessional or Dishonorable Conduct
The Board interprets "unprofessional or dishonorable conduct" to include, but is not limited to the following:
(1) Gross negligence in the performance of duties as a Certified Veterinary Technician (CVT).
(2) A pattern, practice or continuous course of negligence, ignorance, incompetence or inefficiency in practice as a CVT. The incidents may be dissimilar.
(3) Diagnosing, prescribing, or performing other activities that may be done only by a licensed veterinarian.
(4) Handling animals in an inhumane manner or with unnecessary force.
(5) Theft or diversion of legend or controlled drugs.
(6) Failure to respond or appear as requested, without good cause, within the time required by the Board.
(7) Failure to comply with any rule or order of the Board or as required by OAR 875-005-0010.
(8) Altering or falsifying medical records.
(9) Making a misrepresentation or omission on a license renewal application.
(10) Violations of veterinary laws in other states that would constitute violations of Oregon law.
(11) Violations of other laws that relate to the practice of veterinary medicine.
(12) Failure without good cause to notify the Board within 30 days if contact information changes.
(13) Providing false, misleading or deceptive information to the Board.
(14) Failure to report unprofessional or prohibited conduct as described in ORS 676.150.
(15) “Prohibited conduct” means conduct by a licensee that:
(a) Constitutes a criminal act against a patient or client; or
(b) Constitutes a criminal act that creates a risk of harm to a patient or client.
(16) “Unprofessional conduct” means conduct unbecoming a licensee or detrimental to the best interests of the public, including conduct contrary to recognized standards of ethics of the licensee’s profession or conduct that endangers the health, safety or welfare of a patient or client.
(17) Unless state or federal laws relating to confidentiality or the protection of health information prohibit disclosure, a licensee who has reasonable cause to believe that another licensee has engaged in prohibited or unprofessional conduct shall report the conduct to the Board. The reporting licensee shall report the conduct without undue delay, but in no event later than 10 working days after the reporting licensee learns of the conduct.
(18) A licensee who is convicted of a misdemeanor or felony or who is arrested for a felony crime shall report the conviction or arrest to the Board within 10 days after the conviction or arrest.
(19) The Board shall investigate in accordance with the Board’s rules. If the Board has reasonable cause to believe that the licensee has engaged in prohibited conduct, the Board shall present the facts to an appropriate law enforcement agency without undue delay, but in no event later than 10 working days after the Board finds reasonable cause to believe that the licensee engaged in prohibited conduct.
(20) A licensee who fails to report prohibited or unprofessional conduct as required by subsection (2) of this section or the licensee’s conviction or arrest as required by subsection (3) of this section is subject to discipline by the Board.
(21) A licensee who fails to report prohibited conduct as required by subsection (2) of this section commits a Class A violation.
(22) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, a report under subsection (2) or (3) of this section is confidential under ORS 676.175. A board may disclose a report as provided in ORS 676.177.
(23) Except as part of an application for a license or for renewal of a license and except as provided in subsection (3) of this section, the Board may not require a licensee to report the licensee’s criminal conduct.
(24) The obligations imposed by this section are in addition to and not in lieu of other obligations to report unprofessional conduct as provided by statute.
(25) A licensee who reports to the Board in good faith as required by subsection (2) of this section is immune from civil liability for making the report.
(26) The Board and the members, employees and contractors of the Board are immune from civil liability for actions taken in good faith as a result of a report received under subsection (2) or (3) of this section.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 686.210, ORS 686.350 - 686.370, OR 686-120 - 686.130, ORS 686.260 & ORS 686.130
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 686.210 & ORS 686.130
- VMEB 8-2024, amend filed 10/24/2024, effective 10/24/2024
- VMEB 6-2019, adopt filed 10/28/2019, effective 10/28/2019
Or. Admin. R. 875-030-0050 Practice Limitations for Individuals not Certified as Veterinary Technicians
(1) Persons who are not licensed by this Board as CVTs may, under the supervision of a licensed veterinarian, perform all acts that a CVT may perform except:
(2) Induce anesthesia, except to place an endotracheal tube to establish an airway in emergencies (OAR 875-030-0040(2)(b)(E);
(3) Operate X-ray equipment unless the person has completed 20 hours training in radiograph safety (2)(b)(G) as required by the Oregon State Health Division (OAR 333);
(4) Perform dental extractions (2)(e)(G);
(5) Administer rabies vaccine (2)(e)(H); and
(6) Perform any duties under indirect supervision as defined in OAR 875-005-0005(20)(c).
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 686.210
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 686.350 - 686.370
- VMEB 2-2023, amend filed 12/13/2023, effective 12/13/2023
- VMEB 7-2018, amend filed 07/31/2018, effective 07/31/2018
- VMEB 2-2017, f. & cert. ef. 1-12-17
- VMEB 7-2016, f. & cert. ef. 12-13-16
- VMEB 2-2016(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 8-4-16 thru 1-4-17
- VMEB 4-2014, f. & cert. ef. 1-17-14
- VMEB 16-2008, f. & cert. ef. 12-15-08
- VMEB 12-2008, f. & cert. ef. 7-22-08
- VMEB 5-2008, f. & cert. ef. 5-12-08
- VMEB 1-2008, f. & cert. ef. 2-11-08
- Reverted to VME 3-1992, f. & cert. ef. 10-9-92, Renumbered from 875-010-0025
- VMEB 1-2002(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 4-23-02 thru 10-20-02
- VME 3-1992, f. & cert. ef. 10-9-92, Renumbered from 875-010-0025
- VME 3-1991, f. & cert. ef. 12-9-91
- VME 1-1991, f. & cert. ef. 1-24-91
- VME 2-1989, f. 8-29-89, cert. ef. 10-1-89
- VME 3-1983, f. & ef. 1-21-83
- VE 5, f. & ef. 8-3-76
Division 40 CERTIFIED EUTHANASIA TECHNICIANS
Or. Admin. R. 875-040-0000 Certified Euthanasia Technicians (CETs)
(1) Under ORS 475.190, Certified Euthanasia Technicians (CETs) may perform euthanasia or administer sodium pentobarbital as allowed under this Division. Under ORS 609.405, lethal injection of sodium pentobarbital or other substance(s) approved by the Oregon State Veterinary Medical Examining Board are the only approved methods for the euthanasia of injured, sick, homeless domestic pets and other animals by an animal control agency, humane society, or subcontractor thereof.
(2) For the euthanasia process, CETs may administer only the following drugs:
(a) Acepromazine (DEA Non-scheduled).
(b) Butorphanol (DEA Schedule IV).
(c) Diazepam/Midazolam (DEA Schedule IV).
(d) Ketamine (DEA Schedule III).
(e) Medetomidine (DEA Non-scheduled).
(f) Sodium pentobarbital (DEA Schedule II).
(g) Tiletamine and Zolazepam (Telazol) (DEA Schedule III).
(h) Xylazine (DEA Non-scheduled).
(3) CETs shall administer sedation and euthanasia drugs in conformance with any of these following guidelines:
(a) The Association of Shelter Veterinarians (ASV) Guidelines for Standards of Care in Animal Shelters (Second Edition - December 2022);
(b) Euthanasia of Shelter Animals, American Veterinary Medical Association (AVMA) Guidelines on Euthanasia of Animals (2020 edition); or
(c) AVMA Guidelines on Depopulation of Animals (2019 edition).
(4) The references above shall be used in conjunction with sedation protocols created by a veterinarian licensed with the OVMEB.
(5) Unprofessional conduct for CETs includes, but is not limited to:
(a) Handling animals in an inhumane manner or with unnecessary force.
(b) Theft or diversion of legend or controlled drugs.
(c) Improper use of sedation or euthanasia drugs.
(d) Non-compliance with euthanasia protocols or guidelines.
(e) Non-compliance with DEA regulations.
(f) Non-compliance with proper drug storage.
(g) Performing euthanasia or sedation outside the scope of the CET certification.
(h) Any conduct described in ORS 686.130.
(i) Gross negligence in the performance of duties as a CET.
(j) A pattern, practice, or continuous course of negligence, ignorance, incompetence or inefficiency in practice as a CET. The incidents may be dissimilar.
(k) Diagnosing, prescribing, or performing other activities that may be done only by a licensed veterinarian.
(l) Failure to respond or appear as requested, without good cause, within the time required by the Board.
(m) Failure to comply with any rule or order of the Board or as required by OAR 875-005-0010.
(n) Altering or falsifying medical records.
(o) Making a misrepresentation or omission on a certificate renewal application.
(p) Violations of veterinary laws in other states that would constitute violations of Oregon law.
(q) Violations of other laws that relate to the practice of veterinary medicine.
(r) Failure without good cause to notify the Board within 15 days of a change in personal or business address and contact information.
(s) Providing false, misleading, or deceptive information to the Board.
(t) Failure to report unprofessional or prohibited conduct as described in ORS 676.150.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 686.210, ORS 686.120, ORS 686.130, ORS 686.132, ORS 686.150, ORS 686.160 & ORS 606.110
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 475 & ORS 686
- VMEB 3-2024, minor correction filed 04/04/2024, effective 04/04/2024
- VMEB 2-2024, amend filed 03/21/2024, effective 03/21/2024
- VMEB 7-2021, amend filed 08/24/2021, effective 09/01/2021
- VMEB 9-2018, minor correction filed 08/01/2018, effective 08/01/2018
- VMEB 1-2012, f. & cert. ef. 6-25-12
Or. Admin. R. 875-040-0010 Certification of Euthanasia Technicians
(1) Applicants must first apply as a Certified Euthanasia Technician (CET) Intern in order to obtain the training required for a permanent CET certificate. CET Interns may not act independently but only under the immediate supervision of an Oregon CET or Oregon licensed veterinarian. The intern certificate will expire within one year of issue date and does not renew.
(a) The Board may conduct background checks on applicants and certificate holders. Applicants and certificate holders shall be required to provide any police and court records for any arrests and convictions.
(b) The applicant must be an employee or a volunteer at a humane society or animal control agency.
(c) CET interns must pay an initial certification fee.
(2) Upon completion of the requirements below to become a permanent CET, the intern may apply for a permanent certificate.
(3) In order for a person to become a permanent CET, an application must include the following:
(a) Documented evidence of completion of either requirement in (4) or evidence that applicant is exempt from those requirements as described in (5), and;
(b) Submission of an evaluation verification form completed within the previous 12 months attesting that the applicant exhibits proficiency to perform euthanasia of domestic pets and other animals when observed by an Oregon licensed veterinarian within their organization while holding a valid CET intern certificate. The evaluation must be performed after completion of the requirements (4) or (5) of this rule.
(c) The required documentation may be submitted by the intern, the supervising veterinarian, or the agency the CET intern certificate holder is an employee of, or volunteers with.
(d) Applicants to become a permanent CET must pay a certification fee.
(4) Unless exempt under (5), applicants to be a permanent CET must complete one of the following requirements to satisfy the requirement in (3)(a):
(a) 15 hours of documented instruction, observation, and hands-on euthanasia training done with an Oregon licensed DVM or Oregon CET within the past 12 months; or
(b) Completion of an OVMEB approved euthanasia course containing the following within the past 5 years.
(A) 1 hour of Evidence-based euthanasia practices including the euthanasia process, patient selection, confirming correct patient for euthanasia, and record keeping practices.
(B) 1 hour of Selection of and handling of syringes, needles and other medical equipment, and anatomical landmarks for injection by SQ and IM routes
(C) 2 hours of Humane animal handling and restraint.
(D) 1 hour of Humane euthanasia space and equipment
(E) 2 hours of Pre-euthanasia drugs, including levels of consciousness, recordkeeping, oversight of drug, dosing, decision making, and routes of administration.
(F) 1 hour of Sodium Pentobarbital including formulations, controlled drug status, pharmacology, dosing and labeled uses.
(G) 1 hour of Appropriate routes of Sodium Pentobarbital including IV, IP, and IC. With emphasis on dosing, levels of consciousness in the patient, and appropriate level of consciousness for IC administration.
(H) 1 hour of Verifying death and body disposal practices.
(I) 1 hour of Human Safety including OSHA regulations, injury prevention, medical waste disposal, sanitation, and PPE.
(J) 2 hours of Controlled Drug Logs and Federal LAWs, State Laws, Medical record keeping, Drug logs, drug log reconciliation, DEA, and veterinary oversight.
(K) 1 hour of Compassion Fatigue and Stress
(L) 1 hour of Owner-Intended Euthanasia practices and other species euthanasia.
(5) An applicant to be a permanent CET is exempt from the training requirements in (4) if:
(a) The applicant is: (i) a previously certified Oregon CET outside the 12-month window of reinstatement, (ii) a CET licensed in another state or territory of the United States, or (iii) an Oregon licensed CVT; and
(b) Successfully passes a 30-question test provided by the OVMEB on the first attempt.
(c) The applicant must still obtain an intern CET certificate and satisfy the requirements of (3)(b).
(6) Upon separation from an organization, a CET will not euthanize animals until the person is employed by or is a volunteer at another approved agency, completed specific training in association with that agency, and the CET has notified the Board and is issued a new certificate.
(a) Certificates are valid only for the agency at which the person is currently working.
(b) The CET will notify the Board within 10 days of their separation from their organization.
(7) If a CET is reemployed or volunteers within 12 months of holding a CET license, the CET may apply to the Board for reactivation of their certification. After a 12-month lapse, the person must become recertified as both an intern CET and a permanent CETas described above.
(8) CET certificate holders will need to be recertified every 5 years in the form of a proficiency assessment done by an Oregon licensed veterinarian and submitted to the Board within 90 days of the CET certificate renewal. A failure to provide the proficiency assessment by the 90th day after renewal may result in revocation of the CET certificate.
(9) All CET certificates expire on October 31st of each renewal cycle.
(10) Certificate renewal fee shall be paid at each renewal.
(11) Annual verification of employment or volunteer status must come directly from the organization the CET is employed or volunteers with.
(12) Failure to renew or provide verification of employment or volunteer status will result in a lapse and euthanasia duties may not be conducted until the certificate is reinstated.
(13) The Board may suspend, revoke, or otherwise discipline a CET Intern or permanent CET certificate holder for unprofessional conduct or non-compliance with applicable Board statutes and rules.
History
- Statutory/Other Authority: ORS 686.210
- Statutes/Other Implemented: ORS 475 & ORS 686
- VMEB 5-2025, amend filed 09/12/2025, effective 10/01/2025
- VMEB 1-2025, amend filed 04/11/2025, effective 04/11/2025
- VMEB 4-2024, amend filed 05/17/2024, effective 05/17/2024
- VMEB 4-2023, temporary amend filed 12/13/2023, effective 12/13/2023 through 06/09/2024
- VMEB 1-2023, amend filed 02/24/2023, effective 03/01/2023
- VMEB 6-2021, amend filed 08/24/2021, effective 09/01/2021
- VMEB 2-2012, f. & cert. ef. 6-25-12
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